Civil Procedure Flashcards

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1
Q

Regarding subject matter jurisdiction (diversity) for Limited Partnerships (LPs), how is diversity determined?

A

The citizenship of EACH member of the partnership, both limited partners and general partners, must be taken into account.

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2
Q

When a defendant agrees to waive service of process, what date is considered the date of service of process?

A

The date the plaintiff files the waiver.

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3
Q

What is the general presumption of a federal court with regards to SMJ? Who bears the burden of proof?

A

A federal court must presume an absence of jurisdiction until it determines that the matter falls within its rightful jurisdiction. The burden is on the party seeking to invoke the court’s jurisdiction.

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4
Q

SMJ may not be waived and may be raised by any party, at any time, including appeal. If, however, a final judgment has been entered, may it be contested?

A

A judgment ordinarily may not be challenged collaterally on the basis of improper SMJ.

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5
Q

A federal court with SMJ is required to adjudicate the dispute despite the pendency of a similar action in state court. What are the limited circumstances where a FC may absatin from hearing a case or stay the matter pending the outcome of the state court action?

A
  1. Resolution of state law by the state court would eliminate the need for the federal court to decide a fed constitutional issue
  2. Avoidance of federal involvement with a complex state reg scheme
  3. State action involves punishment of an individual for criminal sactivity or contempt of court, or imposition of a civil fine and the fed court is asked to enjoin it
  4. parallel proceedings that go beyond mere waste of judicial resources
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6
Q

Under the foreign sovereign immunities act, a suit may not be brought in federal or state court against a foreign state, including an angency or instrumentality of a foreign state. What are the exceptions?

A

Engaging in commercial activity
Committing a tort in the US
Seizing property in violation of international law

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7
Q

What is the federal interpleader act and how does it apply to diversity jurisdiction?

A

Under the FIA, the holder of property that is claimed by two or more persons may deposit it with a court to determine ownership. There need be only two adverse claimants of diverse citizenship to establish federal jurisdiction.

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8
Q

What is a stateless person for diversity jurisdiction?

A

DJ does not exist if a party is an alien who is present in the US and is not a citizen or subject of a foreign country. Or if a party is a US citizen whose domicile is a foreign country.

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9
Q

Where is a corporation “incorporated” for the purposes of diversity jurisdiction?

A

Every corp has at least one state of incorp and some have multiple. If a corporation is incorporated in more than one state or foreign coutnry, then it is considered a citizen of each state and foreign country in which it is incorporated.

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10
Q

What is the special rule of citizenship for liability insurers who are sued directly on behalf of the insured?

A

Section 1332 makes the insurer a citizen of the state or foreign country in which its insured is a citizen, in addition to the other states for countries where it has citizenship.

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11
Q

What is the citizenship rule for unincorporated associations (partnerships?)

A

A partnership is considered a citizen of each state in which each of its members is domiciled. It’s possible that a partnership could be a citizen of all 50 states. No distinguishing between general and limited partners.

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12
Q

What happens if a claim’s damages are reduced below $75,000 after filing?

A

If events after the action has been filed reduce the amount in controversy below the mnimum then jsdx will not be lost as long as the original claim was in good faith.

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13
Q

When a plaintiff sues multiple defendants, may they aggregate their claims to satisfy AIC?

A

No, unless they’re jointly and severally liable in a torts claim.

Claims against EACH defendant must be more than $75,000

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14
Q

If two or more plaintiffs sue one defendant, may they aggregate their claims to meet AIC?

A

No, plaintiffs may not aggregate their claims against the defendants.

If Ann and Damon decide to sue Ben together for $50,000 each. Is the AIC requirement satisfied? No, each must have a +$75K claim.

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15
Q

In a class action not subject to CAFA, may plaintiffs aggregate their claims?

A

In general, if any member of the putative class does not have a claim that meets the AIC requirement, then it’s not met. The CAFA permits aggregation of claims in CERTAIN class actions.

When at least one plaintiff in a class action that is +$75K, other persons with claims under that can be made a part of the class under supplemental jurisdiction.

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16
Q

What is permissive joinder?

A

A party who can assert a claim, crossclaim, counterclaim, or third party claim may join with it as many independent or alternative claims of whatever nature as the party may have against an opposing party.

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17
Q

What is a counterclaim? How many it be asserted?

A

A counterclaim is a claim for relief made against an opposing party after an original claim has been made. It may be asserted in the answer to the complaint and the reply to a counterclaim.

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18
Q

When must a party serve an answer to a counterclaim or crossclaim?

A

WIthin 21 days of service of process.

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19
Q

What is a compulsory counterclaim?

A

Any claim that, at the time of service, the pleader has against an opposing party if the claim arises out of the same transaction or occurence that is the subject matter of the opposing party’s claim and DOES NOT require adding another party over whom the court cannot acquire jurisdiction.

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20
Q

What happens when a party fails to state a compulsory counterclaim?

A

Waives the right to sue on the claim and is generally precluded from ever suing on the claim in federal court.

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21
Q

What is a permissive counterclaim?

A

A pleading may state as a counterclaim against an opposing party any claim that’s not compulsory. Discretion as to whether to raise the counterclaim in the current action or in a separate matter.

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22
Q

What is a crossclaim? What does it contain?

A

A claim made against a coparty. A pleading may state as a crossclaim any claim by one party against a coparty that arises out of the same transaction that is the subject matter of the original action or of the counterclaim, or if the lcaim relates to any property that is the subject matter of the original action.

It may include a claim that the coparty is liable to the cross-claimant for all or part of a claim asserted in the action against the cross-claimant.

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23
Q

What is a third party claim (impleader)?

A

Claims made by a defendant against a nonparty for all or part of their liability on an original claim. The plaintiff may also assert related claims against the impleaded party. In either case, the impleaded claim must relate to the original claim against the defending party. The court may sever any third party claim if justice demands it.

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24
Q

When may a third party claim be asserted?

A

A defendant or plaintiff against whom a counterclaim has been asserted, may assert a 3rd party claim at any time after the complaint is filed.

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25
Q

When must a 3rd party plaintiff serve summons on a party they are attempting to implead?

A

The third party plaintiff must serve a summons and third party complaint on the nonparty (impleaded party). They must file within 14 days of their original answer, but can get court’s permission for longer.

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26
Q

Does a compulsory counterclaim need to meet the jurisdictional AIC for federal court?

A

No, so long as its a defendant against a plaintiff.

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27
Q

Does a permissive counterclaim need to meet the AIC requirement?

A

Yes.

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28
Q

If a case is brought in federal court on a federal question, and the court chooses to exercise supplemental jurisdiction over an additional state law claim, and the federal question is dismissed on the merits, must the federal court transfer the remaining question to state court?

A

No. Dismissal of a federal claim on the merits does not preclude a federal court from exercising pendent-party jurisdiction over the state claim.

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29
Q

When a plaintiff is brought in through permissive joinder, may it do so even the AIC isn’t met? What about complete diversity?

A

Yes, the AIC of plaintiff 2 against defendant does not have to be +75, but it cannot destroy complete diversity.

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30
Q

Does a compulsive counterclaim have to satisfy the AIC?

A

No, a counterclaim may be asserted by a defendant against a plaintiff without satisfying the jurisdictional amount so long as it’s compulsory.

31
Q

Does a permissive counterclaim have to satisfy the jursidictional requirements for diversity?

A

Yes. It’s not the common nucleus, so a permissive cc does not qualify for supplemental jurisdiction unless it’s over 75K.

32
Q

May a court exercise SJ over a crossclaim?

A

Since a crossclaim must arise out of the same transaction or occurrence and will qualify for SJ as long as court has SMJ over the original complain.

33
Q

When does a district court have discretion to decline supplemental jurisdiction?

A
  1. the supplemental claim raises a novel or complex issue of state law.
  2. The supplemental claim substantially predominates over the the claims withn the original federal jurisdiction
  3. All of the claims within the court’s original jurisdiction have been dismissed
  4. In exceptional circumstances, where there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction
34
Q

What is removal? Where does the case go?

A

It allows a defendant to remove a case from state to federal court, so long as the federal court would have had SMJ over the original claim. It removes it to the disctric court for the district and division in which the state court action is pending.

35
Q

If diversity is preventing removal because a party is not diverse and then that party drops, can the defendant remove?

A

Yes, removal is permitted when a party who prevents diversity is dismissed from the action; however, joinder of a non diverse party will prevent removal even if the part was joined for the purpose of preventing removal so long as the plaintiff has a reasonable basis for recovering from the joined defendant.

36
Q

What are specific statutes that allow automatic removal to federal court?

A
  1. Suits against the US, any federal agency or federal officers for acts under color of office
  2. Suits against federal employees for injuries caused from their operation of a car within the scope of their emplyment
  3. Actions where any party asserts a claim for relief based on a federal statute related to patents, copyrights, or plant variety protection
  4. Actions involving federal banking
37
Q

Where is federal removal not allowed? What kinds of actions?

A
  1. Actions under the FELA or Jones Act against a railroad
  2. Actions against carriers for delay, loss or damage where the AIC is less than $10,000
  3. Actions for workers’ comp in the state where the action is brought
  4. Actions arising under the violence against women act of 1994
38
Q

When must a defendant provide notice of removal? What must the notice contain?

A

Defendant must file a notice of removal within 30 days of receipt of service. The notice must be:

  1. Signed and contain a short and plain statement of removal grounds
  2. filed in the DC for the district and division in which the state court is pending and
  3. Be accompanied by copies of all process, pleadings and orders served on defendants seeking removal
39
Q

If there are multiple defendants and one wants to remove, what must happen?

A

all defendants must consent to removal; if the ds are served at different times and a later-served defendant files a notice, then any earlier served d may join in the removal even though they did not previously initiate or consent to removal

40
Q

When removal is based on diversity, what’s the time limit for removal?

A

1 yera after the action is commenced unless the plaintiff acted in bad faith to hit the 1 year mark

41
Q

What is the procedure for demanding a jury trial once it’s been transferred to federal court?

A

The removing party must file the demand within 14 days of filing for removal; the non moving party also has 14 days to file, but their countdown begins after the service of notice of removal; if the demand is not timely it is waived UNLESS they made the demand before the removal.

42
Q

What federal courts were created by Congress to jurisdictions over specific cases?

A
  1. The US Claims Court; OJ over actions brought against the US or its officers for federal property
  2. The US Court of Appeals for the federal circuit: appellate jurisdiction over claims against the federal government or its officers
  3. US Court of international trade: nationwide jsdx over civil actions arising out of US customs and international trade laws
  4. US Tax Court; all taxpayer challenges to IRS deficiency judgments
  5. The US Bankruptcy court
43
Q

What are 3 alternative bases of personal jurisdiction? To what circumstances do they apply?

A
  1. Nationwide PJ: A federal court has national PJ when authorized by satute, such as for statutory interpleader actions
  2. Bulge provision: a fed court has PJ over a party who is served within 100 miles from a US judicial district regardless of the state. Applies to 3rd party defendants and required joinders
  3. Rule 4(k)(2): a fed court has PJ over a D if: (i) P’s claims are federal, (ii) no state court can exercise PJ over the D, and (iii) D must have “minimum contacts with the United States” This provision is generally used for foreign defendants who have contacts with the US but not with any state in particular
44
Q

A party must object to a lack of PJ at the first opportunity, if this is denied by the court what happens?

A

Most states permit the defendant to defend the case on the merits and preserve the objection to PJ as an issue for appeal.

45
Q

When must a defendant assert improper venue and what happens if they don’t?

A

If they don’t, it’s waived. They must bring it up at the earliest opportunity either in a pre-answer motion or in the answer.

46
Q

Where is federal venue proper?

A

In a district where:

  • any defendant resides, so long as all defendants are citizens of the same state OR
  • Where the claim arose

If neither of the above are true (rare) any venue that would have PJ over one of the defendants.

47
Q

When may a case be transferred?

A

A case brought in a district with proper venue may be transferred for convenience to another district with proper venue.
A case brought in a district without proper venue may be transferred to a district with venue or dismissed.

48
Q

What law applies when venue is transferred?

A
  1. if it was WITh proper venue, the law of the first venue applies
  2. if it was WITHOUT proper venue, the law of the new venue applies
49
Q

What is considered “substantive law” for the purposes of DJ?

A
  1. State SoLs
  2. burdens of proof on state law claims and defenses; and
  3. state rules on choice of law

In general, anything that governs conduct.

50
Q

Generally, federal courts sitting in diversity must apply federal procedural law and state substantive law. When might a federal court apply state procedural law?

A

If the choice of the procedure will be outcome determinative, the fed court should generally apply state law.

51
Q

How is time computed for the purpose of pleadings, filings, motions, etc.?

A

Whenever a time period is stated in days, the period excludes the day of the event that triggers it but it includes every day following, including weekends and legal holidays. However, if the time runs out on a weekend or holiday, it’s extended to the following Monday (or non legal holiday for holidays that aren’t always on the weekend).

52
Q

What types of claims require special pleading?

A

Fraud, misrepresentation or special damages (i.e. those that don’t naturally occur from the injury).

53
Q

What is the standard of notice pleading under Iqbal and twombly?

A

You will be expected to recognize that, even under notice pleading, unconvincing and implausible allegations with no factual support should be dismissed.

54
Q

What may a motion to dismiss be used to claim?

A
Lack of SMJ or PJ
Improper Service
Improper venue
Failure to state a claim
Failure to join a necessary party
Forum non conveniens 

Other than SMJ, most claims are waived if not brought up at the earliest opportunity.
Ex: If the defendant thinks the plaintiff’s claim is inadequate and files a motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim on which relief can be granted, but she also thinks the court lacks personal jurisdiction over her or is an improver venue, then the defendant must include BOTH those objections in the motion.

55
Q

What is a motion for judgment on the pleadings?

A

applies when the facts in the pleadings are not in dispute and the only question is of law.
If facts in affidavits or discovery documents must be considered, must file for summary judgment instead of judgment on the pleadings

56
Q

What is a motion to strike?

A

Can be used to delete from a pleading scandalous or prejudicial matters that are NOT relevant to the case at hand
Also used by the plaintiff to strike a legally invalid defense

57
Q

What is the effect of not responding to a complaint, what must the answer in general contain?

A

The failure to respond constitutes an admission
o Unless cured by amendment, the admission is binding in the action.
o Usual practice: a “boilerplate” denial of everything not specifically admitted

58
Q

What are the timing requirements for responding to a complaint? Including if the d files a MTD that’s denied instead of an answer.

A

Must ordinarily be served within 20 days of service of the pleading to which it responds
o If defendant agrees to waive service of process, the answer is due within 60 days of when the request for waiver was sent out (90 days if the request for waiver was sent to the defendant outside of the U.S.).
o If defendant files a motion to dismiss and the court denies it, the answer is due 14 days after notice of the court’s action.

59
Q

What is a Reply and what are its timing requirements?

A

It’s a plaintiff’s answer to a counterclaim and follows the same rules as answers.

60
Q

When and how many times may an amendment to a pleading be made?

A

May be amended once as of right at any time within 21 days of service of the pleading or within 21 days of the defendant’s response, if there is one

61
Q

After an amendment has been made once, how may a party request an additional amendment?

A

Needs to be made as of leave of court, but courts should freely allow.

Judge must have a reason for denying leave to amend.
 Example: Amendment is too late and would be prejudicial to the other side, or the pleader has had a prior opportunity to amend but has not corrected the problem.

62
Q

What is the doctrine of relation back?

A

In some circumstances, an amendment is deemed to relate back to the date the original pleading was filed. Usually for a question about sttute of limitations tolling.

If the statute of limitations has run out, then relation back determines whether the amended pleading is allowed (relates back) or time-barred (does not relate back).

63
Q

When does the relate back doctine toll the sol?

A

An amendment relates back to the date of the original filing IF it concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading.
 The key concept here is Notice; it cannot have the effect of surprising the other party.

64
Q

Most pleadings are not sworn to, nor do they have to be. When do they?

A

Certification: Pleadings and other documents—including motions and discovery requests—must be signed by attorney of record and provide the attorney’s contact information.

The signature certifies that there is an appropriate factual and legal basis for filing.
o Attorney certifies that to the best of her knowledge after reasonable inquiry:
 There is NO improper purpose (e.g., harass or needlessly increase costs);
 The legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by a non-frivolous argument for a change in the law; and
 The factual allegations have evidentiary support or are LIKELY to have such support after an opportunity for discovery.

65
Q

What is intervention as of right?

A

Is available when the outsider claims an interest in the subject matter of the lawsuit that, as a practical matter, may be comprised by the disposition of the pending action. And the current parties to the litigation are not adequately representing their rights

66
Q

What is permissive intervention?

A

May be allowed whenever there is a common question of fact OR law between the intervenor’s claim and the main claim (very relaxed standard).
 Must ask the court’s permission—matter of court’s sound discretion

67
Q

Is there SJ for parties joined through permissive intervention or intervention as of right in a diversity case?

A

NO. Diversity intervenors must be completely diverse and satisfy the AIC requirement.

68
Q

What are the relaxed standards for a federal statutory interpleader act?

A

amount need only be $500
SMJ based on minimal diversity
authorizes nationwide SOP
Venue is proper where any claimant resides

69
Q

What are the pre-reqs for a class action?

A
  1. Numerosity
  2. Common questions of law or fact
  3. Typicality of claims
  4. adequacy of representation

Burden is on the proponent of class cert to establish these

70
Q

once a class action has been certified, what does settlement or dismissal require?

A

Judicial approval.

71
Q

How will a class action satisfy DJ?

A

At least one named member has a claim over $75K

All named reps must be completely diverse from defendants

72
Q

What are the special SMJ rules under the CAFA?

A
  1. At least 100 members
  2. Defendants are not states, state officials or other government entities
  3. Action does not involve certain securities related cases or the internl affairs or governance of a corporation
  4. Aggregate exceeds $5M
  5. Minimum diversity exists
73
Q

What is additur? Is it allowed in federal court?

A

Additur, which is an increase by the court in the amount of damages awarded by a jury, is not permitted in a federal court action. Such an enhanced verdict violates the Seventh Amendment right to a jury trial.