Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bar Prep > Contracts > Flashcards

Contracts Flashcards

1
Q

Bilateral Contracts

A

Exchange of Mutual Promises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Unilateral Contracts

A

Acceptance by Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Void Contract

A

A void contract is one that is totally without any legal effect from the beginning. Can’t be enforced by any party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Voidable Contract

A

is one that one or both parties may elect to avoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Unenforceable Contract

A

an agreement that is otherwise valid but which may not be enforceable due to a defense to contract formation. ex. SOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mutual Assent

A

Offer and Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Offer

A

A communication that includes:

  1. a promise, undertaking, or commitment to enter into a contract;
  2. Definite and Certain Terms
  3. communicated to the offeree
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Revocation

A

Retraction of an offer by the offeror

must be communicated to offeree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Option

A

A distinct contract in which the offeree gives consideration for a promise by the offeror not to revoke an outstanding offer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Merchant’s Firm Offer Rule

A

An offer cannot be revoked for up to three months if
1. made by a merchant (one dealing in goods of the kind),
2. signed, written promise to keep the offer open;
AND
3. Party is a merchant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Detrimental Reliance

A

An offer cannot be revoked if there has been

  1. reliance that is
  2. reasonably foreseeable and
  3. detrimental.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Quasi Contract

A

No contract- equitable remedy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Methods of terminating offer

A
  1. Lapse of Time
  2. Death of a party prior to acceptance
  3. Revocation
  4. Rejection
  5. counteroffer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 methods of indirect rejection

A
  1. counter offer
  2. conditional acceptance
  3. additional terms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acceptance

A

The manifestation of of assent to the terms of the offer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mirror Image Rule

A

An acceptance must be a precise mirror image of the offer. if the response conflicts at all with the terms of the offer, or adds new terms it is treated as a rejection and counter offer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Consideration

A

Bargained for exchange of legal detriment and an be a promise to do an act or forbearance from doing an act one is otherwise entitled to do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Illusory Promise

A

A promise not supported by consideration thus not not enforceable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Requirement Contract

A

the parties agree the seller will be the exclusive source of all of the buyer’s requirements for a particular item for a specified period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Output contract

A

the buyer agrees to buy all of the seller’s output of a particular item for a specified period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Preexisting duty rule

A

provides that a promise to do something that one is already legally obligated to do will not provide consideration for a new bargain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Promissory Estoppel

A

A promise that foreseeably induces reliance, and is actually relied upon, may be enforceable to prevent injustice, even without consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Statute of Frauds

A 
Defense to Enforceability of Contract: 
Contracts that need to be in writing to be enforceable (my legs) 
1. Marriage
2. Year- contracts more than a year to complete
3. Land- Sale of interest of land 
4.  Executory contracts 
5.  Goods of $500 or more 
6.  Sureties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Merchant’s confirming Memo

A

(satisfied SOF)
Allows a writing to be enforced against both the signer and recipient where it is
1. Between two merchants
2. one party receives signed confirmation
3. Both parties will be bound
4. Except if the recipient objects within 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Misrepresentation

A

Defense to Enforceability of Contract:

May serve as a defense where one party makes a misrepresentation prior to the other signing the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Unconscionability

A

Defense to Enforceability of Contract:

If the court finds a contract term so unfavorable it is unconscionable, the court may decline to enforce the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mistake

A

Defense to Enforceability of contract:

A belief not accord with the facts and can be a mutual or unilateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Condition

A

An event that must occur before performance of the other party is due.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Parol Evidence Rule

A

Limits the discussions or writings made prior to, or contemporaneous with, the signed written contract can be admitted or considered as part of the agreement.
if partial integration: can allowed to supplement term
if total integration: inadmissible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Requirements of Contract Modification

UCC

A
  1. Mutual Assent

2. Good Faith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Requirements of Contract Modification

Common Law

A
  1. Mutual Assent

2. New consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Third party beneficiary

A

a person whom the promisor intends to benefit by the contract but who is not already a party to the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Assignment

A

When a party to an existing contract transfers her rights under the contract to a third person

34
Q

Delegation

A

when a party to an existing contract appoints to a third person the duties owed under the contract.

35
Q

Perfect Tender Rule

A

(UCC)
Provides that if the goods tendered fail to conform to the contract in any respect, the buyer has three choices:
1. Reject the whole within a reasonable time; or
2. accept the whole; or
3. accept any commercial unit and reject the rest.

36
Q

Divisible Contract

A

one where the parties have divided up their performance into agreed equivalents, which means that each corresponding part performance is roughly equal to the corresponding part compensation. (Ex. A and B agree that B will paint 15 identical cars of A for $500 each)

37
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation

A

An unequivocal expression by a party, occurring before the time for performance is due, that she will not perform.

38
Q

Implied Warranty of Merchantability

A

Warrant that goods will be fit for the ordinary purpose for which such goods are used.

39
Q

Warranty of fitness for particular purpose

A

applies where the buyer relies on the seller’s judgment to select appropriate goods for a stated purpose.

40
Q

Implied Covenant of Good Faith and Fair Dealing

A

inherent in every contract

41
Q

Accord

A

An agreement where one party promises to render substitute performance and the other promises to accept that substitute in discharge of the existing duty.

42
Q

Satisfaction

A

the performance of the accord, which then discharges both the original agreement and the accord.

43
Q

Impossibility

A

occurs when a supervening, unforeseeable event makes performance impossible and thus discharges performance.
(destruction of subject matter, death or incapacity of person required to perform or supervening illegality)

44
Q

Impracticability

A

occurs when the occurrence of an event the parties assumed would not occur make performance extremely and unreasonably difficult. (both parties took risk)

45
Q

Frustration of Purpose

A

occurs when the party’s purpose for entering the contract is destroyed by supervening events. Both parties must know the purpose of the contract; the even must not be reasonably foreseeable; and frustration is total.

46
Q

Expectation Damages or Compensatory Damages

A

Compensate a plaintiff for the value of the benefit plaintiff expected to receive from the contract. (puts the plaintiff in the position he would have been in if the contract was performed)

47
Q

Consequential Damages

A

compensate for damages that are a direct and foreseeable consequence of the contract nonperformance and are unique to each plaintiff.

48
Q

Reliance Damages

A

put the plaintiff in the position he would have been in had the contract never been made.

49
Q

Liquidated Damages

A

damages in the amount stipulated to in the contract. Allowed when actual damages are difficult to calculate, and the amount agreed is a reasonable approximation of the anticipated loss from a breach.

50
Q

Nominal Damages

A

awarded where the plaintiff’s rights have been violated but no financial loss has been sustained.

51
Q

Punitive Damages

A

not awarded for a standard breach of contract.

52
Q

Replevin

A

applies when the plaintiff wants her property back

53
Q

Ejectment

A

applies when the plaintiff wants her real property back

54
Q

Reformation

A

rewrites a contract to accurately reflect the agreement of the parties where the writing is in error, such as a scrivener’s error.

55
Q

Rescission

A

permits a party to undo a bargain.

56
Q

Grounds for Rescission

A

allowed where a contract has resulted from fraud, misrepresentation, duress or mistake.

57
Q

Specific Performance

A

where a party is ordered by the court to render the promised performance under the contract.

58
Q

Specific Performance Requirements

Chocolate Cheesecake is my favorite desert

A
  1. contract
  2. conditions satisfied
  3. inadequate legal remedy
  4. mutuality of performance
  5. Feasibility of enforcement
  6. Defenses- None.
59
Q

Third Party Vesting Requirements

A

Vesting occurs when the beneficiary:

  1. Manifests assent to the promise in a manner invited or requested by the parties;
  2. brings suit to enforce promise; or
  3. materially changes position in justifiable reliance of the promise.
60
Q

Surety

A

A promise to answer for a debt or default of another where the promise is collateral rather than primary. (However, where the main purpose or leading object of the promisor is to secure an advantage or pecuniary benefit for himself, the contract is not within the SOF)

61
Q

F.O.B. DESTINATION

A

When a contract has an FOB delivery term, the seller is obligated to get the goods to the destination indicated and make a reasonable contract for freight if the destination indicated is not the buyer’s place of business. the seller has the risk of loss until the goods make it to the F.O.B destination, and thereafter the buyer has the risk.

62
Q

contract

A

A bargained for exchange for which the law provides a remedy if it is breached.

63
Q

UCC

A

Governs contracts for the Sale of Goods

64
Q

Common Law

A

Governs all other contracts except those for the sale of goods

65
Q

Goods

A

moveable tangible property

66
Q

Merchant

A

one who deals in goods of the kind or one holding oneself out as having special knowledge or skills regarding the practices or goods involved in the contract.

67
Q

Predominance Test

A

Where a contract includes both goods and the provision of services, the predominance test determines if the UCC or common law governs the contract.

68
Q

Contract Formation Requirements

A

A valid contract requires mutual assent, which consists of an offer and acceptance and consideration.

69
Q

Definite and Certain Terms for an Offer

A

Must contain:

  1. Quantity
  2. Time of Performance
  3. Identity of the parties
  4. price (However, the UCC provides “reasonable price at the time of delivery” if missing)
  5. Subject matter
70
Q

Mailbox Rule

A

provides an acceptance is effective upon proper dispatch, if both an acceptance and a rejection are sent, if rejection is dispatched first, the acceptance will only become effective if it is received first.

71
Q

Battle of the Forms

A

In a UCC contract, acceptance will determine if additional terms are valid. If one party or more is not a merchant, any additional terms is a proposal and will not be part of the contract unless the other parties assent, if both parties are merchants the additional term will become part of the contract.

72
Q

Exceptions to the Battle of the Forms Rule

A

Additional terms will not be added to a contract if: 1. offer expressly limits acceptance to its terms,

  1. material alteration with added term or
  2. objection
73
Q

Knock out Rule

A

Conflicting Terms cancel each other out and neither enter the contract.

74
Q

UCC Gap Fillers

A
  1. Price is reasonable price at the time of delivery
  2. Place of delivery: buyer must pick up the goods from the seller
  3. Time for Shipment is a reasonable time
  4. Time for payment: payment is due upon receipt.
75
Q

SOF writing requirement

A

there must be one or more writing that when combined include the essential terms of the contract and that is signed by the party to be charged.

76
Q

Elements for avoidance for mutual mistake

A
  1. Basic Assumption
  2. Material Effect
  3. Risk
77
Q

Intended Beneficiary

A

An intended beneficiary is one intended by the promisor to benefit from the contract and can sue for enforcement.

78
Q

Incidental Beneficiary

A

One who indirectly benefits from the contract, but that result is not intended of the promisor. May not sue for enforcement.

79
Q

Novation

A

occurs when the obligee expressly agrees to accept the performance of the delegatee instead of the delegator. Terminates the liability of the delegator.

80
Q

UCC 2-207

A

Permits a seller to reclaim goods upon demand within 10 days after the buyer receives them if the seller discovers that the buyer received goods on credit while insolvent.

81
Q

Contract Defenses

A
  1. no mutual assent
  2. lack of consideration
  3. No writing, when required by the SOF
  4. Misrepresentation/Fraud/Undue Influence
  5. Unconscionability
  6. Lack of Capacity
  7. Illegality of contract
  8. Condition Precedent not met.

Bar Prep (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions