Constitution Flashcards

1
Q

What does the 11th Amendment prohibit?

A

The 11th Amendment prohibits a party from suing a state or a state agency in federal court UNLESS certain exceptions apply.

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2
Q

What are the 4 exceptions to the 11th Amendment?

A

The 4 exceptions to the 11th Amendment are:

  1. the state explicitly consents to waive its protections;
  2. the suit pertains to federal laws brought under the 14th Amendment;
  3. the suit seeks injunctive relief against a state official for constitutional violations; OR
  4. the suit seeks money damages from a state official.
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3
Q

What suits are not covered by the 11th Amendment?

A

The 11th Amendment does not apply to:

  1. suits against local governments,
  2. federal suits between states, or
  3. suits by the federal government against a state.
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4
Q

Can Congress abrogate 11th Amendment state sovereign immunity, allowing a party to sue a state?

A

Congress cannot abrogate state sovereign immunity except for federal laws adopted under the 14th Amendment.

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5
Q

What must be determined to assess Congress’s abrogation of state immunity?

A

To assess Congress’s abrogation of state immunity, 2 issues must be resolved:

  1. whether Congress unequivocally expressed its intent to abrogate the immunity; AND
  2. whether Congress acted pursuant to a valid grant of constitutional authority.
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6
Q

What is standing in federal court?

A

To have standing in federal court:

  1. personally suffered an injury in fact,
  2. injury was caused by the defendant, and
  3. injury is redressable by a court order.
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7
Q

CONSTITUTION

What must a plaintiff show when seeking injunctive relief?

A

The plaintiff must show a concrete, imminent threat of future injury that is neither conjectural nor speculative.

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8
Q

Is third-party standing generally permitted?

A

Generally, third-party standing is not permitted, except in certain circumstances.

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9
Q

What are the exceptions for third-party standing?

A

Exceptions include: (a) a close relationship between the plaintiff and third-party; (b) difficulty for the third-party to assert their rights; OR (c) the third-party is an organization.

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10
Q

What must an organization show to have standing to sue on behalf of its members?

A

An organization must show: (1) the suit is related to its purpose; (2) its members would have standing; AND (3) the members’ participation is not necessary.

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11
Q

What does ripeness refer to in legal terms?

A

Ripeness refers to whether a case is ready to be litigated, determined by actual harm or an immediate threat of harm.

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12
Q

What factors are considered for pre-enforcement review of a statute?

A

The court considers: (1) the hardship of withholding review; AND (2) the fitness of the record for review.

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13
Q

What does mootness mean in legal context?

A

Mootness refers to instances when a dispute has ended or was resolved before review.

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14
Q

When can a court hear a case that has become moot?

A

A court may hear a moot case if: (a) the wrong is capable of being repeated; (b) the defendant voluntarily stops an offending practice; OR (c) in a class action, at least one member has an ongoing injury.

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15
Q

What does the Commerce Clause grant Congress?

A

The Commerce Clause grants Congress the authority to regulate interstate commerce, foreign nations, and Indian tribes.

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16
Q

What can Congress regulate under the Commerce Clause?

A

Congress may regulate: (1) channels of interstate commerce; (2) people and instrumentalities in interstate commerce; AND (3) economic activities with a substantial effect on interstate commerce.

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17
Q

What is required for federal regulations on intrastate activities to be upheld?

A

Federal regulations will be upheld if there is a rational basis to conclude that the cumulative national impact has a substantial effect on interstate commerce.

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18
Q

What activities cannot be aggregated for substantial effect on interstate commerce?

A

Aggregation cannot be used for activities that are not commercial or economic in nature, such as possessing a firearm in a school zone.

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19
Q

What powers does Congress have regarding taxation?

A

Congress has the power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts, and excises, which must be geographically uniform.

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20
Q

What does the 16th Amendment allow Congress to do?

A

The 16th Amendment allows Congress to collect taxes on income derived from any source.

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21
Q

What is Congress’s spending power?

A

Congress has the power to spend for the common defense and general welfare, allowing it to attach conditions on federal funds.

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22
Q

What are the restrictions on Congress’s spending power?

A

Restrictions include: (1) spending must be for general welfare; (2) conditions must be unambiguous; (3) conditions must relate to federal interest; (4) conditions cannot induce unconstitutional activities; AND (5) conditions cannot be coercive.

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23
Q

What domestic powers does the President have?

A

The President has powers including executing laws, appointing officials, removing appointees, pardoning federal crimes, and acting as Commander in Chief.

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24
Q

What are the three Youngstown circumstances for presidential power?

A
  1. Acting with Congress’s authorization; 2. Acting when Congress is silent; 3. Acting against Congress’s will.
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25
Q

What treaty powers does the President share with Congress?

A

The President can negotiate treaties, which must be ratified by a two-thirds Senate vote, and can enter into Executive Agreements without Senate approval.

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26
Q

What is the Non-Delegation Doctrine?

A

The Non-Delegation Doctrine states that Congress cannot delegate powers it does not have to itself or its officers.

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27
Q

What does the 10th Amendment state about state powers?

A

The 10th Amendment reserves all powers not granted to the Federal government to the States.

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28
Q

Can Congress compel state governments to implement legislation?

A

No, Congress cannot compel states but can induce action through conditions on federal funding.

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29
Q

What is the Negative Commerce Clause?

A

The Negative Commerce Clause prohibits states from passing laws that discriminate against out-of-state commerce or place an undue burden on interstate commerce.

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30
Q

What constitutes a discriminatory regulation?

A

A law is discriminatory if it is facially discriminatory or has a discriminatory impact favoring in-state commerce.

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31
Q

What is the Supremacy Clause?

A

The Supremacy Clause states that validly enacted federal law will always trump conflicting state law.

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32
Q

What are the types of preemption?

A

Preemption can be express or implied, with express preemption occurring when federal law explicitly states exclusivity.

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33
Q

What must a plaintiff show to establish state action?

A

A plaintiff must show that the constitutional violation is attributable to government action.

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34
Q

What is the Incorporation Doctrine?

A

The Incorporation Doctrine applies most of the Bill of Rights to the States through the 14th Amendment.

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35
Q

What does the 13th Amendment prohibit?

A

The 13th Amendment prohibits involuntary servitude, applying to both government and private actors.

36
Q

What is substantive due process?

A

Substantive due process pertains to the government’s power to regulate activities under the Due Process Clauses of the 5th and 14th Amendments.

37
Q

What is the fundamental rights test?

A

When regulating fundamental rights, the government must satisfy strict scrutiny to show the law serves a compelling interest.

38
Q

What is procedural due process?

A

Procedural due process guarantees that no person shall be denied life, liberty, or property without due process of law.

39
Q

What is the Non-Fundamental Rights Test?

A

The government may regulate activities that do not constitute fundamental rights as long as it meets the rational basis test.

40
Q

What does the Due Process Clause guarantee?

A

It guarantees that no person shall be denied life, liberty, or property without due process of law.

41
Q

What are the three Mathews v. Eldridge factors for procedural due process?

A
  1. The importance of the private interests being affected; 2. The risk of error under current procedures and the value of additional procedures; 3. The importance of state interests and the burdens on the government that would arise from the additional safeguards.
42
Q

What constitutes deprivation of liberty?

A

Deprivation of liberty occurs when the government deprives an individual of a freedom provided by the Constitution or statute.

43
Q

What constitutes deprivation of property?

A

Deprivation of property occurs when an individual has an entitlement that is not fulfilled.

44
Q

What does the Equal Protection Clause prohibit?

A

It prohibits the government from denying citizens equal protection of the laws.

45
Q

What must be shown to determine if a discriminatory classification exists?

A
  1. The law is discriminatory on its face; 2. The law is facially neutral but applied in a discriminatory manner; 3. A discriminatory motive exists when the law is facially neutral but creates a disparate impact.
46
Q

What are the three levels of scrutiny for equal protection analysis?

A
  1. Rational Basis; 2. Intermediate Scrutiny; 3. Strict Scrutiny.
47
Q

What is required under strict scrutiny?

A

The government must show that the classification is necessary to serve a compelling government interest.

48
Q

What is required under intermediate scrutiny?

A

The government must show that the classification is substantially related to an important government interest.

49
Q

What is the rational basis test?

A

The plaintiff must show that the classification is not rationally related to any legitimate government interest.

50
Q

What does the Takings Clause of the 5th Amendment state?

A

The government may take private property for public use if it provides just compensation.

51
Q

What are the two types of takings?

A
  1. Possessory (per se) takings; 2. Regulatory takings.
52
Q

What is a possessory taking?

A

It occurs when the government physically takes or occupies the property.

53
Q

What is a regulatory taking?

A

It occurs when a regulation goes ‘too far’ and deprives an owner of all economically viable use of her property.

54
Q

What is the vested rights doctrine?

A

It protects landowners from subsequent changes in zoning if substantial construction has begun and substantial expenditures have been made in reliance on a valid permit.

55
Q

What does the Privileges and Immunities Clause prohibit?

A

It prohibits states from intentionally discriminating against non-residents concerning civil liberties and important economic activities.

56
Q

What rights does the First Amendment protect?

A
  1. Freedom of speech; 2. Freedom to exercise religion; 3. Freedom of the press; 4. Freedom to peaceably assemble; 5. Right to petition the government.
57
Q

What does the Establishment Clause prohibit?

A

It prohibits the government from establishing a religion or endorsing/supporting religion.

58
Q

What must laws that discriminate against a religion satisfy?

A

They must satisfy strict scrutiny.

59
Q

What does the Free Exercise Clause prohibit?

A

It prohibits the government from interfering with the exercise of religion.

60
Q

What are content-based restrictions?

A

Government regulations regarding the content of protected speech that must satisfy strict scrutiny.

61
Q

What are content-neutral restrictions?

A

Regulations that may be imposed on the time, place, and manner of speech if they satisfy intermediate scrutiny.

62
Q

What are prior restraints on speech?

A

Attempts by the government to prohibit speech before it happens, generally disfavored and unconstitutional except in limited circumstances.

63
Q

What is a public forum?

A

A space traditionally available to the public for free speech.

64
Q

What is a designated public forum?

A

A space not traditionally available for free speech but made available by the government.

65
Q

What is a non-public forum?

A

Public places that have traditionally been limited for free speech.

66
Q

What are licensing requirements for speech in public forums?

A

Permitted if the government has an important reason for licensing and specific standards are used.

67
Q

What is expressive conduct?

A

The expression of ideas through actions that may be regulated by the government.

68
Q

What are articulated standards in licensing?

A

Articulated standards are used to grant licenses to remove discretion of the licensing body.

69
Q

When is a regulation or licensing scheme unconstitutional?

A

A regulation or licensing scheme is unconstitutional if it gives officials unfettered discretion to apply the law or scheme.

70
Q

What are the conditions for regulating expressive conduct?

A

Expressive conduct may be regulated if: (1) the government has an important purpose; (2) the purpose is independent of the suppression of speech; AND (3) the restriction is no greater than necessary to achieve that purpose.

71
Q

How is commercial speech protected under the First Amendment?

A

Commercial speech is given fewer protections. The government may regulate truthful, non-misleading commercial speech if it: (1) directly advances; (2) a substantial government interest; AND (3) it is no more extensive than necessary.

72
Q

Is false or misleading commercial speech protected?

A

False or misleading commercial speech is not protected. The government may prohibit professionals from advertising or practicing under a trade name.

73
Q

Do public school students lose their First Amendment rights?

A

Public school students do not lose their 1st Amendment rights when on school property, but schools have greater latitude to regulate speech.

74
Q

What must school officials prove to justify suppression of speech?

A

School officials must prove that the conduct would materially and substantially interfere with the operation of the school.

75
Q

Can schools force students to participate in a flag salute?

A

Schools cannot force students to participate in a flag salute if it offends their religious or political beliefs.

76
Q

What are the requirements for a government employee’s speech to be protected?

A

For a government employee’s speech to be protected, the employee must have spoken: (1) as a citizen; AND (2) on a matter of public concern.

77
Q

What is the two-step inquiry for government employee speech?

A

Step 1: Did the employee speak as a citizen on a matter of public concern? Step 2: Did the government entity have an adequate justification for treating the employee differently?

78
Q

What does the Supreme Court say about public employees speaking as citizens?

A

Public employees making statements pursuant to their official duties are not speaking as citizens for First Amendment purposes.

79
Q

What is the Supreme Court’s stance on corporate and union political expenditures?

A

Corporations and unions have a right to engage in political expenditures under the 1st Amendment; the government cannot suppress political speech based on the speaker’s corporate identity.

80
Q

Can shareholders regulate corporate political expenditures?

A

Shareholders may regulate corporate political expenditures through procedures of ‘corporate democracy.’

81
Q

What makes a law unduly vague or overbroad?

A

A law is unduly vague if it does not provide reasonable notice of what is prohibited, and overbroad if it regulates more speech than is constitutionally permitted.

82
Q

Can a defendant be convicted under a vague or overbroad law?

A

A defendant cannot be convicted under a law deemed overbroad or vague, even if the speech falls within an unprotected category.

83
Q

What constitutes obscenity under the First Amendment?

A

Obscenity is not protected and is regulated if it: (1) appeals to the prurient interest; (2) is patently offensive; AND (3) lacks redeeming value.

84
Q

What is the Supreme Court’s view on freedom of association?

A

The freedom of association is a fundamental right under the 1st Amendment, and the government may only regulate it if it satisfies strict scrutiny.

85
Q

What must the government prove to punish membership in a group?

A

The government must prove that: (1) the group is engaged in illegal activity; (2) the person knows of the illegal activities; AND (3) the person intends to further those activities.