COMPTIA A+220-1001 Flashcards

1
Q

A customer brought back a TV with the complaint that while the color contrast was great, the viewing angle was terrible and would not work with their living room set up. What kind of LCD technology does this TV have?

A

VA

Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.

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2
Q

A company is looking to buy budget monitors. A sales representative mentioned that a specific model would work best for them because it uses a technology that is less common but was one of the original types of LCD technologies. What kind of monitor technology is the salesperson referring to?

A

TN

Twisted nematic (TN) crystals twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. TN is the earliest type of TFT technology, and users may still find it in budget displays.

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3
Q

A video gamer is looking to buy a monitor that has great response time and video quality. What monitor technology would best fit this need?

A

IPS

In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles.

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4
Q

An IT department purchased a few thin and light TVs for their conference rooms, but set up a static screen while not in use. After a while, users report the screen seems to have burnt in, distorting their presentations. What kind of TVs did they purchase?

A

OLED

In an organic LED (OLED) display, a separate LED generates each pixel. OLED allows much better contrast ratios and allows the display to be thinner, lighter, and consume less power.

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5
Q

A retailer sales representative is trying to sell an LCD TV to a customer. The sales pitch involved a great color contrast. However, it may not be suitable for wide living rooms. What kind of LCD technology does this TV have?

A

VA

Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.

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6
Q

Many device management systems such as Microsoft Intune or VMware Workspace One allow devices to be preconfigured easily with minimal user or IT setup. What may be one main selling point for enrolling devices into a device management system?

A

Application deployment

To simplify device setups, deploying and configuring applications is an excellent feature of device management systems. The less the user or IT must touch the device, the better the experience.

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7
Q

A small company is looking to manage its devices and email subscriptions under one license per user. What kind of Office license would allow for a Windows license as well as an email license?

A

Microsoft 365

Microsoft 365 is the subscription that allows for Office application installs, Windows licensing, and other Office 365 services.

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8
Q

Older cellular devices may not have the capability of installing the Outlook app. However, these devices still have an email application that a user can set up manually. What functionality of Exchange or Office 365 would allow those applications to connect to the email server?

A

ActiveSync

ActiveSync is a technology that allows email applications to connect to an Exchange server or Office 365 service. Unlike the Outlook application that uses the Autodiscover record to populate settings automatically, many mail apps will rely on the manual configuration of the ActiveSync settings.

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9
Q

A company switched cellular carriers and realized their existing cell phones are not compatible because the phones use a SIM card. What cellular standard does the cellular carrier not support?

A

GSM

Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.

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10
Q

After a user enables a setting on their phone and car to connect a device, what is the next step to connect the device?

A

Find correct device

When pairing Bluetooth devices, there may be multiple devices to choose from. Users can ensure they connect to the correct device by selecting it from the list.

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11
Q

As an alternative to static configuration, wired and wireless hosts can receive their IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from which protocol? (Select all that apply.)

A

APIPA,
DHCP

Host servers have a failover mechanism when an IP configuration specifies the use of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, but the host cannot contact one.

Windows machines will default to automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) if the DHCP service fails or if there is some connectivity error

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12
Q

A client connects to an IMAP server over port TCP/143, but this port is unsecure. Instead, the client wants a secure connection established using Transport Layer Security (TLS). What is the default port for the secure POP3/IMAP?

A

TCP port 993 or 995

The default ports for a secure connection are either transport control protocol (TCP) port 993 (IMAPS) or 995 (POP3S), depending on the mail access protocol in use (IMAP or POP).

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13
Q

The network administrator is configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol should the administrator use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

A

Server Message Block (SMB)

The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol that implements Windows File/Printer Sharing is specifically for use on local networks only. Therefore, allowing access from the internet would be a security risk.

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14
Q

A server administrator is joining a new startup business that will perform outsourced IT management for client firms. The administrator is to configure a web server to run on Linux, accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords, and encrypt terminal emulations. What can the administrator use to achieve this? (Select all that apply.)

A

Secure Shell (SSH), OpenSSH

A Secure Shell (SSH) connection is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to UNIX and Linux servers and to most types of network appliances (switches, routers, and firewalls).

The most widely used SSH is OpenSSH. Therefore, a common secure shell connection is considered OpenSSH.

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15
Q

A top-level domain (i.e., .com) falsely represents the top of the Domain Name System (DNS) hierarchy. Why is this considered false?

A

The DNS uses root servers at the hierarchy top, represented by a trailing dot at the end of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), ensuring a unique host name.

Domain Name System (DNS) is a global hierarchy of distributed name server databases that contain information about each domain and the hosts within those domains.

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16
Q

During a company meeting, a technician scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration on a whiteboard. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 and 587. What is the purpose of these protocols that use these ports?

A

The ports are for message relay between SMTP servers to submit secure and unsecure messages for delivery.

Port TCP/25 is for unsecure message relays (MTAs) between Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) servers. Port TCP/587 submits encrypted, authenticated, and secured messages for delivery by an SMTP server.

17
Q

The IT department is setting up for outsourced management of their client firms. The IT department has asked a server administrator to configure a Linux server and accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords, along with encrypted terminal emulations. How does the administrator set up this access? (Select all that apply.)

A

Use a Secure Shell (SSH) connection.

Use an Open Secure Shell (OpenSSH) connection

A Secure Shell (SSH) connection is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to UNIX and Linux servers and to most types of network appliances (switches, routers, and firewalls).

18
Q

What network protocol is obsolete and should be disabled on most networks as it poses a significant security risk?

A

NetBIOS

NetBIOS is obsolete and only required if the network must support file sharing for Windows versions earlier than Windows 2000

19
Q

A network administrator is completing an installation as part of a team. Another group cabled the wall ports to a patch panel. What additional infrastructure will the network administrator require to complete this installation? (Select all that apply.)

A

A switch, A patch panel

The administrator needs to install a networking appliance to act as a concentrator, connecting the cable segments like a switch, then cabling it to the patch panel ports using RJ45 patch cords.

The patch panel terminates cabling but does not establish any connections between the cable segments. However, the patch panel needs to connect with the other group in this scenario.

20
Q

All PC motherboards have a built-in 1000BASE-T compatible adapter to establish connectivity with the Ethernet. What other devices connect to different types of Ethernets, such as fiber optics? (Select all that apply.)

A

SOHO router, Modem, Network interface card (NIC)
A small office or home office (SOHO) will generally use a single wireless router, which combines the functions of a router, DSL/cable modem, Ethernet switch, and Wi-Fi access point to provide connectivity.

A cable modem forwards data traffic via the fiber backbone to the ISP’s point of presence and then to the internet via several access ports.

An NIC adapter card will support other types of Ethernet, such as fiber optic. Motherboards have a built-in 1000BASE-T compatible adapter.

21
Q

The TIA/EIA-568 standard defines two methods for terminating twisted pairs: T568A or T568B. In T568A, pin 1 is wired to green/white, pin 2 is wired to green, pin 3 is wired to orange/white, and pin 6 is wired to orange. In T568B, the position of the green and orange pairs swap over so that orange terminates to 1 and 2, while green terminates to 3 and 6. What is the reason for this specific standard?

A

To use the same termination method consistently to support a Gigabit Ethernet or an upgrade to an optical network terminal

A network administrator wires a straight-through Ethernet cable with the same type of termination at both ends. Using T568A at one end and T568B at the other creates a crossover cable, but Gigabit Ethernet interfaces can crossover automatically even if using a standard cable.

22
Q

The network administrator wants to deploy one or more access points to provision a wireless network supporting a given range of protocols/standards containing supports, such as RADIUS, Kerberos, and TACACS+, with nonoverlapping channels. TACACS+, RADIUS, and Kerberos are another way of doing what?

A

Implementing AAA service on a server or network for enterprise authentication

An AAA service allows network edge devices to process access requests by supplicants without holding a copy of the directory and associated credentials. While Kerberos has no direct access points, RADIUS authenticates VPN connections, and TACACS+ is for administrative access to routers and switches.

23
Q

Cloud services require the rapid provisioning and deprovisioning of server instances and networks. These components must be fully accessible to scripting, which brought about software-defined networking (SDN). According to the definition by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), the principal innovation of SDN is to do what?

A

To insert a control layer between the application and infrastructure layers

The principal innovation of SDN is to insert a control layer between the application and infrastructure layers. It is a model for how these processes can provision and deprovision networks.

24
Q

A network administrator sets up a high-speed, long-range Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) router/modem for a client. Unfortunately, the vendor did not include a list of the box contents and the instructions. What type of cable does the administrator need to connect the router’s interface?

A

An RJ11-terminated patch cord over 300m long

A 300 m ADSL RJ11-terminated patch cord can connect to the phone line to support 52 Mbps downstream/6 Mbps upstream. A symmetric link only supports 26 Mbps in both directions.

25
Q

A network administrator can configure a small office home office (SOHO) router to provide an IPv4 address configuration to hosts without further administrator attention. A technician wrote some notes about IPv4 addresses used in various networks associated with the company support tickets. The technician assigned one of the addresses to the WAN interface of a SOHO router that requires troubleshooting. Which of these addresses must it be?

A

52.165.16.254

The WAN interface of the router must use an IPv4 address from a valid public range, so 52.165.16.254 is the only one to use on a SOHO router.

26
Q

A network administrator plans to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of Power over Ethernet (PoE) must the switch support to fulfill this requirement? (Select all that apply.)

A

PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt), PoE+ (802.3at)

Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3at (PoE+) allows powered devices to draw up to about 25W, with a maximum current of 600 mA.

27
Q

Which hardware networking device implements Ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub? (Select all that apply.)

A

A switch, A router or modem, A firewall

A switch is a hardware networking appliance acting as a concentrator or connector for cable segments to a patch panel or router port.

28
Q

What device uses an embedded adapter to forward traffic through hardware ports between public and private network segments? (Select all that apply.)

A

Switch, SOHO Router,
Firewall

A small office or home office (SOHO) will generally use a single wireless router, which combines the functions of a router, DSL/cable modem, Ethernet switch, and Wi-Fi access point to provide connectivity.