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J GI > Conditions > Flashcards

Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

diet in coeliac disease

A

gluten free

s/o to Matt xo

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2
Q

which scoring system is used for malnutrition

A

MUST score

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3
Q

complication of feeding someone that was previously malnutritioned

what is it

what can it result in

A

refeeding syndrome

when electrolyte levels shift fatally

arrhythmias, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia

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4
Q

is oesophagitis reversible

what does oesophagitis progress to if untreated, is this reversible

A

yes

barretts oesophagus - no its irreversible

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5
Q

what can barretts oesophagus predispose

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

treatment of GORD (2)

A

PPI eg omeprazole to decrease gastric acid secretion

antacids OTC for symptomatic relief

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7
Q

what does GORD predispose

A

oesophagitis (then barretts oesophagus then oesophageal adenocarcinoma)

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8
Q

what is the cell change form oesophagitis to barretts oesophagus

A

stratified squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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9
Q

prognosis of oesophageal cancer (good or bad)

A

v bad

10% 5 year survival

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10
Q

where does barretts oesophagus occur

A

lower 1/3 of oesophagus

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11
Q

which type of oesophageal cancer arises in the upper oesophagus

which virus is it associated with

A

squamous cell carcinoma

HPV

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12
Q

curative treatment of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

surgery

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13
Q

palliative treatment of oesophageal adenocarcinoma(what most people get) (3)

A

stent to open tube
chemo
radio

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14
Q

bacterial cause of peptic ulcers

A

h pylori

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15
Q

drug cause of peptic ulcers

A

NSAIDs

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16
Q

treatment of peptic ulcer

A

PPI (eg omeprazole) to decrease acid secretion

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17
Q

is coeliac disease an allergy or autoimmune condition

A

autoimmune condition against IgA antibody

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18
Q

what do the villi (finger like projections) look like in coeliac disease

A

flattened = reduces absorption

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19
Q

which antibody is present in coeliac disease

A

anti-TTG

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20
Q

where is the meckels diverticulum (if you have one)

A

2 inches long, 2 feet above the iliocaecal valve, in 2% of people (rule of 2s)

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21
Q

where does UC start/go to

A

rectum (to ileocaecal valve)

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22
Q

is UC a thinning or thickening of mucosa

A

thinning (ulceration)

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23
Q

IBD

crypt abscesses
continuous inflammation (not patchy)
bloody diarrhoea
neutrophils

A

ulcerative colitis

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24
Q

IBD

patchy inflammation 
knife like fissures 
cobblestoning of mucosa
granulomas 
weight loss, anaemia, mouth ulcers
A

crohns

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25
Q

where does crohns occur

is the inflammation patchy or continuous

A

anywhere between mouth and anus

patchy inflammation

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26
Q

is crohns a thinning or thickening of mucosa

A

thickening (UC is ulceration = thinning)

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27
Q

first line treatment of UC

A

mesalazine

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28
Q

first line treatment of crohns (2)

A

steroids

stop smoking

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29
Q

what is IBS

A

GI upset with no pathological problem

30
Q

treatment of IBS (4)

A

exercise
reduce stress (it aggravates it)
diet
psych help

31
Q

risk of untreated appendicitis

A

peritonitis

32
Q

bowel cancer screening

A

qFIT (used to be FOB)

colonoscopy if positive

33
Q

3 sites of varices caused by portal hypertension in areas of venous/portal anastomosis

A

oesophagus, umbilicus, rectum

34
Q

PR bleeding - fresh blood

chronic constipation

A

haemorrhoids (piles)

35
Q

diarrhoea treatment (class and example)

A

antimotility drugs eg loperamide

36
Q

constipation treatment (2)

A

lifestyle - exercise, fluids, fibre, fruit

laxatives

37
Q

what stage of liver pathology from alcohol is irreversible

A

fibrosis (months-years of drinking)

38
Q

in alcoholic hepatitis which is raised more ALT or AST

A

AST (bc they wASTed)

39
Q

IgM positive biliary duct condition

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis (autoimmune destruction)

40
Q

IgM and AMA (antimitochondrial antibody) positive biliary duct condition

A

primary biliary cholangitis/cirrhosis (autoimmune granulomatous inflammation)

antim i tochondrial antibody = pr i mary, b i liary c i rrhosis

41
Q

painless jaundice

A

viral hepatitis

42
Q

which autoimmune condition is associated with ulcerative colitis

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

43
Q

which viral hep is associated with gaymen

A

hep A

44
Q

viral hep associated with deers, pigs and rabbits

A

hep E

45
Q

which viral hep causes a super infection if occurring alongside hep B

A

hep D

46
Q

most common viral hep in UK

can be transmitted from mother to baby, tattoos or blood transfusions

A

hep C

47
Q

where does bilirubin come from

A

break down product of RBC (can be conjugated or unconjugated depending on it its been through the liver or not)

48
Q

sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates through to back
cullens sign/grey turners sign
high serum amylase

A

pancreatitis

49
Q

what causes inflammation of the pancreas

A

bile reflux eg gallstones, alcohol (I GET SMASHED)

50
Q

weight loss and jaundice

A

pancreatic cancer (causing obstructive jaundice)

51
Q

treatment of ascites (2)

A

spironolactone

paracentesis

52
Q

aetiology of c diff infection

A

inappropriate antibiotic use (4C antibiotics - coamoxiclav, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, cephalosporins)

53
Q

treatment of c diff infection (2)

A

metronidazole PO if moderate
vancomycin PO if severe

(when its DIFFICULT TO SEE you should take the METRO bc if you use the VAN it might be SEVERE, lol u crash)

PO bc it goes straight to the gut = where the infection is

54
Q

gastroenteritis; reheated rice, profuse vomiting, 6 hours

A

bacillus cereus

55
Q

gastroenteritis; under cooked chicken, 48 hours, green diarrhoea

A

salmonella

56
Q

gastroenteritis; raw poultry/milk, 5 days, severe abdo pain

A

campylobacter

57
Q

gastroenteritis; animal contact, 2 days, bloody diarrhoea, stool culture

A

enterohaemorrhagic E.coli (ecoli 0157)

58
Q

gastroenteritis; watery/profuse diarrhoea, kids under 3, outbreaks, PCR on stool (bc its viral)

A

rotavirus

59
Q

gastroenteritis; explosive vomiting and diarrhoea, 2 days, highly infectious, do a PCR on stool

A

norovirus

60
Q

investigation for ?bacterial gastroenteritis

A

stool culture

61
Q

investigation for ?viral gastroenteritis

A

stool PCR

62
Q

investigation for ?parasitic gastroenteritis

A

stool microscopy (can actually see them)

63
Q

treatment of peritonitis (3)

A

amoxicillin IV, metronidazole IV and gentamicin IV

64
Q

what is satiey

A

the period between meals

65
Q

what is grehlin

A

hunger signal

66
Q

drug treatment of obesity

A

orlistat

67
Q

in a direct hernia, will it reappear once you have coughed after being occluded

which ring does it travel through/come out of

A

yes

directly out of the superficial ring

68
Q

in an indirect hernia, will it reappear once you have cough after being occluded

which rings does it travel through/come out of

A

no

through the deep then superficial ring

69
Q

how do you occlude a hernia to test whether its direct or indirect

A

occlude through the superficial ring then put pressure on the deep ring (direct comes through deep ring so it will not reappear on coughing)

70
Q

gastroenteritis; traveller, watery profuse diarrhoea

A

cholera

J GI (2 decks)

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