COMPTIA IF+ Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common character set used for coding to represent text in computers?

A

American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of notation is used in common math?

A

Decimal notation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is binary notation expressed?

A

A single digit in a range from 0 to 1 is used. This number represents an on or off state. Each column is worth two times the column to its right. This is also known as base 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What needs to be installed on a PC to manage computer hardware and software resources?

A

Operating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are server operating systems likely to include software packages (or roles)?

A

They often use one role to run network services and a different role to support specific functions for more users.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the Device Manager window, you notice a yellow exclamation mark next to a specific device. What is most likely the problem?

A

The driver for that device is either missing or the wrong version.

When a yellow alert is displayed next to a device in the Device Manager window, it indicates a problem with that particular device. In most cases, there is a problem with the driver. Installing the most current driver for the device is a recommended first step.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You need to partition a disk into two separate drives. Where would you go to do this?

A

Disk Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You find you are unable to control your computer, and a message on the screen states that you must pay a fee before you can once again assume control of your computer. Which type of malware is infecting your computer?

A

Ransomware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What action can help mitigate against the risk of Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks?

A

Making senders and receivers authenticate themselves and use encryption to validate messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What action can help mitigate the risk of impersonation attacks?

A

Implementing strong identity controls, such as badging systems for building access and multi-factor authentication for network access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do cyber criminals typically use wiretapping to steal information?

A

Using a hardware device that inserts the hacker between two hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which type of email-based social engineering attack does a person pretend to be someone else for the purpose of identity concealment by manipulating an IP address, MAC address, or email header?

A

Spoofing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the IT administrator asks you to prevent snooping by sanitizing an old hard drive, what action should you take?

A

Thoroughly delete and overwrite any traces or bits of sensitive data on the hard drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What technique can be used to prevent eavesdropping on a data network?

A

Encrypting data in-transit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a social engineering attack?

A

An attack that depends on human factors and deception rather than technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which action is an example of an appropriate redundancy measure?

A

Using a backup power generator in a hospital to provide electricity to critical life-support systems

Redundancy helps prevent outages and possible data loss; however, the technique used should fit the situation. Using a backup power generator on life-support systems is a good usage of power redundancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following examples illustrates a successful phishing attack?

A

A user replies to an email with his bank account number because the message indicated he was required to do so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What action can help mitigate the risk of replay attacks?

A

Ensuring that applications use encryption and time-stamping to make certain that the tokens cannot be misused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If someone claims to be receiving spim, what problem is occurring?

A

The person is receiving advertising or promotional schemes through instant messaging.

If someone claims to be receiving spim, that person is receiving advertising or promotional schemes through instant messaging. The term “spim” refers to the same basic problem as spam, whereby the user gets bombarded with get-rich-quick scheme emails that contain advertising materials or misleading promotional content. The difference between the two is that spam is delivered by email and spim is delivered through an instant messaging (IM) program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of USB connector would you plug into a host?

A

USB Type A

You would use USB Type A to connect to a host. The connector and port are both shaped like flat rectangles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of device would you connect using a Digital Visual Interface (DVI) port?

A

A form of flat-panel display equipment

Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a high-quality digital interface designed for flat-panel display equipment. You would connect the DVI port to the corresponding port on the back of the monitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the standard resolution of the Video Graphics Array (VGA)?

A

A resolution of 640x480 with 4-bit color

IBM created the Video Graphics Array (VGA) standard, which specifies a 640x480 resolution with 16 colors (4-bit) at 60 Hz and is long obsolete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main difference between a Solid State Drive (SSD) and a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?

A

The SSD uses flash memory and the HDD uses platters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of central processor would you find in a tablet?

A

An Atom brand Central Processing Unit (CPU)

Atom is Intel’s brand designating chips designed for low-power portable devices (smartphones and tablets) using Advanced RISC Machine microarchitecture.

25
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of a 32-bit processor in a workstation?

A

It cannot use more than 4 GB of system memory.

A workstation with a 32-bit processor cannot support more than 4GB of memory, while a 64-bit processor can support 128GB or more of memory.

26
Q

What type of Network Interface Card (NIC) uses the 802.11b protocol?

A

A wireless network (Wi-Fi) card

The 802.11b protocol is one of the many Wi-Fi wireless networking protocols. The 802.11 protocol suite is a common wireless networking specification.

27
Q

Which system uses an automatically generated Service Set Identifier (SSID) and encryption keys to configure wireless networks?

A

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) allows the router to use an auto-generated SSID and encryption key, and for these to be communicated to the client without the user having to enter them manually

28
Q

What type of network technology would use DOCSIS?

A

Cable Access TV (CATV)

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a specification used in systems that provide Internet across Cable Access TV (CATV) lines.

29
Q

Which of these would NOT use flash memory?

Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM)

An audio player

A memory card

A thumb drive

A

Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM)

Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM) is DRAM used in laptops. This memory stores each data bit as an electrical charge and needs refreshing by an electrical charge.

30
Q

What type of operating system do most Network Attached Storage (NAS) devices use?

A

Linux

A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device is an enclosure with basic server firmware. It usually runs some form of the Linux operating system accessed through a web management page.

31
Q

What is a database?

A

A database is a collection of related data organized in a structured manner for easier access.

32
Q

Which language is typically used by Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS) to maintain data?

A

Structured Query Language (SQL)

33
Q

In a relational database, data is organized into tables that are made up of rows and columns. The term “record” is a synonym for which of these terms?

A

Row

34
Q

A manager needs to view last month’s sales figures. Which of the following functionalities can be done with a query statement?

A

Specifying criteria to match values in one or more fields

A sales manager’s query would use the WHERE clause to specify criteria, such as matching a date field to retrieve and display only those records containing last month’s sales figures.

35
Q

Microsoft SQL Server is an example of what?

A

RDBMS

Software is required to create and maintain a database schema and the data inside the actual database. SQL Server, Oracle, MS Access, and MySQL are all examples of Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS).

36
Q

Which of the following statements best describes data persistence?

A

Data in memory is lost once the processing is completed. Data in a database is stored persistently and securely so that it can be used again in the future.

Persistent data is data that is stored permanently in a database. A copy of the data may be loaded into memory at processing time and lost when processing is complete, but the original data is safely stored in the database.

37
Q

What type of database uses a schema?

A

Relational

38
Q

What does bps measure?

A

Throughput rate

39
Q

What type of language has working with datasets as its primary purpose?

A

Query

40
Q

Which of the following is the most likely example of cross-platform software?

A

Application that runs on a Dell PC and a Samsung smartphone

41
Q

A web application contains a form, which users fill out. What is the most likely use for this form?

A

To manually input data into a database

The manual data input process typically involves a form. The forms can be generic as part of the database administration software, or custom in a desktop or web application.

42
Q

Which of the following is an example of an optical drive?

A

DVD

43
Q

The accountant of a small company uses a database application to maintain the list of vendors, their services, and their invoices to the company. The application uses Microsoft Access for the database layer, with the front-end interface layer in Visual Basic, to work with the data and to generate custom reports. What is the application architecture of this system, which resides on the accountant’s desktop computer?

A

One-tier

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about critical data when configuring file backups?

A

Replication allows critical data backup, which protects from accidental deletion of a record.

45
Q

Which of the following poses a higher risk to ensuring business continuity?

A

A converged network

46
Q

What type of programming language has the fastest execution time?

A

Compiled

47
Q

When using web search engines, why should privacy considerations affect a user’s decisions?

A

A user’s web searches can reveal very valuable information.

48
Q

Which of the following measures their data transfer capacity in Mbps (megabits per second)?

A

Wireless networks

49
Q

What are the properties of a file “Books/CoverPhoto.js”?

A

It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.

50
Q

What kind of computer firmware provides support for mouse operation at boot?

A

UEFI

Newer motherboards use UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface), a firmware which provides support for 64-bit CPU operation at boot, as well as a full GUI and mouse operation at boot.

51
Q

Which of the following SQL (Structured Query Language) commands can run with just one parameter?

A

CREATE DATABASE

The CREATE DATABASE command requires just one parameter: the name of the database. Other parameters which configure the new database are optional.

52
Q

What uses the same physical interface as MiniDP (mini DisplayPort format)?

A

Thunderbolt

The Thunderbolt interface is primarily used on Apple workstations and laptops. Thunderbolt can be used as a display interface and as a general peripheral interface. In its first two versions, Thunderbolt uses the same physical interface as MiniDP. Thunderbolt ports are distinguished from MiniDP by a lightning bolt icon.

53
Q

Which of the following best describes containers and identifiers?

A

A container is a type of identifier.

A container is a term for a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements). One example of a container construct is a simple array.

54
Q

A Customer object has a field called EmailAddress. Other programs need to have frequent access to this field. What is the best way to set up this field?

A

As a property of the Customer object

Object properties represent a way of accessing a field publicly, instead of the overhead of using methods. Properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.

55
Q

What’s a true statement about variables?

A

A variable can have any data type that the programming language supports.

A variable is used in a program to access a program element. Its value can be a text string, a number, or any other data type if the programming language supports it.

56
Q

What is a clean uninstall of a program?

A

Removing files and settings manually

A clean uninstall means removing files and settings manually, following the instructions on the vendor’s website. This can be done when uninstalling a program using regular methods does not work.

57
Q

Why would a locally installed application store data files in a user folder and not the application folder?

A

To prevent users from modifying application folders

Data files manipulated by the application can be stored on the local disk, usually in a user folder rather than the application folder. Ordinary users should not be able to modify application folders, for security reasons.

58
Q

A company has 100 employees, who work in 2 shifts. Half of the employees work during standard business hours, and the other half work at night. All 100 employees have their own desktop computers with an installation of a proprietary software program, which they use on a daily basis. What type of software license makes the most sense for this company?

A

Concurrent license

A concurrent license means that a set maximum number of users use the software at one time. Companies with users who use the software at different times can get a concurrent license, which costs less than other licenses for the same number of installations.

59
Q

A user installs VirtualBox on a Linux OS (Operating System). Which class of hypervisor is it?

A

Type II, because VirtualBox is a software application within a host operating system

A type II hypervisor runs as a software application within a host operating system. VirtualBox is a third-party virtualization software which can be installed on host systems including Linux.