Contracts & Sales Flashcards

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1
Q

Under the common law rule for offers, what essential terms must be covered in the agreement?

A

All essential terms must be covered in the agreement. Parties, subject, price, and quantity.

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2
Q

Under the UCC, what terms must be covered in the agreement? What gaps are willing to be filled?

A

The only essential term is the quantity of what’s being sold. UCC will fill in the gaps, such as price, material terms, delivery, etc.

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3
Q

What are the six ways in which an offer may be terminated before its accepted?

A
  1. The offeror revokes the offer by express communication to the offeree
  2. The offeree learns that the offeror has taken an action that is absolutely inconsistent with the ability to contract (constructive revocation)
  3. The offeree rejects the offer
  4. the offeree makes a counter offer (a rejection plus a New offer)
  5. The offeror dies
  6. A reasonable amount of time passes
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4
Q

Under the common law, what are 3 ways an offer may be irrevocable for a specific amount of time?

A
  1. option contract
  2. a unilateral contract where performance has begun
  3. Detrimental reliance (promissory estoppel)
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5
Q

What constitutes a “firm offer” under the UCC?

A

Must be made by a merchant in the OCOB. A firm offer must be written, signed by the merchant offeror, and contain an explicit promise not to revoke. Can be valid for no more than 90 days.

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6
Q

Under the modern approach, if an offer is ambiguous as to whether it’s unilateral or bi-lateral, how may acceptance be made?

A

By either performance OR a return promise.

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7
Q

What are the exceptions to the requirement that an acceptance must be communicated to the offeror (i.e., when is acceptance by silence ok)?

A

Unilateral reward offers or contests
Unilateral offer where the parties are geographically close (such that the offeror can see performance has begun)
A past history of silence serving as acceptance (such that the offeree should notify the offeror if they do NOT accept)
The offer says acceptance MUST come by silence and the offeree intends to accept by silence

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8
Q

What is an implied-in-fact contract?

A

Where acceptance is communicated without writing or speaking. For example, if you walk into a supercuts, give the receptionist your name, get your haircut you’ve impliedly accepted to pay $15 for a cut even though you never accepted anything.

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9
Q

UCC Section 2-207 gets rid of the mirror image rule, what is the general rule for acceptance under the UCC, and when will it not apply?

A

A definite and seasonable expression of acceptance [or a written confirmation] which is sent within a reasonable time operates as an acceptance even though it states terms additional to or different from those offered or agreed upon.
UNLESS acceptance is expressly made conditional upon assent to the additional or different terms.

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10
Q

When may new terms control the agreement under 2-207(2)?

A

Both parties are merchants
The new term does not materially alter the deal
The initial offer did not expressly limit acceptance to its terms; and
the offeror does not reject/object within a reasonable time to the new term

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11
Q

What is the mirror image rule with regards to acceptance in the common law universe?

A

The terms in teh acceptance must match the terms of the offer EXACTLY or it is not an acceptance, it’s a counter-offer.
A conditional acceptance is a counter offer (“but if” “on the condition of” etc.)

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12
Q

What is the knock-out rule for acceptance under the UCC? State the difference between the minority and majority rules.

A

When the acceptance has a different term from the initial offer.
Minority - when the different term does not govern under 2-207, the initial offer controls
Majority - “knock out” both of the different terms; neither term will govern and the general gap-filling provisions of the UCC will apply

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13
Q

What happens under the UCC when there is an acceptance based on conduct? I.e., no contract was actually formed but the parties proceed as if there has been one?

A

When the parties act as though there was a contract (e.g., exchange goods for money), only the terms that both writings agree on become part of the contract with all other terms supplied by the UCC’s default rule.

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14
Q

Under UCC 2-207 what happens when the parties have a contract (usually by verbal agreement) and then one party sends a confirming memo with additional terms?

A

A written confirmation which is sent within a reasonable amount of time operates as an acceptance, UNLESS acceptance is expressly made condition on assent to the additional or different terms.
Recognize in all situations it’s very rare for new terms to come in because it’s difficult.

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15
Q

Is settling a legal claim sufficient consideration? If so, when?

A

Yes if the plaintiff has a good faith belief in the validity of the claim; or
There is reason to doubt the validity of the claim due to uncertain law.

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16
Q

What is the common law pre-existing duty rule as it applies to contract modification?

A

A promise to do something that you are already legally obligated to do is NOT consideration.
In general, under the common law, contract modification requires new consideration.

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17
Q

What are the 3 exceptions to the common law pre-existing duty rule with regards to contract modification?

A
  1. a change in performance
  2. a 3rd party promising to pay
  3. Unforeseen difficulties that would excuse performance
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18
Q

Is promising partial payment for release from a debt a binding modification? (Common law)

A

If the debt is currently due and undisputed, NO.

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19
Q

What is the requirement for contract modification under the UCC?

A

So long as it’s made in good faith, it is binding even without new consideration.

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20
Q

What are the three elements of promissory estoppel (detrimental reliance)?

A
  1. a promise is made that would be reasonably expected to induce reliance
  2. The promisee does indeed take detrimental action in reliance on the promise; and
  3. Injustice can only be avoided by enforcement of the promise
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21
Q

What is a quasi-contract and what are its elements?

A

Arises when you would have made a contract if you could have, but you could not, or when one party conferred a benefit on another party and it would be fair to pay for that benefit.
Elements
1. Plaintiff confers a measurable benefit on the defendant
2. The plaintiff reasonably expected to be paid; and
3. It would be unfair to let the defendant keep the benefit without paying

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22
Q

What are the common damages for a quasi-contract?

A

Usually limited as justice requires, to the fair value of the benefit conferred.

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23
Q

What is the minority moral obligation theory used as an exception to the general rule that past consideration is not sufficient consideration?

A

A few jurisidctions have some case law suggesting that a moral obligation plus a subsequent PROMISE to pay can be binding. Usually this would be considered past consideration and not binding.

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24
Q

What are the elements of the defense of misunderstanding?

A

The parties use a material term that is open to two or more REASONABLE interpretations (no objective test).
Each side attaches a different meaning
Neither parties knows or should have known of the misunderstanding

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25
Q

What happens if you make a contract with an incapacitated person? What is the necessities exception for minors?

A

A contract made with an incapacitated person is VOIDABLE; the incapacitated person can disaffirm.
With a contract for necessities, the party without capacity must still pay fair value (not necessarily the contract price).

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26
Q

What is ratification with regards to an incompetent person’s contract?

A

If they keep the benefits of the contract after gaining/regaining capacity, they can ratify the deal.

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27
Q

What is the effect of the defense of mutual mistake?

A

Allows the adversely affected party to rescind, if:

  1. there is a mistake of fact existing at the time the deal is made;
  2. the mistake relates to a basic assumption of the contract and has a MATERIAL impact on the deal; and
  3. The impacted party did not assume the risk of mistake
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28
Q

What is the effect of unilateral mistake? (one party)

A

Allows the adversely affected party to rescind if they can prove all the elements of mutual mistake AND

  1. the mistake would make the contract unconscionable OR
  2. The other party knew, or had reason to know of the mistake or they cause the mistake.
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29
Q

What is misrepresentation and how can a party assert it as a defense to formation?

A

A statement at the time of contracting that is not true. Can be intentional (fraud) or accidental (negligent). Party must show

  1. A misrepresentation of a present fact (not opinion)
  2. That is material OR fraudulent AND
  3. That is made under circumstances in which it is justifiable to rely on the misrepresentation
30
Q

What is fraud in the execution?

A

Tricking someone into signing something they don’t even know is a contract.

31
Q

When a contract is in SOF world, what two forms of proof are usually ok to prove the existence?

A

A writing signed by the defendant OR some performance on the purported deal.

32
Q

What types of contracts are subject to the Statute of Frauds?

A

Mr. Sour:
Marriage (like a prenup)
Suretyship (taking on another’s debt)
One year: a contract that cannot be performed within one year from its making
UCC: sale of goods over $500
Real estate - a contract for the sale of an INTEREST in real property

33
Q

What is the suretyship exception to the Statute of Frauds requirement?

A

If the main purpose in agreeing to pay the debt of another is for the surety’s OWN economic advantage, NO SOF requirement.

34
Q

For a services contract that cannot be performed within one year, when has performance satisfied the SoF?

A

Full performance by either side satisfies it.

Part performance DOES NOT satisfy it.

35
Q

What must be included in a writing to satisfy the SoF?

A

Signature of the person to be charged (not necessarily both parties)
Show that a contract has been made
Identifies the parties; and
Contains the essential elements of the deal.

36
Q

When can part performance of a real estate transaction satisfy the SoF?

A

Any TWO of the following elements are met

  1. Possession
  2. Payment
  3. Improvements to the land
37
Q

What kind of signed writing will satisfy the SoF for UCC sale of goods over $500?

A

No need to mention price

Needs to have the QUANTITY of goods to be sold

38
Q

Does part performance satisfy the SoF for UCC goods over $500?

A

Yes, but only for the quantity delivered and accepted.

39
Q

What is the effect of custom made goods under the SoF?

A

Exempted from the SoF. Maker can satisfy the SOF as soon as it makes a substantial beginning toward the manufacture of the goods.

40
Q

What is the effect of a lack of a confirming memo under the SOF under the UCC?

A

The failure to object to a confirming memo within 10 days will satisfy the SOF but ONLY if both parties are merchants.

41
Q

When analyzing whether a contract has been sufficiently formed, what are the four areas you should consider? (Pizza with crawling escargot?)

A

Parol evidence
Warranties (promises)
Conditions
Excuse of performance

42
Q

When a merger clause exists, what statements might a court admit to consider terms/deals?

A

It may admit LATER written or verbal statements about the deal. PER generally will not admit earlier statements/negotiations.

43
Q

What is the general applicability of the PER with regards to UCC contracts?

A

Presumes that a writing is only a partial integration UNLESS the parties would have certainly included a disputed term in the writing. Shifts more towards allowing PE in.

44
Q

When will the PER not apply to bar earlier evidence?

A

Evidence relevant to a defense against contract formation (duress, mistake, etc.)
A party may introduce evidence of a second, separate deal.
Prior communications that are designed to interpret an ambiguous term

45
Q

What is the effect of a sample/model with regards to express warranties?

A

The use of a sample or model creates an express warranty that the goods sold will be like the sample.

46
Q

What is the implied warranty of merchantability? When is it triggered?

A

Triggered ONLY when the seller is a merchant.

Warrants that the goods are fit for ordinary commercial purposes.

47
Q

What is the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose and when is it triggered?

A

Triggered when a buyer relies on a seller’s expertise to select a special type of good that will be sued for a special purpose.
Warrants that the goods will satisfy this special purpose.

48
Q

What is the constructive condition of exchange?

A

One party’s performance is conditioned on the other side’s performance. For example: You agree to buy my jeep next friday for $5,000. The day we meet, I refuse to sign over the title. Do you have to pay me $5,000? No, your performance was conditioned on my performance.

49
Q

In the common law universe, what is the effect of performance on the CCE?

A

Substantial performance says that a party has satisfied the CCE if there is no material breach.
If payment must be made because there’s only a minor problem, the nonbreaching party may recovery “dimunition in market value” damages - damages measured as the cost to complete the performance.

50
Q

Do NOT discuss substantial performance or material breach if a UCC contract. Why? And what are the two main obligations to the perfect tender rule?

A

UCC requires perfect tender; substantial performance is almost never an excuse. It requires:

  1. Perfect goods
  2. Perfect delivery
51
Q

When a buyer discovers a latent defect with goods delivered, may they revoke?

A

When may a buyer reject goods that seem ok when delivered but a defect is discovered within a reasonable time?

52
Q

Does the seller have a right to cure when they fail to tender perfect goods?

A

Yes, if there is time left on the contract OR the seller had reasonable grounds to believe the buyer would accept the imperfect goods. The buyer must give the seller a chance to cure.

53
Q

When can a buyer reject nonperfect goods in an installment contract?

A

Only when there is a substantial impairment that cannot be cured.

54
Q

How does seller make a perfect delivery when they tender at seller’s place of business?

A

Just needs to give the goods to the buyer?

55
Q

Shipment contract (F.O.B. Seller’s place of business) - how does seller make perfect delivery? Who bears risk of loss

A
Seller must take 3 actions to satisfy:
1. Get goods to common carrier
2. Make arrangements for delivery
3. Notify the buyer
Risk of loss is with buyer once it goes to common carrier
56
Q

Destination contract (FOB buyer’s place of business). Who bears risk of loss?

A

Seller must deliver goods to buyer. Risk of loss rests with the buyer.

57
Q

What is accord and satisfaction?

A

The parties to an earlier contract agree that performance will be satisfied instead by the completion of a different performance.
The new performance is called the accord
The excusal of the initial performance obligation is called the satisfaction

Key language: the partiES must agree

58
Q

What happens if an accord is not performed WRT right to sue

A

the other side can sue on either the original obligation OR the new promise.

59
Q

What is a novation? What is its effect on the original obligor?

A

BOTH parties agree that a substitute PERSON will take over one side’s contractual obligations.
If there is a valid novation, the original promisor is EXCUSED from performance.

60
Q

In the event of anticipatory repudiation, what are the nonbreaching party’s options? (Common law)

A
  1. Must have a clear and unequivocal repudiation, then:
    2 Treat it as a breach and sue immediately UNLESS you have completed the entire performance and are merely waiting for payment, you cannot sue early
  2. You can also ignore it, demand performances and see what happens
61
Q

When may a party retract its repudiation? (Common law)

A

So long as the other side has not

  1. commenced a lawsuit, or
  2. acted in reliance on the repudiation (like by hiring someone else, etc.)
62
Q

Under the UCC, what are your options under the doctrine of anticipatory repudiation?

A

Reasonable grounds for insecurity about the other side’s performance allow you to demand an adequate assurance of performances.
If the party fails to respond within a reasonable amount of time, you can treat it as a repudiation (and insist on performance or sue immediately)

63
Q

What are expectation damages and how are they calculated?

A

Goal - to put party in same economic position if the contract had been performed.

Measured by comparing the value of performance without the breach to the value of performance with the breach.

64
Q

What are lost volume profits and what is the effect on the breaching buyer?

A

If the seller is a retailer who sells this type of product all the time and has inventory to sell to breacher and a subsequent buyer, the seller may argue that the breaching buyer owes them the profit. Even if they resell because it’s technically not mitigation if they can sell both.

65
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Goal - to put party in the same position if contract had never been created.

66
Q

What are restitution damages?

A

Goal - to give the plaintiff an amount equal to the economic benefit conferred on the defendant.

67
Q

What are liquidation damages? When are they enforceable?

A

Stated in the contract as an explicityly negotiated amount due on breach. Only awarded if

  1. reasonable at the time of contracting; and
  2. actual damages from breach are uncertain and difficult to prove
68
Q

When is specific performance or injunctive relief an option? Specifically real estate and UCC goods?

A

Usually when monetary damages are considered inadequate for some reason. Presumed for buyers in real estate transactions unless it’s already been sold to a 3rd party. Then it’s the FMV at the time of breach.
Under UCC it’s only available for unique goods like art or custom made goods.

69
Q

What is the right of reclamation?

A

When an unpaid seller tries to reclaim goods that were sold on credit and the buyer’s insolvent. 3 elements to prove:

  1. Buyer was insolvent at the time of the receipt of the goods
  2. The seller MUST demand the return within 10 days of receipt (or within a reasonable amount of time if the buyer misrepresented his solvency to the seller in writing within 3 months before delivery)
  3. The buyer still has the goods
70
Q

When are delegatees liable for breach?

A

When they receive consideration from the delegating party.

71
Q

How and when may repudiation be retracted?

A

Repudiation may be retracted within a reasonable amount of time so long as the other party hasn’t cancelled or otherwise materially changed their position based on repudiation. In this case, the terms of the original contract will gover.

72
Q

When does a buyer acquire insurable interest in goods?

A

A buyer acquires an insurable interest in goods upon the identification of the goods. Where the contract is for future goods (i.e., goods that are not both existing and identified), the buyer does not acquire an insurable interest until the seller designates goods as those to which the contract refers, unless the parties have explicitly agreed otherwise.

Since the dairy did not select a tank trailer from the retailer’s inventory or otherwise select a specific trailer, the contract was for the sale of future goods. By painting the dairy’s emblem on the tank trailer, the seller effectively designated that tank trailer as the dairy’s. Consequently, at that time, the dairy acquired an insurable interest in it.