Contraception MCQ Flashcards
Which of the following method has an expected failure rate if 2 pregnancies in 1000 women during the first year of use?
- IUD
- Male Condom
- DMPA (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate)
- spermicide
- OCP
IUD
- Which of the following carries the highest risk of death in fertile women aged 35 - 44
- tubal ligation
- IUD - levonorgestrel releasing
- OCP
- Copper IUD
- Pregnancy
Pregnancy
- 36 yo with a history of migraines with aura wishes to use combined OCP. What is the safety profile for use in this patient
- Caution but safe to use
- Advantages of method outweigh risks
- Risks of use outweigh advantages
- Unacceptable high health risk
- use is not currently restricted
Risks of use outweigh advantages
- Which of the following contraceptive method has an expected failure rate of 9 pregnancies per 100 users in the first year?
- Tubal
- IUD - levonorgestrel releasing
- OCP
- DMPA (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
- Male condom
OCP
- Regarding post partum contraception, which of the following is there strong evidence that use decreases the volume and composition of breast milk?
- Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
- progestin - only pills
- combined OCP
- etonogestrel implant
- none of the above
None of the above.
No strong evidence
- 15 yo nulligravida who plans to become sexually active with her boyfriend soon, is requesting hormonal contraception. Which of the following is legally required prior to prescribing BCP?
- Pap
- Pelvic exam/ cervical swabs
- breast exam
- parental consent
- none of the above
None of the above
- Which of the following statements is NOT a progestin - mediated mechanism of levonorgestrel - IUD in pregnancy prevention?
- Thickening of cervical mucous
- endometrial atrophy
- decrease tubal motility
- decrease sperm penetration
- Lysosomal activation and inflammation
Lysosomal activation and inflammation
- For which of the following is IUD contraindicated due to an increased in complication rate?
- Insertion immediately after spontaneous/ induce abortion
- Insertion immediately post partum
- adolescence
- HIV
- none of the above
none of the above (coagulation disorder is contraindication)
- What is the spontaneous expulsion rate for the IUD during the first year after placement
- 5%
- 15%
- 1%
- 0.5%
- 0.05%
5%
- What is the approximate risk of IUD perforation per insertion?
- 1 in 1,000
- 1 in 10,000
- 1 in 100,000
- 1 in 100
- 1 in 500
1 in 1000
- 36 yo multi with a copper IUD in place presents for removal because she plans to become pregnant. Her LnMP was 6 wk ago and a urine prey test +. She was afebrile and denies cervical discharge. TV US confirms 6wk IUP. Which of the following strategies would you recommend to optimize the outcome for your patients
- Remove IUD/ plan pregnancy
- Remove IUD/ abort
- Leave IUD and plan preg
- Leave IUD and admin oral abx
- Leave IUD and admin IV abx
- Remove IUD/ plan pregnancy
- Which of the following is true regarding tubal sterilization
- 10% of pregnancies occurring post procedure are ectopic
- increase incidence of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia
- ovarian ca risk is increased
- 50% of women aged 30 or younger express regret by 5 y post procedure
- endometrial Ca risk = increased
10% of pregnancies occurring post procedure are ectopic
- Which of the following statements regarding vasectomy is true
- Failure rate is 30x less than tubal sterilization
- post op complication rate is 20x less than that of tubal sterilization
- Semen analysis is performed 3 months after vasectomy to confirm azoospermia
- all of the above
- none of the above statement are true
all of the above
- Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to use of combined OCP
- cholestatic jaundice
- migraine with focal neuro deficits
- thrombotic disorders
- uncomplicated SLE with negative antiphospholipid antibodies
- uncontrolled htn
uncomplicated SLE with negative antiphospholipid antibodies
- What is the approximate rate of thromboembolic events per 10,000 woman years with combined OCP
- 40 events
- 100 events
- 4 events
- 400 events
- 24 events
4 events
- Combined OCP significantly decrease serum levels of which of the following anticonvulsant
- Phenobarbital
- Phenytoin
- Carbamexapine
- Lamotrigine
- Oxcarbazepine/ Topiramate
Lamotrigine
- Which of the following drug most clearly decreases combined OCP efficacy
- Cefixime
- Azithromycin
- Cipro
- Doxycyline
- Rifampin
Rifampin
- Which of the following disadvantages of progestin only pills compared to combined OCP
- high rate of irregular bleeding
- higher relative ectopic pregnancy, if pregnancy occurs
- higher failure rate
- all of the above
- none of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is an advantage of progestin only emergency contraception regimens compared with estrogen-progestin combinations for this purpose?
A- effective if taken beyond 5 days after exposure
B- better protection against STI
C- more effective in pregnancy prevention
D- Disruption of an implanted zygote
E- no advantages noted in the literature
More effective in pregnancy prevention
Which of the following is an advantage of lambskin condoms compared with latex rubber condoms
A- Better protection against STI B- lower breakage rates C- fewer allergic reactions D- lower slippage rates E- All of the above
fewer allergic reaction
37 year old woman requesting combined OCP’s
Her mother had breast cancer at age 45.
She has used them in the past without problems
Before prescribing the pill, which of the following is inappropriate?
A- fasting lipid profile B- Order a mammogram C- urine pregnancy test D- review previous abnormal pap smears E- assess smoking status
Fasting lipids
Combination low dose OCP’S are most strongly implicated as a risk factor for the development of
which of the following neoplasm?
A- Cervical cancer B- endometrial cancer C- ovarian cancer D-Benign hepatic adenomas E- Lymphoma, if HIV infection coexists
cervical ca
Which of the following is generally increased by the use of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate compared with other contraceptive methods?
A-bone fractures B- Hepatic neoplasms C- Acne D- Interval to resumption of ovulation after method cessation E- mood changes
D- Interval to resumption of ovulation after method cessation
