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conditions Flashcards

1
Q

what is a lateral ligament sprain?

A
  • injury to the ligaments of the outer ankle
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2
Q

what is the most common lateral ligament sprain?

A
  • anterior talofibular ligament is most common
  • then calcaneo- fibula and posterior talofibular ligament
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3
Q

why do lateral ligament sprains occur more than medial ones?

A
  • because medial ligaments are more stronger so less commonly injured
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4
Q

what are the grades of the lateral ankle injury?

A

grade 1= mild
grade 2= moderate
grade 3= severe

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5
Q

what is lateral ligament sprain caused by?

A
  • ankle inversion injury
  • forced plantarflexion or inversion
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6
Q

when is lateral ligament sprain likely?

A
  • changing direction
  • sports player
  • previous injury
  • high BMI
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7
Q

what is a syndesmotic sprain?

A
  • high ankle sprain in which the fibrous joint that connects tibia and fibula is inured
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8
Q

what is syndesmosis made of?

A
  • interosseous membrane
  • made of strong ligaments (ATFL)
  • acts as shock absorber
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9
Q

why does syndesmotic sprain occur?

A
  • inversion trauma or external rotation trauma
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10
Q

what are the grades of a syndesmotic sprain?

A

grade 1= mild
grade 2= moderate
grade 3= severe

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11
Q

when is a syndesmotic sprain more likely?

A
  • male
  • athletic
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12
Q

what is achilles tendinopathy?

A
  • degenerative condition that affects the longest/ strongest cord that connects the calf to the calcaneus
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13
Q

what is the achilles tendon used for?

A
  • used for plantarflexion
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14
Q

why is the Achilles tendon suspectable to degeneration?

A
  • poor blood supply
  • slower healing
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15
Q

what is achilles tendinopathy due to?

A
  • chronic overload, repeated stress exceeds repair ability
    microtrauma= repeated tiny injuries where tendon doesn’t heel properly so damage builds and causes degeneration
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16
Q

when is achilles tendinopathy likely?

A
  • ageing (decreased tendon elasticity so cannot absorb stress)
  • diabetic (4x likely to experience tendon tendinopathy due to consistent inflammation with high blood sugars)
  • obese (high mechanical demand)
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17
Q

what is a tibial shaft fracture?

A
  • broken lower leg below the knee and above the ankle
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18
Q

what is a tibial shaft fracture a result of?

A
  • direct blow (transverse)
    or rotational force (oblique/ spiral)
  • high energy collisions e.g., car accidents or low energy e.g., falls
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19
Q

when are tibial shaft fractures more likely?

A
  • younger age whereas females= 30-40
  • males (10-20)
  • people with low bone mass
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20
Q

what are the different types that tibial shaft fracture can be?

A
  • Nondisplaced: a fracture where the broken bones remain aligned. This type of fracture is usually seen in children under four.
  • Displaced, noncomminuted: a fracture where the bones are broken in no more than two pieces (noncomminuted) but are not aligned. This is an isolated fracture of the tibia shaft with an intact fibula. It is the most common tibia shaft fracture.
  • Displaced, comminuted: a fracture where the bones are broken in several fragments and not aligned.
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21
Q

what is a medial malleolar fracture?

A
  • fractured bone on the inside of the ankle
  • lowest part of the tibia
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22
Q

does the medial malleolar fracture occur alone?

A
  • can be isolated but commonly associated with fractures in other parts
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23
Q

what is the medial malleolar fracture caused by?

A
  • trauma
  • high energy e.g., twisting motions or low energy e.g., falls
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24
Q

what are the risk factors of medial malleolar fractures?

A
  • osteoporosis
  • previous injuries
  • environment e.g., slippery surface
  • common in athletes & runners
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25
Q

what is the lateral malleolar fracture?

A
  • break in the bone on the outside of the ankle joint
  • break in lower part of fibula
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26
Q

when does lateral malleolar fracture occur?

A
  • ankle is rolled or twisted
    e.g., landing on uneven surface, falling, direct blow to outer ankle
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27
Q

what are the risk factors of lateral malleolar fracture?

A
  • high BMI
  • osteoporosis
  • unsupported shoes
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28
Q

what is patellar tendinopathy?

A
  • jumpers knee
  • soft tissue injury involving degeneration or inflammation of the patellar tendon at the front below the kneecap
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29
Q

what is the patellar tendon? what does it allow?

A
  • connects all the thigh muscles at the front to the shinbone
  • allows movement > especially extension
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30
Q

what is patellar tendinopathy caused by?

A
  • overuse causing repeated stress and microtears
  • due to sudden increase in activity or poor technique causing strain
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31
Q

what is the tendon unable to do in patellar tendinopathy?

A
  • unable to adapt to the level of strain placed upon it
  • causing repeated microscopic damage within the tendon fibres
  • as tendon tries to heal itself it can become painful & thickened
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32
Q

what are the risk factors of patellar tendinopathy?

A
  • previous injury
  • imbalanced muscles
  • improper footwear
  • men
  • over 30s
  • obese
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33
Q

what is an ACL tear?

A
  • partial rupture or complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
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34
Q

what does the ACL do?

A
  • works to resist anterior tibial translation and internal tibial rotation
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35
Q

what causes ACL tear?

A
  • sudden high impact movements that involve excessive stress
    e.g., stops in sports, pivoting, jumping, changing direction
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36
Q

who are more likely to develop an ACL tear?

A
  • women (wider pelvis- changes the mechanics of how the thigh bone, tibia, and femur function, putting more stress on the soft tissues that support the joints and thinner ACL tissue)
  • younger age
  • previous torn
  • faulty landing
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37
Q

what is a mcl tear?

A
  • damage to the ligament on the inner side of the knee
  • can be a partial or complete tear or even a stretched ligament
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38
Q

what does the MCL do?

A
  • acts as primary medial stabiliser
  • resists valgus displacement and stress
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39
Q

how do MCL injuries occur?

A
  • knee pushed inwards towards other knee due to outside force
  • forces it into knee flexion & lateral rotation
  • may also build up over time or occur in older people
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40
Q

what are the risks of an MCL tear?

A
  • young
  • athletes
  • previous injury
  • inappropriate footwear
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41
Q

what makes recovery easier for MCL injury?

A
  • adequate blood supply
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42
Q

what are the grade of an MCL tear?

A

grade 1= mild sprain
grade 2= partial tear
grade 3 = severe

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43
Q

what are meniscal tears?

A
  • partial or total rupture of a meniscal which acts as a shock absorber between the femur and tibia
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44
Q

what are the roles of the meniscus?

A
  • distributes weight
  • facilitates movement
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45
Q

what are meniscal tears caused by?

A
  • forceful rotation/ twisting of knee e.g., sudden stops and turns
  • may also be caused by degeneration via ageing or overuse
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46
Q

what are the risk factors of meniscal tears?

A
  • athletes
  • males
  • 30+
  • occupation
  • obesity
  • osteoarthritis (less forced required to create tear in those with degenerative changes in meniscal)
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47
Q

what is the patellofemoral pain syndrome?

A
  • runners knee
  • pain at the front of the knee
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48
Q

what causes patellofemoral pain syndrome?

A
  • caused by abnormal movement or overuse e.g., repetitive bending of knees and improper use of sports equipment
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49
Q

when is patellofemoral pain syndrome more likely?

A
  • young athletes
  • previous injury
  • muscle weakness of quadriceps
  • sports e.g., basketball
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50
Q

what is a femur head fracture?

A
  • rare traumatic injury of the ball of the femur that sits in the socket
51
Q

what is femur head fracture usually associated with?

A
  • hip dislocations
52
Q

what are femur head fractures due to?

A
  • low energy falls in elderly or high energy event e.g., vehicle collision
53
Q

what are the risk factors of femur head fracture?

A
  • older adults
  • osteoporosis (low bone mass & structural deterioration of bone tissue)
  • sports
  • previous injury
54
Q

what is a femur neck fracture?

A
  • break in narrow area just below the femoral head
  • connects the femoral head to the rest of the femur
55
Q

how does the femur head fracture?

A
  • low energy falls
  • high energy event e.g., vehicle collision
56
Q

what are the risk factors of femur neck fracture?

A
  • 65 years +
  • women (postmenopausal = reduced estrogen> accelerated bone reabsorption)
  • osteoporosis
  • previous hip injury
  • physical inactivity
57
Q

what is a femur shaft fracture?

A
  • common break in the long, straight portion of the femur that lies between the hip and knee joint
58
Q

what is a femur shaft fracture caused by?

A
  • caused by high impact trauma e.g., motor vehicle accident, sports fall
59
Q

what are the risk factors of femur shaft fracture?

A
  • 65 years+
  • osteoporosis
  • physical inactivity
  • obesity
60
Q

what is hip osteoarthritis?

A
  • wear and tear condition whereby the cartilage becomes thinner and the surface becomes rougher
  • as cartilage wears away, bones may rub causing inflammation
61
Q

what is there an imbalance of in hip osteoarthritis?

A
  • imbalance between destruction and repair of affected tissues
62
Q

what are the risk factors of hip osteoarthritis?

A
  • females
  • older
  • obese
  • repetitive stress
  • previous injury
63
Q

what is greater trochanter syndrome?

A
  • lateral hip pain that affects the outer side of the hip and thigh
  • irritation to soft tissue structures like muscles, tendons and bursa
64
Q

what is greater trochanteric syndrome caused by?

A
  • repetitive stress, direct trauma or inactive lifestyle e.g., sitting for long periord of time
65
Q

when is greater trochanteric syndrome more common?

A
  • in women
  • 40 + years old
  • low back pain
  • obesity
  • repetitive movement
  • OA
66
Q

what are hip adductor sprains?

A
  • one of the muscles or tendons of the inner thigh muscles gets stretched, pulled, torn or overused
67
Q

what are the hip adductors?

A
  • adductor longus, brevis and magnus
  • gracilis in inner thigh
68
Q

what is hip adductor strain caused by ?

A
  • overuse
  • sudden movements or direct trauma
    changing direction + overstretching
69
Q

what are the grades of hip adductor strains?

A

grade 1= minor stretch
grade 2= medium stretch
grade 3= severe tear

70
Q

what are the risk factors of hip adductor strains?

A
  • older adults
  • athletes
  • previous injury
  • tight hip adductors
71
Q

what is adhesive capsulitis?

A
  • frozen shoulder
  • GHJ capsule becomes thickened and tightened
  • restricts the movement, which causes inflammation and gradual loss of mobility in the shoulder
72
Q

why does adhesive capsulitis happen?

A
  • due to development of adhesives
  • reduced synovial fluid
  • often occurs after a period of immobilisation
73
Q

what are the risk factors of adhesive capsulitis?

A
  • women
  • 40-60 years
  • diabetes
  • thyroid dysfunction(inflammation so may be reason shoulder freezes up)
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • CV disease
  • RA
74
Q

what are the three stages of frozen shoulder?

A
  • freezing : increasingly painful, slowly lose ROM
  • frozen: immediately follows freezing, less pain but stiffness remains
  • thawing: shoulder slowly improves with complete return or close to normal strength
75
Q

what is subacromial pain syndrome?

A
  • generic term that describes pain associated with structures that sit within space between ball and socket joint
76
Q

what causes subacromial pain syndrome?

A
  • tendon of the rotator cuff/ bursa becomes irritated or compressed in the subacromial space
77
Q

what is subacromial pain syndrome due to?

A
  • due to overuse causing microtrauma
  • degenerative tendinopathy due to age related changes or repetitive strain
78
Q

what are the risk factors of subacromial pain syndrome?

A
  • 40 to 60 years
  • occupation e.g., construction work
  • previous shoulder injury
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • smoking
79
Q

what is anterior shoulder dislocation?

A
  • occurs when the ball (humeral head) is displaced forward out of its socket
80
Q

what is anterior shoulder dislocation caused by?

A
  • caused by the arm being positioned in an excessive amount of abduction and external rotation
81
Q

what is shoulder instability?

A
  • follows a dislocation due to weakened ligaments or tendons
82
Q

when does anterior shoulder dislocation occur?

A
  • whenever the labarum is torn or peeled off the glenoid
83
Q

what causes anterior shoulder dislocation and instability?

A
  • caused by trauma e.g., FOOSH
  • repetitive overuse e.g., swimming
84
Q

what are the risks of anterior shoulder dislocation & instability?

A
  • young
  • males
  • athletes
  • previous dislocation
  • genetics e.g., hyperlaxity
85
Q

what is lateral elbow tendinopathy?

A
  • tennis elbow
  • inflammation, degeneration or microtears in the tendons on the lateral side of the elbow
86
Q

what is the most common tendon affected in lateral elbow tendinopathy?

A
  • extensor radialis carpi brevis
  • attaches to lateral epicondyle of humerus
  • helps in extending and stabilising wrist/ hand
87
Q

what are lateral tendons important for?

A
  • gripping
  • writing
  • lifting
  • pulling
  • twisting
88
Q

what is lateral elbow tendinopathy caused by?

A
  • repetitive overuse e.g., gripping
  • sudden increase in PA
    -ageing (elasticity lost)
89
Q

what are the risk factors of lateral elbow tendinopathy?

A
  • 30 to 50 year olds
  • males
  • diabetics
  • smokers
  • obese
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • occupation
90
Q

what is a supracondylar fracture?

A
  • fracture of the distal humerus above humeral condyles
  • upper arm breaks just above elbow
91
Q

when is supracondylar fracture common?

A
  • in childhood e.g., fall when playing
92
Q

what causes a supracondylar fracture?

A
  • FOOSH
  • direct blow to elbow from sports injuries, collisions or forced extension/ flexion
93
Q

what increases the risk of supracondylar fracture?

A
  • children
  • boys
  • osteoporosis
  • athletes
94
Q

what is a surgical neck fracture?

A
  • fracture of the humerus at the surgical neck, which is located just below the ball shaped head of the humerus
  • where humeral body narrows below greater/ lesser tubercles
95
Q

what is a surgical neck fracture caused by?

A
  • direct or indirect trauma e.g., FOOSH, motor collision, sports injury
96
Q

what may disrupt the alignment of bone in surgical neck fracture?

A
  • twisting or rotational forces
97
Q

what are the risk factors of a surgical neck fracture?

A
  • 60 years +
  • women (postmenopausal)
  • pregnant
  • alcohol/ smoking
  • sedentary lifestyle
98
Q

what is a shaft fracture?

A
  • break in the long central part of the humeral bone
  • shaft extends from surgical neck to the supracondylar ridge
  • diaphysis of humerus
99
Q

what is shaft fracture caused by?

A
  • direct impact
  • repetitive overuse e.g., throwers
100
Q

what exceeds what in a shaft fracture?

A
  • external force exceeds bone’s ability to absorb them
101
Q

what are the risk factors of a shaft fracture?

A
  • smoking
  • older
  • female
  • osteoporosis
  • corticosteroids
102
Q

what is the olecranon fracture?

A
  • break in bony prominence of the tip of the elbow
  • forms part of ulna
103
Q

what does olecranon act as?

A
  • attachment point for muscles involved in extended forearm
104
Q

what causes olecranon fracture?

A
  • high energy trauma e.g., FOOSH
  • caused by overuse and twisting / hyperextension of elbow
105
Q

what does olecranon fracture cause?

A
  • associated damage to ligaments, tendons and muscles around elbow
106
Q

what increases chances of olecranon fracture?

A
  • males
  • older
  • osteoporosis
  • bone tumours
  • prior injury
107
Q

what is a radial head fracture ?

A
  • break in the top portion of the radius bone where it meets the elbow joint
108
Q

what does radial head allow? what does fracture disrupt?

A
  • allows forearm rotation
  • fracture disrupts normal functioning making it difficult to rotate arm/ bend elbow
109
Q

what causes radial head fracture?

A
  • occurs due to FOOSH or direct trauma
  • may also be caused by overuse of rotational force
110
Q

what are the risk factors of radial head fracture?

A
  • 20 to 50 year olds
  • males
  • osteoporosis
  • previous injury
111
Q

what is colles fracture?

A
  • distal radius fracture which causes dorsal displacement as the broken end of the bone is displaced upwards
  • complete fracture near wrist joint
112
Q

what causes colles fracture?

A
  • FOOSH
  • direct trauma e.g., sports injury
113
Q

who is at risk of colles fracture?

A
  • 60+
  • females (post- menopausal)
  • osteoporosis
  • smokers
  • poor nutrition
114
Q

what is scaphoid fracture?

A
  • break in scaphoid bone, which is one of the small bones located in the wrist
  • situated on the thumb side of the wrist
115
Q

what is the scaphoid fracture caused by?

A
  • FOOSH
  • direct trauma
  • repetitive strain
116
Q

what are the risk factors of scaphoid fracture?

A
  • athletes
  • older
  • occupation e.g., construction
  • osteoporosis
117
Q

what is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • nerve entrapment neuropathy
  • median nerve compressed due to increased pressure in carpal tunnel
118
Q

what is the carpal tunnel?

A
  • narrow passageway formed by bones and ligaments through which several tendons pass
119
Q

what causes carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • repetitive movements e.g., bending, twisting, sewing
120
Q

what are the risks for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • 40+
  • pregnancy (swelling, hormonal changes and build up of fluid)
  • females
  • diabetes
  • RA
  • obesity
121
Q

what is de quervains tenosynovitis?

A
  • inflammatory condition that affects the tendons on the thumb side of the wrist
122
Q

what is de quervains tenosynovitis caused by?

A
  • repetitive gripping and grasping narrows the first dorsal compartment
  • chronic overuse e.g., golfers, piano
123
Q

what are the risk for de quervains tenosynovitis?

A
  • common in females
  • 40 to 50 year olds
  • pregnancy
  • previous injury
  • occupation/ hobbies
  • diabetes

practical- MSK (10 decks)

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