Congenital Development of Disease Symposium Flashcards

1
Q

What is Gastrulation?

A
  • when the bilaminar disk of the embryo develops to form 3 distinct layers - usually around week 3
    • ectoderm (from the epiblast)
    • mesoderm (invading epiblast cells from the primary streak)
    • endoderm (hypoblast replaced by epiblast cells)
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2
Q

What happens during fertilization Day-1 ?

A
  • Sperm and Ovum meet in Uterine Tube (usually in the ampulla) 12-24 hours after ovulation.
  • Penetration of Corona radiate and Zona pellucida
  • Fusion and 2nd meiotic division
  • Acrosome reaction makes ovum impermeable to other sperm
  • End- Zygote- has diploid (46 chromosomes)
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3
Q

What happens in days 2-3 after fertilization?

A
  • Cleavage occurs- this is the rapid process of mitotic divisions
  • The first mitotic division occurs around 30 hours post-fertilization.
  • By day 3 the fertilized ovum has become a 16 cell embryo
  • Each cell is known as a blastomere.
  • forming a solid sphere is known as a morula.
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4
Q

What happens day 4-5 post-fertilization?

A
  • Morula develops a cavity and becomes known as a blastocyst.
  • The outer layer of the blastocyst thins out and becomes the trophoblast this helps form the placenta
  • The rest of the cells move (are pushed up) to form the inner cell mass. This creates an embryonic pole.
  • The blastocyst has now reached the uterine lumen and is ready for implantation.
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5
Q

What happens day 6-7 post-fertilization?

A
  • the Bilaminar Disc forms- As the embryo starts to implant it forms two layers.
  • Inner cell mass differentiates into two layers: epiblast and hypoblast.
  • These two layers are in contact.
  • Hypoblast forms extraembryonic membranes
  • Epiblast forms embryo
  • the Amniotic cavity develops within the epiblast mass
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6
Q

What happens day 6-8 post-fertilization?

A
  • The Primary Yolk Sac is formed
    • it is derived from the hypoblast is the exocoelomic membrane. (aka Extraembryonic hypoblast/membrane)
  • The Yolk Sac contains nutrients that supply the embryo before the placenta functions.
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7
Q

How has the embryo developed by week 4?

A
  • the flat disc has to fold into 2 directions
  • Longitudinal (cephalocaudal) (day 21) begins so that head and tail are brought closer.
  • Lateral (transverse) (day 18) brings the amniotic cavity down, creating the future gut tube inside the peritoneal cavity.
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8
Q

Describe the structure of the Mesoderm

A
  • formed of three parts
    • ​Paraxial mesoderm
    • Lateral plate mesoderm
    • Intermediate mesoderm
  • these structures are either side of the notochord
    • this is made from the mesoderm
    • remains as the nucleus palposus, the inside part of the vertebrae throughout embryonic development
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9
Q

Explain what happens to the Paraxial mesoderm and what its role is in the development

A
  • Paraxial mesoderm undergoes further differentiation into paired blocks of tissue- somites
    • 42-44 pairs eventually formed (prep for the vertebral arch)
  • Somites undergo differentiation to form dermomyotomes and sclerotomes
  • Dermomyotomes: form connective tissue and skeletal muscle
  • Sclerotomes: form bone and cartilage- vertebral arch
    • _​_the cells from the sclerotome come around the neural tube and form the boney arch (spinous process)
    • if they don’t come around and join completely –> spinabifida
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10
Q

Label the structures of this Somite

A
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11
Q

What is the role of the Intermediate mesoderm?

A
  • it gives rise to the urogenital system
    • kidneys - from the pronephros then mesonephros then the metanephros
    • gonads
    • urogenital ducts and associated glands
      • formed from the degenerating excretory tubules of the mesonephros and pronephros
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12
Q

What is the role of the Lateral plate mesoderm?

A
  • creates the parietal and visceral layers
  • Continuous with the amniotic sac and yolk sac.
  • Amniotic sac mesoderm–> Parietal or somatic layer
  • Yolk sac mesoderm–> Splanchnic layer
  • Mesodermal cells will become the membranes of the body (pericardium, pleura, peritoneum)
  • all cavities are lined with lateral plate mesoderm to form tha parietal layer and the visceral layer
    • this then begins to fold to form a horseshoe shape creating an Intraembryoinc cavity which is u shaped
  • the bend in the U becomes the pericardial cavity
  • limb of U becomes 2 cavities pericardioperitoneal (pleural) and peritoneal cavities.
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13
Q

Give an overview of the development of the pharyngeal clefts and pouches

A
  • Clefts separate the arches externally.
  • First cleft is the only one that contributes towards the adult structures: external acoustic meatus
  • The endoderm of the foregut grows and forms pouches which become: auditory tube, tonsils, thymus and parathyroid gland.
  • 1-4 well developed, 5th absent
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14
Q

Give an overview of the development of the face week 4-5

A
  • Development begins in week 4 and forms from 5 swellings.
    • Frontonasal
    • Maxillary X2
    • Mandibular X2

By week 5 two events occur:

  • Maxillary prominences enlarge in the medial direction
  • Nasal placodes appear and form medial and lateral processes
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15
Q

Give an overview of the development of the face week 6-8

A
  • Maxillary prominences enlarge in the medial direction
    • the maxillary prominences fuse with the lateral and medial nasal processes to form the upper lip
  • Nasal placodes appear and form medial and lateral processes
    • medial nasal processes merge towards each other and form intermaxillary segments
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16
Q

How is the Palate formed?

  • consequences fo improper formation?
A
  • Develops from the fusion of the primary and secondary palate
  • Grows obliquely down and then elevates
  • Fuses in the midline at palatine raphe
  • At the same time frontonasal process and medial nasal processes form nasal septum
  • if this doesn’t occur properly this results in a cleft palate/ lips
17
Q

Give an overview of Ear formation

A
  • Eyes and ears arise from ectodermal placodes
  • Placodes are thickened areas of ectoderm which have interacted with the neural tube.
  • External and middle ear derived from first 2 pharyngeal arches and cleft and pouch
  • Inner ear develops at day 22 into otic placode.
  • Otic vesicle enlarges and forms 2 parts: Dorsal vestibular portion- semicircular canals and Ventral cochlear portion- cochlea
18
Q

Give an overview of Tongue formation

  • anterior
  • posterior (pharyngeal)
A

Anterior Tongue

  • 3 tongue buds form from 1st arch
  • The distal buds (lateral lingual swellings) expand and fuse and overgrow the median bud to form the anterior tongue.

Pharyngeal tongue (posterior)

  • Two swellings from 2nd, 3rd & 4th arches.
  • V-shaped line represents the line of fusion, with a midline depression (foramen caecum- the origin of the thyroid gland)
  • Hence different innervation of the tongue
19
Q

What is the innervation for different parts of the tongue?

A
  • CN V3 - oral sensation (1st arch) blue
  • CN VII - oral taste (2nd arch) red
  • CN IX - pharyngeal taste/sensation (3rd arch) green
20
Q

What does LKA stand for?

  • what is it, when is it used
A
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • this is a low dose ICS
  • used in under 5’s
21
Q

Why is a specific diagnosis of disease important?

A
  • can lead to a specific treatment
  • allows you to counsel the parents more accurately
    • genetic counselling for future pregnancies
  • estimate recurrence risk
  • prenatal diagnosis & intervention where possible
22
Q

How do you classify Single defects?

  • examples
  • recurrence risk
A
  • Defect involves just a single structure
  • Child otherwise “Normal”
  • Examples - CDH, CTEV, Cleft lip/palate, CHPS, cardiac septal defects, neural tube defects
  • Multi-factorial (?unknown)
  • Recurrence risk: 2 to 6%
23
Q

How can single defects present?

A
  • Malformation
    • localised defect during differentiation
    • CHPS, cardiac septal defects
  • Deformation
    • structural alteration after ‘normal’ differentiation
    • CDH, CTEV
  • Disruption
    • Structural destruction of a previously ‘normally’ formed part
    • due to entanglement, disruption of blood supply
24
Q

What is Pyloric Stenosis?

  • prevalence
  • management/treatment
A
  • constriction of the pyloric sphincter
  • occurs in 3 per 1000 live births
    • usually in Males 4:1, first born
  • presents with Non-bilious projectile vomiting at the 2nd week
  • feeling Pyloric ‘tumor’ after a test feed. You can also see parelstlatic waves when they swallow
    • this is in 60-80% of cases
  • Hypochloremic (hypokalemic) metabolic alkalosis
    • due to excess fluid loss when vomiting
  • Treatment –> Pyloromyotomy
    • small incision in the pylorus muscle - not too deep.
    • allows baby to feed soon after the surgery
25
What is a Dysplastic Hip? - presentation/ diagnososis - management/treatment
* a Dislocated or dislocatable hip * occurs more frequently in female 9:1, 1 in 1000 / 100 and Breech births * can present with asymmetric skin folds * **Barlow test** – try to dislocate * **Ortolani test** – try to relocate the dislocated hip * **_Clunk_** vs Click when the hip is relocated * Early diagnosis –\> Conservative treatment (**Pavlik Harness**) * Late diagnosis –\> Surgical correction, more specialist the later the diagnosis
26
What is Intestinal Atresias? - presentation/diagnosis - managment/treatment
* Obstructruction of the intestinal tract * Oesophageal atresia (with/out TO fistula) * Duodenal atresia * Jejunal / Ileal atresia * (incomplete – stenosis) * Polyhydramnios * Intestinal obstruction * Emergency that needs surgery
27
What is a sequence single defect? - give examples of the two main sequences
* Single defect, but it's multiple anomalies * due to a cascade of secondary & tertiary errors in differentiation * Examples * Breech deformation sequence (not a deformation in itself but causes a sequence of events that cause deformation) * Barthrocephaly, torticollis, facial asymmetry, dislocated hip, valgus deformities of the foot * Amniotic band disruption sequence * craniofacial and limb defects
28
What are Multiple defects and what are there cause?
* Several structural defects (at least 2 systems) * Chromosomal abnormalities * Single Gene mutations * Teratogens
29
Give an overview of chromosomal abnormalities - types of abnormalities - types of syndromes caused - causes of specific syndromes
* Abnormalities of Chromosomal number * Trisomy – 21, 18, 13 * Monosomy – Mostly lethal; (Turner Syndrome) * Abnormalities of chromosomal structure * Deletions, micro-deletions, duplications, invertions – 4p-, 5p- etc * Sex chromosome abnormalities * 45XO, 47XXY, 47XYY * **Mosaicisms** - more than two cell lines from a single zygote- associated with structural defects * germline mosaicism is transmittable to offspring * Fragile sites / Breakage syndromes * **Imprinting / Uniparental disomy:** * **Prada-willi syndrome:** paternal deletion of 15q11 * **Angelman syndrome:** maternal deletion of 15q11
30
What is Downs syndrome? - common presenting features
* caused by Trisomy 21 (translocation) * 1 in 660 * Typical facies * Clinodactyly, Simian crease * Congenital Heart Defects * Duodenal atresia * Hypotonia * Delayed Development * common facial features are * Epicanthic folds, upslanting & narrow palpebral fissures, hypertelorism, * flat nasal bridge, small chin, protruding tongue, low set ears, * relatively small mouth and large forehead and sometimes microcephaly * Good Social skills
31
Give an overview of Single Gene mutations - what types are there - what diseases are they associated with?
* Mutations or ‘pathologic’ variants * For example * Autosomal Dominant - Marfans, neurofibromatosis * Autosomal Recessive - Phenylketonuria (PKU) * X-linked Recessive - Haemophilia * X-linked Dominant – Hypo Phosphataemic Rickets * Maternal Inheritance – Mitochondrial diseases * having an extended family history can be helpful with diagnosis
32
What is Neurofibromatosis Type 1? -
* tumour formed on a nerve cell sheath, frequently symptomless but occasionally malignant. * 1 in 4000; Autosomal Dominant defect - 17q11.2 * Variable penetration * Neural crest cells – differentiation/migration * Café-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, freckling, lisch nodules, bone lesions, optic glioma, must have a family history of NF1 * Disfiguring & varied features * associated with Non-cancerous CNS tumours * Health surveillance
33
Give an overview of Tertagoens that can cause defects - what defects do they cause
* Infections * **Congenital Rubella** causes: * cataracts, blindness, deafness, IUGR, microcephaly, CVS anomalies and developmental delay * Chemicals * **Foetal alcohol syndrome** * IUGR, facial features - short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, small jaw, thin upper lip, long philtrum * cardiac defects, joint & limb anomalies and delayed development * **Maternal Phenylketonuria (PKU)** * miscarriage, microcephaly, dev. delay, cardiac defects * Drugs * **Thalidomide** * **Valproate** ( used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder) * neural development disorders
34
What is PKU?
* phenylketonuria * a genetic disorder that causes increase levels of the amino acid phenylalanine in the body
35
What are the two main Non-random grouping defects (Associations) to be aware of when diagnosing defects?
* **VATER association** * **​V**ertebral * **A**no-rectal * **T**racheo-Oesophagal fistula * **R**enal/Radial anomalies * **CHARGE association** * **​C**oloboma * **H**eart defects * **A**tresia Choanae * **R**etarded growth * **G**enital anomalies * **E**ar anomalies
36
What is the diagnostic process when presented with Cafe au lait spots? What are differentials for Cafe au lait spots?
_Diagnostic process_ * Look for other features * Special examinations * Imaging * Blood tests * Genetic testing * Consult databases * Consult specialists * Review in few years _Differentials_ * “Normal” * Neurofibromatosis * McCune Albright Syndrome * Ataxia telangiectasia * Tuberous sclerosis * Gauchers disease * Russell Silver syndrome