Contracts Flashcards

1
Q

What governs contracts for the sale of goods?

A

Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) governs all contracts for the sale of goods.

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2
Q

How are goods defined under the UCC?

A

Goods are defined as all things that are movable at the time of identification to the contract (other than the money), including crops and the unborn young of animals.

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3
Q

What law governs contracts that do not pertain to goods?

A

Common law governs contracts that do not pertain to goods, such as service or construction contracts.

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4
Q

How is the governing law determined for mixed contracts?

A

For mixed contracts, the predominant purpose of the contract determines which law governs. If the predominant purpose is the sale of goods, the UCC applies; if for services, the common law applies.

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5
Q

What are the requirements to form a valid contract?

A

To form a valid contract, there must be:

  1. mutual assent (an offer and acceptance),
  2. adequate consideration or a substitute,
  3. compliance with the Statute of Frauds, and
  4. no defenses to formation.
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6
Q

What constitutes mutual assent?

A

Mutual assent consists of:

  1. offer – manifestation of present intent to enter into a contract with definite terms and communicated to the offeree, and
  2. acceptance – manifestation of assent to the terms of the offer
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7
Q

What is the effect of silence on acceptance?

A

Silence generally does NOT manifest acceptance, but performance may be adequate.

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8
Q

How can offers be terminated before acceptance?

A

Offers can be terminated by:

  1. revocation by the offeror,
  2. rejection or counter-offer by the offeree,
  3. lapse of time,
  4. death or incapacity of either party
  5. destruction of subject matter, or
  6. supervening illegality.
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9
Q

When is an offer irrevocable?

A

Some offers are irrevocable, such as:

  1. option contracts when consideration is given for a promise to keep an offer open
  2. merchant’s firm offer,
  3. offers relied on to the offeree’s detriment, and
  4. start of performance on a unilateral contract, which makes the offer irrevocable for a reasonable time to complete performance
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10
Q

What is a Merchant’s Firm Offer?

A

A Merchant’s Firm Offer is an offer to buy or sell goods by a merchant in a signed writing stating it will be held open and is not revocable for a specified time, not exceeding three months.

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11
Q

Are advertisements considered offers?

A

Advertisements are generally NOT considered offers but may be if they include sufficiently clear and definite terms.

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12
Q

What is the Mailbox Rule?

A

Under the Mailbox Rule, acceptance is effective once sent, while revocation is effective when received.

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13
Q

What is the mirror image rule?

A

The common law mirror image rule states that acceptance must exactly mirror the offer; otherwise, it constitutes a counter-offer.

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14
Q

What is an implied-in-fact contract?

A

An implied-in-fact contract is created by the conduct of the parties without spoken or written words, if the conduct is intentional and understood as an agreement.

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15
Q

What are output and requirement contracts?

A

Output contracts require a seller to sell all output of particular goods, while requirement contracts require a buyer to purchase all goods they require from the seller.

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16
Q

What is consideration in contract law?

A

Consideration is a bargained-for exchange of a promise for a return promise or performance that benefits the promisor or causes detriment to the promisee.

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17
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Promissory estoppel applies when a party reasonably relied to their detriment on the promise of another party, and enforcement is necessary to avoid injustice.

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18
Q

What is required for a party to have capacity to enter into a contract?

A

A party must have capacity to enter into a contract; contracts entered into by a person without capacity are voidable.

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19
Q

What is unconscionability in contract law?

A

Unconscionability occurs when a contract or term shocks the conscience of the court, usually if it is both substantively and procedurally unconscionable.

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20
Q

What is mutual mistake?

A

A contract is voidable due to mutual mistake when both parties are mistaken about a basic assumption, the mistake is material, and the person asserting the mistake did not bear the risk.

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21
Q

What contracts require a signed writing under the Statute of Frauds?

A

Contracts requiring a signed writing include marriage contracts, suretyships, contracts not fully performed in 1 year, contracts for the sale of real property, promises to pay estate debts, and contracts for the sale of goods for $500 or more.

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22
Q

What are exceptions to the Statute of Frauds?

A

Exceptions include full performance, partial performance in land contracts, judicial acknowledgment, and estoppel.

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23
Q

What is the Parol Evidence Rule?

A

The Parol Evidence Rule states that a binding integrated agreement discharges prior agreements that are inconsistent with it.

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24
Q

What does the original contract state about modifications?

A

Modifications must be made in writing.

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25
Q

What does good faith mean in contract law?

A

Good faith means honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing.

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26
Q

What is the Parol Evidence Rule?

A

Under the Parol Evidence Rule, a binding integrated agreement discharges prior agreements to the extent that it is inconsistent with them.

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27
Q

What are the exceptions to the Parol Evidence Rule?

A

The four exceptions are: (1) to correct a clerical error; (2) to establish a defense against formation; (3) to interpret vague terms; (4) to supplement a partially integrated writing.

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28
Q

What is a partially integrated writing?

A

A partially integrated writing does not contain a complete statement of all the terms agreed upon, allowing proof of additional terms that do not contradict the writing.

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29
Q

What is a fully integrated writing?

A

A fully integrated writing is a complete and exclusive statement of the terms, discharging prior agreements within its scope.

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30
Q

What governs Delivery of goods and Risk of Loss?

A

The terms of the parties’ agreement govern Delivery of goods and Risk of Loss. If not agreed upon, the UCC supplies default terms.

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31
Q

What happens to Risk of Loss if a breach occurs?

A

Typically, the Risk of Loss remains with the breaching party, even if the loss is unrelated to the breach.

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32
Q

What is the difference between a Shipment Contract and a Destination Contract?

A

In a Shipment Contract, Risk of Loss passes to Buyer when goods are delivered to the Carrier. In a Destination Contract, it passes when goods are delivered to Buyer.

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33
Q

When does Risk of Loss pass to the Buyer for Merchant Sellers?

A

Risk of Loss passes to Buyer upon receipt of the goods.

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34
Q

What is a condition precedent in a contract?

A

A condition precedent makes performance conditional upon the completion of the condition.

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35
Q

What is the Frustration of Purpose Doctrine?

A

It discharges performance under a contract if the purpose no longer exists due to an unforeseeable event outside the parties’ control.

36
Q

What discharges performance due to impossibility?

A

Performance is discharged when it is objectively impossible due to death, destruction of subject matter, or unanticipated law changes.

37
Q

What is impracticability in contract law?

A

Performance is discharged as impractical when an unanticipated event occurs, making performance extremely difficult or expensive.

38
Q

What is a waiver in contract law?

A

A waiver is a voluntary relinquishment of a contract right by words or conduct.

39
Q

What is accord and satisfaction?

A

A party is excused from obligations when there has been an accord, which is an executory contract promising to relieve obligations in return for a specific act.

40
Q

What distinguishes a minor breach from a material breach?

A

A material breach excuses the non-breaching party’s performance, while a minor breach does not.

41
Q

What does a ‘time is of the essence’ clause imply?

A

Failure to perform by a specified date is a material breach only if the contract contains an explicit ‘time of the essence’ clause.

42
Q

What is the UCC Perfect Tender Rule?

A

Under the UCC, a seller must deliver conforming goods, and the smallest non-conformity is a breach.

43
Q

What are the conditions for acceptance of goods under the UCC?

A

Acceptance occurs when the buyer signifies conformity, fails to reject after inspection, or acts inconsistent with seller’s ownership.

44
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation?

A

Anticipatory repudiation occurs when a party unequivocally communicates that they are unable or unwilling to perform.

45
Q

What is the implied obligation of good faith and fair dealing?

A

Every contract contains an implied obligation requiring parties to act honestly and fairly.

46
Q

What is an express warranty under the UCC?

A

An express warranty is created when a seller makes an affirmation of fact or description that becomes part of the basis of the bargain.

47
Q

What is the Implied Warranty of Merchantability?

A

It requires that all goods sold by a merchant must be fit for their ordinary purpose.

48
Q

What is the Implied Warranty of Fitness for a Particular Purpose?

A

It is created when a seller knows the buyer’s particular purpose and the buyer relies on the seller’s skill or judgment.

49
Q

What language is sufficient for a disclaimer of the implied warranty of merchantability under the UCC?

A

Language such as ‘as is’ or ‘with all faults’ or language that puts the buyer on notice is sufficient.

50
Q

What creates an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose under the UCC?

A

An implied warranty of fitness is created when: (1) a seller knows or has reason to know of the buyer’s particular purpose; AND (2) the buyer relies on the seller’s skill or judgment.

51
Q

How can an implied warranty of fitness be disclaimed?

A

It can be disclaimed by: (a) conspicuous writing; (b) conspicuous ‘as is’ language; (c) waiver upon inspection; OR (d) course of dealing or usage of trade.

52
Q

What are conspicuous terms in a disclaimer?

A

Conspicuous terms include: (i) a heading in capitals or contrasting type; or (ii) language in larger type or set off by symbols.

53
Q

What is the status of third-party beneficiaries in contract law?

A

An intended third-party beneficiary can assert a claim for breach as they have rights under the contract.

54
Q

What distinguishes an intended third-party beneficiary from an incidental beneficiary?

A

An intended third-party beneficiary has rights under the contract, while an incidental beneficiary does not.

55
Q

When do the rights of an intended third-party beneficiary vest?

A

Rights vest when the beneficiary: (a) manifests assent; (b) detrimentally relies; OR (c) brings suit to enforce the contract.

56
Q

What are the conditions under which contract duties are not delegable?

A

Duties are not delegable if: (a) the contract prohibits it; (b) it is against public policy; (c) it involves personal services; OR (d) it materially alters the obligee’s expectancy.

57
Q

What is required for a valid assignment of rights under a contract?

A

An assignment requires: (1) the assignor’s intent to transfer; AND (2) the assignee’s assent.

58
Q

What limitations exist for assignments?

A

An assignment is invalid if it materially alters the contract, is prohibited by law, or is precluded by contract.

59
Q

In what situations is a gratuitous assignment irrevocable?

A

A gratuitous assignment is irrevocable if: (a) a symbolic document is delivered; (b) there is detrimental reliance; (c) the obligor performs; OR (d) it is in writing and delivered.

60
Q

What is a novation in contract law?

A

A novation occurs when all parties agree to discharge an original party and substitute a third-party.

61
Q

What are the available legal remedies for contract breaches?

A

Available remedies include: (1) expectation damages; (2) reliance damages; (3) consequential damages; (4) incidental damages; AND (5) restitution damages.

62
Q

What are expectation damages?

A

Expectation damages aim to put the non-breaching party in the position they would have been in but for the breach.

63
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Reliance damages are expenditures made in reliance on a contract, aiming to restore the party to the position they would have been in if the contract never existed.

64
Q

What are consequential damages?

A

Consequential damages arise indirectly from the breach and are awarded due to the injured party’s special circumstances.

65
Q

What are incidental damages?

A

Incidental damages are reasonable costs incurred as a result of a breach of contract.

66
Q

What is restitution in contract law?

A

Restitution is awarded to prevent unjust enrichment and is based on the value of the benefit conferred.

67
Q

What are liquidated damages?

A

Liquidated damages are enforceable if the amount is difficult to estimate at the time of contract formation and is reasonable.

68
Q

What can a buyer recover for a breach of contract concerning the sale of land?

A

A buyer may recover: (1) any amount paid; (2) the difference in fair market value; (3) expenses incurred; AND (4) possible consequential damages.

69
Q

What remedies does a seller have under the UCC when a buyer breaches?

A

A seller may withhold delivery, cancel, recover cover damages, market damages, lost profits, stop delivery, or replevy identified goods.

70
Q

What is the purpose of a quasi-contract?

A

A quasi-contract is implied by law to prevent unjust enrichment of the defendant.

71
Q

What is reformation in contract law?

A

Reformation allows a contract to be changed to conform to the parties’ original intent due to misrepresentation or mutual mistake.

72
Q

What are the requirements for a plaintiff to be compensated under a quasi-contract?

A

The plaintiff must have a reasonable expectation of compensation, the defendant must have requested the benefit (express or implied), and the defendant would be unjustly enriched if not compensated.

73
Q

What types of damages may be awarded under a quasi-contract?

A

Only restitution or reliance damages may be awarded.

74
Q

What is reformation in contract law?

A

Reformation allows a contract to be changed to conform to the parties’ original intent if there was a misrepresentation or mutual mistake of a material fact.

75
Q

When is a unilateral mistake sufficient for reformation?

A

A unilateral mistake is sufficient if the non-mistaken party had reason to know of the mistake.

76
Q

When will a contract not be reformed?

A

A contract will not be reformed if a valid equitable defense applies, such as unclean hands or laches.

77
Q

What is admissible to prove misrepresentation or mistake in reformation?

A

Parol evidence is admissible to prove the misrepresentation or mistake.

78
Q

What does rescission do to a contract?

A

Rescission treats the original contract as cancelled.

79
Q

When is rescission available?

A

Rescission is available if there was a problem with the formation of the contract, such as fraud or misrepresentation.

80
Q

Can a plaintiff sue for both damages and rescission?

A

Yes, a plaintiff may sue for both damages and rescission at the same time, but an election of remedies may bar rescission if damages are sought first.

81
Q

When will a contract not be rescinded?

A

A contract will not be rescinded if a valid equitable defense applies or if the plaintiff sued for damages under the contract in a prior action.

82
Q

What is specific performance in contract law?

A

Specific performance is a remedy when a valid contract exists with clear terms, the plaintiff has performed or is ready to perform, legal remedies are inadequate, enforcement is feasible, and no valid defenses exist.

83
Q

What are examples of situations where legal remedies are inadequate?

A

Examples include rare or unique items and contracts involving the sale of land.

84
Q

What is the common law doctrine of mutuality in specific performance?

A

Under the common law doctrine of mutuality, both parties must have been able to request specific performance.

85
Q

How is the requirement for mutuality met in many jurisdictions?

A

In many jurisdictions, the requirement for mutuality is met if one party can sufficiently assure performance.