Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMLEX Level 2 CE > COMQUEST material updated > Flashcards

COMQUEST material updated Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Certified Sommelier Exam (CMS 2) flashcards
1
Q

Initial test for diagnosing acromegaly

A

Insulin-like growth factor level (get an MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Collection of blood beneath the periosteum of one of the calvarial bones; does not cross the suture lines

A

Cephalhematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Egg-on-a-string x-ray

A

Transposition of the great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Benign tumors most commonly seen in women of reproductive age and are associated with contraceptive use, anabolic steroids, and glycogen storage disease

A

Hepatic adenomas (surgically remove if they are symptomatic, more than 5 cm, or do not regress after discontinuation of OCPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mononeuritis multiplex and hepatitis B are associated with

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chest pain precipitated by hot or cold liquids without other obvious pathology is most likely the result of

A

diffuse esophageal spasm (use manometry to diagnose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Classic triad of patent ductus arteriosus, deafness, and cataracts

A

Rubella (German measles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypocellular marrow with loss of precursor cells, predominated by fat and stroma, is diagnostic of

A

aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which labs should be checked prior to prescribing lithium?

A

BUN/Cr, thyroid function, and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common causative agent of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elevated methylmalonic acid and homocysteine

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Splitting of the basement membrane (tram-track appearance)

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bead-like pattern on cholangiography; presents with pruritis and jaundice

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (associated with ulcerative colitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Boot-shaped heart

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Low risk moms are advised to take how much folic acid before conception?

A

.4 mg (400 mcg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Painful limp after a URI

A

transient synovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, freckling of the groin or the axilla, skeletal abnormalities, ad hamartomas of iris (Lisch nodules)

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (more common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Always start lymphatic drainage techniques with

A

thoracic inlet release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sacrum nutation and counternutation, while standing,occur about the

A

middle transverse axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Defect in excretion of bilirubin and results in conjugated hyperbilirubinemia; liver has black pigmentation on biopsy

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most sensitive screening test for SLE?

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Transient hyperthyroidism and thyroid tenderness followed by hypothyroidism

A

Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Positive blood culture for S. bovis along with features of infective endocarditis, you should suspect

A

colorectal cancer (order a scope)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lateral and posterior margin of the IT band (Chapman’s point)

A

Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Once the anterior fontanelle is closed, it is known as

A

bregma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Best test to assess iron deficiency

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Once the posterior fontanelle is closed, it is known as

A

lambda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hypogonadism plus impaired sense of smell equals

A

Kallmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What leads to insulin resistance during pregnancy?

A

Human placental lactogen (chorionic somatomammotropin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly caused by

A

Coxsackie A virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which type of stroke will result in contralateral motor and sensory deficit of the face, hand and arm?

A

Middle cerebral artery stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gastric ulcers are more common in which blood type?

A

Type A

gAstric ulcers = type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

First-line vasopressor for sepsis

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Decreased iron (Fe), decreased ferritin, increased TIBC

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The most common cause of SBO in adults in the US is

A

adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The presence of a widened mediastinum on chest x-ray in patients who handle animal wool/hides/hair is a classic finding of

A

inhalational anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Patients have a higher incidence of colon and multiple other cancers, especially endometrial cancer in women

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)..mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes. 3-2-1 rule: three affected family members, involving at least two generations, one or more cancer diagnosed before the age of 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hematochezia and narrow (pencil-thin) stool is usually indicative of

A

Left-sided colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anytime a pt presents with a new onset murmur, what is the diagnostic modality of choice?

A

Echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

First-line tx to slow diabetic nephropathy

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antimitochondrial antibodies are associated with

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pruritus associated with primary biliary cirrhosis (antimitochondrial antibodies) can be treated with

A

cholestyramine or colestipol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tumor marker that is useful in the management of pancreatic cancer

A

CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The inherent motion of the sacrum between the ilia as part of the primary respiratory mechanism happens on the

A

superior transverse axis (respiratory axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tumors that arise at the confluence of the hepatic ducts

A

Klatskin tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Valproic acid or ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common form of leukemia in children

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) TdT+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Overdose associated with nystagmus

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the most common infection leading to GBS?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When the forearm pronates, the radial head moves

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Patient’s limit for range of motion

A

Physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Most specific test for myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylcholine receptor antibody test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Osteomyelitis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely due to

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change disease (effacement of foot processes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Seizures, mental retardation, ash-leaf spots (hypomelanotic macules), facial angiofibromas, and cutaneous nevi

A

Tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Treatment of choice for Shigella dysentery

A

Ciprofloxacin, azithromycin, or ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Essential tremor is best treated with

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Smudge cells are a characteristic finding in

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In a neutral group of segments, sidebending and rotation occur in

A

opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Leukocytosis after an infection with a lab finding of increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

A

Leukemoid reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Similar to Dubin-Johnson syndrome, resulting in conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, but the liver will not turn black

A

Rotor syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Turner syndrome is treated with

A

human growth hormone and estrogen replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Muscles involved with correction of a first rib dysfunction

A

Anterior and middle scalenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Side effect associated with trazodone

A

Priapism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most useful lab value to monitor heparin therapy

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Best initial choice in workup of a breast mass in a woman < 30 years old or pregnant

A

Breast ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Most preferred test to diagnose renal cell carcinoma

A

CT with and without contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Patient presents with hundreds of thousands of adenomatous polyps in addition to osteomas, dental abnormalities, desmoid tumors, and cutaneous lesions

A

Gardner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Antidepressants associated with strong anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, drowsiness, nausea, constipation)

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Multiple pigmented spots most often found on the lips, oral mucosas, and GI mucosa

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most infantile hemangiomas require

A

observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In dorsiflexion, the talus is

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Zenker’s diverticulum is managed with

A

myotomy +/- diverticulectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

First time PE should be treated with heparin followed by coumadin for

A

3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Causes ipsilateral hemiparesis, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temp

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When endocarditis is suspected, the most important initial step is to

A

obtain three sets of blood cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common cause of meningitis from newborn to 3 months

A

GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Arousal by the clothing worn by the opposite sex

A

Transvestic fetishism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most common inherited thrombophilia

A

Factor V Leiden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Injury of which nerve causes winging of the scapula?

A

Long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Most common cardiac manifestation associated with Marfan’s syndrome

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Viscerosomatic reflex of the thyroid gland is between

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Polycythemia vera leads to _______ erythropoeiten

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Highest diagnostic sensitivity for the diagnosis of colorectal cancer

A

CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Appropriate first-line tx for uterine relaxation for retained placenta

A

Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The middle meningeal artery can be found just deep to

A

pterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Most common type of testicular germ cell tumor

A

Seminomas (bhCG might be elevated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

First line tx for sideroblastic anemia with ringed sideroblasts

A

Pyridoxine (Vit B6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Most common cause of meningitis from 3 months to 9 years

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Test of choice for suspected nephrolithiasis

A

Noncontrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In plantarflexion, the talus is

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Pruritic, purple, polygonal, papules/plaques

A

Lichen planus (look for Wickham striae)Most common: flexor surfaces of wrists/ankles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which type of adenomas carry the highest risk of transformation to a malignant lesion?

A

Villous adenomas

94
Q

RhoGAM is administered to all Rh-negative women at

A

28 weeks gestation

95
Q

First line treatment for whooping cough

A

Macrolides (Azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin)

96
Q

Glucagonomas arise from pancreatic

A

alpha cells

97
Q

MEN IIA

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid tumors/hyperplasia

98
Q

Low calcium, low phosphate, elevated PTH

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to Vitamin D deficiency

99
Q

Occurs when the supratentorial brain herniates downward and compresses cranial nerve 3, resulting in an ipsilateral dilated pupil that cannot constrict to light

A

Uncal herniation

100
Q

Preferred method of biopsy for a suspected melanoma

A

Excisional biopsy

101
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for lactose intolerance

A

hydrogen breath test

102
Q

Treatment of choice for acromegaly

A

Transsphenoidal surgical resection

103
Q

Painless blistering of the dorsal surface of the hands with increased facial hair and hyperpigmentation

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda (does not present with abdominal pain)

104
Q

Primary treatment for hydatidiform mole

A

D&C

105
Q

Test of choice for patients with uncomplicated diverticulosis

A

Colonoscopy

106
Q

ANA and anti-smooth muscle antibodies are positive; associated with SLE

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

107
Q

Albinism is associated with loss of pigmentation secondary to

A

tyrosinase deficiency

108
Q

CD4 count below 100, which prophylaxis should be started

A

Toxoplasma gondii (TMP-SMX)

109
Q

Bilateral tremor (6-10 Hz) that improves with alcohol use

A

Essential tremor

110
Q

What has been shown to reduce the morbidity and mortality of measles (rubeola)?

A

Vitamin A

111
Q

What should be given with isoniazid to prevent deficiency?

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

112
Q

Muscle involved in a rib 2 dysfunction

A

Posterior scalene

113
Q

Anticoagulation of choice in pregnancy

A

Subcutaneous heparin

114
Q

Irregularly prolonged or heavy menstrual period that maintains a normal menstrual cycle

A

Menorrhagia

115
Q

Most common cause of renal stenosis in young adults, especially women

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

116
Q

BLT with Mayo and a Kosher Pickle

A

Breast, Lung, Thyroid, Multiple myeloma, Kidney and Prostate (cancers with bone mets)

117
Q

Treatment of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Dapsone

118
Q

Most common organism associated with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

E. coli

119
Q

An inflammatory vasculitis characterized by claudication from vaso-occlusion; known as thromboangiitis obliterans; smoking is strongest risk factor

A

Buerger disease

120
Q

Characterized by menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea; physical exam will reveal and enlarged and soft uterus

A

Adenomyosis (ectopic endometrial glands)

121
Q

Patients at risk for tumor lysis syndrome should receive prophylaxis with

A

allopurinol or rasburicase

122
Q

Defect in the pars interarticularis; radiography may reveal a scotty dog “collar”

A

Spondylolysis

123
Q

Word substitutions, meaningless words, meaningless phrases (poor comprehension, “word salad”).

A

Wernicke’s aphasia (receptive)

124
Q

First trimester hyperthyroidism is treat with

A

propylthiouracil

125
Q

CD4 count below 50, which prophylaxis should be started?

A

Mycobacterium avium complex (azithromycin)

126
Q

What is often the first manifestation of asbestosis?

A

Decreased DLCO (carbon monoxide diffusing capacity)

127
Q

Doxorubicin is associated with

A

dilated cariomyopathy

128
Q

Muscle involved in rib 12 dysfunction

A

Quadratus lumborum

129
Q

NNT formula

A

1/absolute risk reduction

130
Q

Most sensitive test for pancreatic cancer

A

CT scan

131
Q

Numbness and tingling at the fifth finger and ulnar half of the fourth finger is associated with

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome

132
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia can be treated with

A

carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine

133
Q

The most specific test for CREST syndrome is

A

anti-centromere antibody

134
Q

The most common cardiac abnormality associated with Turner syndrome is

A

bicuspid aortic valve

135
Q

Granular casts (muddy brown casts) and renal tubular casts

A

Acute tubular necrosis

136
Q

Most common location for compartment syndrome

A

Anterior compartment

137
Q

Patients with family history of familial adenomatous polyposis should undergo annual flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy starting at

A

puberty

138
Q

Treatment of choice for endometriosis

A

NSAIDs and OCPs

139
Q

Major risk factor for placenta accreta

A

Previous c-section

140
Q

Isoniazid can deplete vitamin ____ so supplementation is necessary

A

B6

141
Q

Nephritic syndrome, low C3 levels; biopsy reveals IgG and C3 in a granular pattern

A

Postinfectious glomerulonephritis

142
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in patients with HIV, IV drug abuse and sickle cell

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

143
Q

Trinucleotide repeat (CGG) on FMR1 gene

A

Fragile X syndrome

144
Q

Treatment of choice for von Willebrand disease

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

145
Q

What class of anti-hypertensives can be used for osteoporosis or kidney stones?

A

Thiazide diuretics (reduced calcium excretion in the urine)

146
Q

Low risk patients with a solitary lung nodule should be followed with

A

serial chest CTs for two years

147
Q

Pancreatic cancer is most often located in the

A

pancreatic head

148
Q

Deletion of paternal 15q11-12

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

(diminished fetal activity, obesity, hypotonia, mental retardation, short stature, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, strabismus, and small hands and feet)

149
Q

Akathisia is treated with

A

beta blockers, benzodiazepines, and benztropine

150
Q

A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with pheochromocytoma and clear cell renal cell carcinoma. Testing reveals a heritable disorder

A

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

151
Q

Antibodies directed against presynaptic calcium channels; better with activity

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

152
Q

Initial treatment for ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA/mesalamine or sulfasalazine

153
Q

Cornerstone of preventing contrast induced nephropathy

A

Vigorous hydration

154
Q

What is the most common cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers?

A

H. pylori

155
Q

For an acute cluster headache, what is the first line tx?

A

100% oxygen

156
Q

Muscle involved in ribs 6-9 dysfunction

A

Serratus anterior

157
Q

Occurs when patients are overtreated with NPH and 3am glucose measurement reveals hypoglycemia; patients will be hyperglycemic in the morning

A

Somogyi effect

158
Q

Increased level of insulin and decreased C-peptide and proinsulin levels

A

Factitious hypoglycemia

159
Q

Smudge cells and the CD5 protein

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

160
Q

Neurologic deficits and upper arm claudication with exercise of the upper extremity

A

Subclavian steal syndrome

161
Q

Erythema multiforme minor is most commonly associated with

A

herpes simplex virus (target-like lesions)

162
Q

Sarcoidosis causes what type of pattern on spirometry?

A

Restrictive (FEV1/FVC normal or elevated). Look for hypercalcemia and an elevated ACE level

163
Q

Microcytic anemia, pica, koilonuchia (spoon shaped nails) and esophageal webs

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

164
Q

Respiratory and craniosacral motion

A

Superior transverse axis

165
Q

Contralateral motor and sensory deficit in the leg is associated with which artery?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

166
Q

Roseola infantum (sixth disease) is caused by

A

HHV-6 (fever for 2-5 days followed by a maculopapular rash)

167
Q

Response to treatment of osteomyelitis is monitored with

A

ESR and CRP

168
Q

Presents with hematuria following a viral illness and biopsy will show IgA and C3 deposits

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease)

169
Q

Low dose CT of the chest is recommended for lung cancer screening for

A

55 to 80 years old; 30 pack year hx who are still smoking or whom have quit in the past 15 years

170
Q

Bilat weakness; loss of pain and temp in a cape-like distribution

A

Syringomyelia

171
Q

CD4 count below 200, which prophylaxis should be started?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (TMP-SMX)

172
Q

Maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads caudally; arthralgias; suboccipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy

A

Rubella (Togavirus)

173
Q

Postural motion

A

Middle transverse axis

174
Q

Epidural hematomas are caused by rupture of the

A

middle meningeal artery

175
Q

Possible findings on a chest x-ray in a patient with PE

A

Westermark sign or a Hampton hump

176
Q

Treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

177
Q

Lupus immunoglobulins

A

anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith

178
Q

Reflux in a baby is very commonly due to vagal irritation secondary to congestion from

A

occipital condylar compression

179
Q

Most common infection causing aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell disease

A

Parvovirus B19 (tx aplastic crisis with blood transfusion)

180
Q

During craniofacialsacral flexion, the sacrum

A

counternutates (extends)

181
Q

Duodenal ulcers are more common in which blood type?

A

Type O

duOdenal ulcers = type O

182
Q

Polyarteritis nodose related to hep B should be treated with

A

interferon alpha-2b

183
Q

Most common hereditary cause of colon cancer

A

Lynch syndrome

184
Q

Most specific test for pancreatic cancer

A

ERCP

185
Q

Defects in type III collagen are associated with

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (joint hypermobility and cutaneous fragility and hyperelasticity)

186
Q

Used to slow the progression of disease in ALS

A

Riluzole

187
Q

Number needed to harm equation

A

1/attributable risk

188
Q

Lyme disease is caused by

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Ixodes tick)

189
Q

Necrolytic migratory erythema is associated with

A

glucagonoma

190
Q

Autoantibodies directed against the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors; worsens with activity

A

Myasthenia gravis

191
Q

First-line tx of diabetic gastroparesis

A

metoclopramide or erythromycin

192
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones

193
Q

Most common risk factor for dementia

A

Age

194
Q

Patients develop significant anxiety about development of a serious physical illness in response to minor or no symptoms

A

Illness anxiety disorder

195
Q

Measles (rubeola) is caused by

A

Paramyxovirus (conjunctivitis, cough and coryza; Koplik spots)

196
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies and ANCA are indicative of

A

Goodpasture syndrome

197
Q

Caused by tertiary syphilis; decreased reflexes, unsteady gait, formication, and impaired proprioception

A

Tabes dorsalis

198
Q

Skin condition associated with celiac disease

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (IgA and gliadin protein combine)

199
Q

Treatment of choice for diffuse esophageal spasm

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem)

200
Q

Reveal blasts from myeloid lineage and be positive for reactions with myeloperoxidase and sudan black

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia

201
Q

Target organ resistance to PTH

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism (low Ca, elevated phosphate, elevated PTH)

202
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency requires replacement of

A

both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid (hydrocortisone)

203
Q

Innominate rotation

A

Inferior transverse axis

204
Q

Caused by growth hormone secretion in the morning; 2 am glucose measurement will reveal hyperglycemia

A

Dawn phenomenon

205
Q

Decreased iron (Fe), increased ferritin, decreased TIBC

A

Anemia of chronic (inflammatory) disease

206
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by

A

adenoma (look for serum PTH and calcium levels to be elevated; phosphorous will be decreased)

207
Q

Best diagnostic test for C. difficile colitis

A

Detecting toxin A or B in the stool

208
Q

MEN I

A

Pituitary tumor, Pancreatic tumor, Parathyroid tumors

209
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis and CNS malignancy

A

Turcot’s syndrome

210
Q

Muscle involved in ribs 10&11 dysfunction

A

Latissimus dorsi

211
Q

Haptoglobin is ________ in hemolysis

A

decreased

212
Q

Used to monitor the response of ovarian cancer to treatment

A

CA-125

213
Q

Most common type of breech presentation

A

Frank breech

214
Q

Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss

A

Meniere’s disease

215
Q

High risk moms are advised to take how much folic acid before conception?

A

4 mg

216
Q

Associated with newborns whom are delivered via C-section

A

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

217
Q

Decreased FEV1, decreased FEV1/FVC, decreased vital capacity, decreased peak expiratory flow rate, increased residual volume, and increased total lung capacity

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease

218
Q

Personality disorders are classified into three clustersL

A

Cluster A (weird), Cluster B (wild), Cluster C (worried)

219
Q

Most common sequelae of meningitis is

A

hearing loss

220
Q

Most common type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

Mycosis fungoides

221
Q

Which type of colon cancer typically presents with melena and occult blood in the stool leading to iron deficiency anemia?

A

Right-sided tumors

222
Q

Adenomatous polyps plus osteomas, lipomas, fibromas, cysts and dental abnormalities

A

Gardner’s syndrome

223
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of endometriosis

A

Laparoscopy

224
Q

Few words, difficulty producing words (non-fluent); good comprehension; loss of oral coordination

A

Broca (expressive)

225
Q

Allergic rhinitis, asthma, blood eosinophilia and positive p-ANCA

A

Churg-Strauss Syndrome

226
Q

Confirm intussusception with

A

ultrasound (bulls-eye sign)

227
Q

Most of the edema is located over the occipital bones and crosses over the suture lines to involve portions of the parietal bones bilaterally

A

Caput succedaneum

228
Q

If the dipstick shows blood but no RBC’s, than _______is most likely

A

hemolysis

229
Q

Findings in infective endocarditis can be remembered by FROM JANE

A
  • Fever
  • Roth spots
  • Osler nodes
  • Murmur
  • Janeway lesions
  • Anemia
  • Nail hemorrhages
  • Emboli
230
Q

Most common causes of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)

A

Penicillins and NSAIDs

231
Q

While rheumatic heart disease can involve any heart valve, what is the most common outcome?

A

Mitral stenosis

232
Q

Caused by decreased activity of hepatic UGT; unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is typically the only finding

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

COMLEX Level 2 CE (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions