CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Flashcards
What voltage range do appliances such as dryers, heavy-duty power tools, and oven ranges require?
115V
220V
110V
120V
220V
Explanation:
220V is a requirement for appliances because of the high-power range needed to supply them. The power requirement for 200V would be 900 watts of power. This range is typically in commercial applications for large motors and other equipment.
110V is present mainly in portable electronics and small appliances. 110V is typically safer to work with because of the fewer volts.
115V is similar to 110V and rated on a low range that would not support the appliances.
120V is in the same low range as 110V and 115V. 110V, 115V, and 120V have tests to operate at a lower voltage.
An IPv6 address is composed of which two main parts? (Select all that apply.)
Dynamic address
Interface ID
Network ID
Static address
Interface ID
Network ID
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The first 64 bits are a network ID.
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The second 64 bits designate a specific interface.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually. This is traditionally only used for IPv4 addresses.
A host can receive its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server as an alternative to static configuration. This is also used traditionally with only IPv4 addresses.
A startup company does not have the capital to invest in infrastructure to host their website, nor do they have the capital to hire engineers to manage their cloud environment. At this point, strict access control is not a concern for the startup, but they do not want to share resources with other organizations. Which cloud implementation will best suit the startup’s needs?
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud
Public cloud
Public cloud
Explanation:
Public cloud will best meet the startup’s needs because it offers subscriptions and pay-as-you-go finances and can even provide lower-tier services free of charge. Public clouds are also offered over an internet connection by cloud service providers (CSPs).
Private cloud is unnecessary for the startup’s use case because they do not require strict access control in their operations.
Community cloud is incorrect because the startup does not want to share resources with other organizations.
A hybrid cloud is not the best answer because there is potential for resources to be shared among multiple organizations and the requirement to maintain data on-premises, which the startup cannot afford.
A technician troubleshoots a laptop’s direct connectivity to the organization’s access points connected to an internal network. Troubleshooting starts by removing a screw-down panel to access and examine internal components. Which components does the technician test?
Wireless card
mSATA
Mini PCIe
Modem
Wireless card
Explanation:
A wireless card is an internal component of a laptop that provides Wi-Fi connection capabilities. A wireless card would be seated within the laptop and have an antenna connection.
A modem is a communication device; however, it is not the correct component in this case. The modem would not connect to an access point as detailed in the scenario.
A mini peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) card is a form factor that many adapter cards use. These form factors include wireless cards, Bluetooth cards, and more.
A mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) card is a storage device, like a solid-state drive (SSD). An mSATA uses far less power and has a smaller footprint than a traditional SSD drive.
A basic firewall configuration has rules, referred to as network access control lists (ACLs). What are the basic properties needed for a firewall ACL to implement the desired security features configured? (Select all that apply.)
Protocol
Source and destination network/device
MAC address
Block/Allow property
Protocol
Source and destination network/device
Block/Allow property
Explanation:
The ACL requires source and destination network or device for the firewall to know what networks and devices are allowed to communicate with each other.
A protocol needs to be defined in an ACL to narrow the scope of network traffic managed by the ACL.
The network technician can set the ACL to either allow or block specific protocols and traffic between various sources and destination networks and devices.
Firewalls typically manage network traffic at a different layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, and MAC addresses are usually not found in traditional firewall ACLs.
An online retailer uses the cloud to host its infrastructure because the cloud provider guarantees 99.999% service uptime. What benefit of using the cloud has the online retailer been guaranteed?
High availability
Shared resources
Metered utilization
Rapid elasticity
High availability
Explanation:
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur because of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
Rapid elasticity refers to the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in real-time without loss of service or performance. Rapid elasticity allows a system to reduce costs when demand is low.
Metered utilization is the per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud, making cloud offerings cheaper or more expensive for an organization, depending on their resource consumption.
Shared resources are incorrect. To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
A company is looking for computers with accelerated graphic capabilities and large, high-resolution monitors. Which of the following would meet the company’s needs?
Workstation
Server-class
Desktop
Mobile
Workstation
Explanation:
The workstation is a high-performance PC, such as one used for software development or graphics/video editing. Any business PC or network client can be a workstation.
Desktop is shorthand for a basic PC used at home or in the office. Computer cases sit horizontally on a desk rather than the vertical towers or all-in-one configurations used today.
Server-class computers must manage more demanding workloads than most desktops and operate to greater reliability standards.
Mobiles use Advanced RISC Machine (ARM)-based central processing units (CPUs) that prioritize power and thermal efficiency plus weight over pure performance. Mobile CPUs tend to use different socket form factors to desktops.
Which of the following allows printers to connect using a Plug and Play that installs the driver automatically?
Ethernet
USB
RJ45 port
Wireless
USB
Explanation:
USB connects the device plug to the printer’s USB port and the host plug to a free port on the computer.
Wireless has two interfaces, Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. Bluetooth allows access by using the print device control panel to make it discoverable Then, the Bluetooth page adds the device. Wi-Fi uses two ways infrastructure mode and Wi-Fi direct.
An engineer can configure Ethernet to obtain an Internet Protocol (IP) configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server or they can manually configure this.
RJ45 port is used with an Ethernet network adapter to connect a printer to a computer.
A growing manufacturing company wants to better manage all of its controlled systems in various plants around the city. After speaking with a technology vendor, what type of system would they recommend investing in for this solution?
Load balancers
SCADA
IoT
Proxy servers
SCADA
Explanation:
A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system typically runs as software gathering data and managing plant devices and equipment with embedded PLCs, referred to as field devices. These typically use WAN communications, such as cellular or satellite, to link the SCADA server to field devices.
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the global network of wearable technology, home appliances, home control systems, vehicles, and other items equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity.
A proxy server takes a full HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination server on the internet.
A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool.
What component can be used in a camera to hold digital image storage?
Memory card
HDD
Optical drive
Flash drive
Memory card
Explanation:
Memory card is a form factor used in consumer digital imaging products, such as digital still and video cameras, and to expand smartphone and tablet storage.
Flash drives are flash memory boards with a USB connector and protective cover.
Optical drives rate according to their data transfer speed. An optical drive can perform recording/rewriting and markets with three speeds.
A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter are accessed by its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.
This part of an IP address configuration allows a host to communicate with a remote network, most notably the internet. Otherwise, the host will only communicate with the local network without this.
Static address
Gateway address
APIPA address
DNS address
Gateway address
Explanation:
The default gateway is the IPv4 router address, such as 192.168.0.1. This setting is not compulsory, but failure to enter a gateway would limit the host to only communicate on the local network.
DNS addresses provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the internet.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually.
When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have obtained a valid DHCP lease.
A systems engineer is doing an internal audit of their virtual environment before an annual inspection and is making sure that all the virtual machines are up to date on patches. What could the systems engineer consult to verify which patches need to be on each machine?
Legacy software/OS
Resource requirements
Security requirements
Test development
Security requirements
Explanation:
Security requirements are correct because patching is a part of ensuring a system is secure against the latest vulnerabilities.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms that are based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
One of two monitors remains a blank screen after a user logs onto the system. The technician suspected an unplugged monitor, but it was connected. What is the next step in troubleshooting?
Escalate the problem.
Establish a new probable cause.
Identify the problem.
Document the changes.
Establish a new probable cause.
Explanation:
After the first theory does not work, establish a new probable cause of the problem. Start with basic information, including verifying that the monitor is receiving power.
Escalating the problem to a supervisor is a valid route, but not in this case. The technician has not exhausted all reasonable troubleshooting options.
The problem is that the second monitor has a blank screen, which the technician has already identified. Identifying the problem is the first troubleshooting step.
Documenting the changes is the last step in the troubleshooting methodology, including a verified working solution.
A support desk technician must make a custom-length Ethernet patch cable for a user’s desk setup. What tool do they need to create this cable? (Select all that apply.)
Snips
Cable stripper
Crimper
Punchdown tool
Cable stripper
Snips
Crimper
Explanation:
A crimper is a tool used to fix a male jack to a patch cord. The support technician would do this to both ends of the custom cable.
A cable stripper is a tool that would score the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
Snips are needed to cut the custom length cable to size and trim the ripcord and the start filler inside the cable. Sometimes snips are integrated on cable stripper tools and can be singular in function.
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC). This would not be used in this scenario, as there is no punching down of wires into a block.
A technician upgrades the memory in a laptop computer. Which interface does the memory have?
PCIe
mSATA
SODIMM
M.2
SODIMM
Explanation:
A smaller form factor called small outline DIMM (SODIMM) packages laptop random access memory (RAM). The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45-degree angle.
A technician can provision a solid-state drive (SSD) in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. An M.2 port is oriented horizontally.
The mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) form factor allows an SSD packaged as an adapter card to plug into the motherboard’s combined data and power port.
Modern SSDs often use the peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus directly. Where SATA uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus, PCIe-based SSDs use the non-volatile memory host controller.
What uses a method of down-plugging, where a longer card can fit into a short slot, assuming other features do not obstruct the card in the case?
M.2
SATA
PCI
PCIe
PCIe
Explanation:
Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus is the mainstream interface for modern adapter cards.
A peripheral component interconnect (PCI) is a legacy bus type superseded by PCI Express. PCI ports can be included on a PCIe motherboard to support legacy adapter cards, but PCI cards cannot fit into PCIe slots.
M.2 adapters can be of different lengths. The adapter card is inserted at an angle and then pushed into place and secured with a screw.
Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) ports connect to one or more fixed drives. Technicians can also use SATA to connect removable drives, such as tape and optical drives.
After a technician has verified resolving a problem, what is the next step?
Close the ticket.
Ask about recent environmental changes.
Document what was done.
Identify a solution.
Document what was done.
Explanation:
Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes is essential for tech support. Documentation can be useful for future troubleshooting, creating a knowledge base, and analyzing IT infrastructure.
The technician needs to complete documenting the actions taken before closing a ticket. Documentation demonstrates what the support department is doing to help the business.
Identifying the solution occurs earlier in the troubleshooting steps. When identifying a problem, the technician proposes and tests a solution.
Asking about recent changes in the environment is ideal when identifying the problem. This step occurs earlier in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology.
A user complains that their laptop does not hold a charge for more than 30 minutes, even after charging all night. They also mention that there is an error message when they restart their computer that states something about power. What is likely the problem?
Poor battery health
Underpowered adapter
Physically damaged charging port
Swollen battery
Underpowered adapter
Explanation:
AC adapters can get mixed up. If an underpowered adapter is used, the laptop will display a warning at boot. Using the wrong adapter can cause problems, such as the battery not completely charging.
As batteries age, they no longer hold a charge and need to be replaced. This would be the best answer except that the boot error points to another problem.
A swollen battery indicates a problem with the battery’s charging circuit. This can be diagnosed by the keyboard or trackpad being pushed up or the laptop wobbling when sitting on a flat surface.
Charging ports can be damaged by improper insertion and removal of the connectors. Signs of this are no charging or intermittent charging.
What component in a fused deposition model (FDM) 3-D printer is usually heated to prevent the material from warping?
Fan
Filament
Print bed
Extruder
Print bed
Explanation:
Print bed, also known as the build plate, is a flat glass plate that extrudes the material. The bed is heated to prevent the plastic from cooling too quickly and creating a product warp.
Filament supplies the ink of a 3-D printer. The filament spools require careful storage once opened. They should be kept free from heat and humidity.
The extruder is the equivalent of a print head in an inkjet. A motor in the extruder draws filament from the “cold end” to the nozzle. It is then melted and squeezed onto the object.
The fan cools the melted plastic where necessary to shape the object correctly.
A small shop uses a new point of sale system that allows for touchless payments. The business owner, who is not so tech-savvy, is amazed at the process. As the owner sets up the system, what technology does the system installer mention the payments use?
Bluetooth
NFC
Wi-Fi
Cellular
NFC
Explanation:
Many mobile devices have near-field communication (NFC) chips built in. NFC allows for very short-range data transmission. Credit card payments can use this technology.
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. The connection occurs through what is known as pairing.
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.
Cellular data networking means connecting to the internet or services via a device’s cellular radio and the phone/system network provider.
A vast majority of rural residents in the United States still use this internet connection type that utilizes the public switched telephone network (PSTN).
Wi-Fi
DSL
WISP
Satellite
DSL
Explanation:
A digital subscriber line (DSL) uses the higher frequencies available in copper telephone lines as a communications channel. The two major “flavors” of this type of connection are asymmetrical and symmetrical.
Various satellite internet solutions are available to rural residents, but they do not utilize the PSTN infrastructure.
A wireless internet service provider (WISP) uses ground-based long-range fixed access wireless technology. The WISP installs and maintains a directional antenna to bridge the customer’s network and the service provider.
Wi-Fi is the brand name for the IEEE 802.11 standards used to implement wireless local area networks (WLANs).
While planning a new virtual environment, a systems engineer noted that one virtual machine (VM) would run a Windows OS and store two snapshots at all times. The VM will need to have at least 80 GB in its hard disk drive for the VM to function properly. What is the systems engineer considering when planning this aspect of the new virtual environment?
Test development
Resource requirements
Legacy software/OS
Security requirements
Resource requirements
Explanation:
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Security requirements are incorrect because the amount of central processing units (CPUs) and random access memory (RAM) a system needs will not impact the security of a system.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
If a computer produces digital art, what special process will it require?
Color calibration
Adjust brightness and contrast controls.
Use a screensaver.
Adjust resolution
Color calibration
Explanation:
Color calibration is the process of adjusting screen and scanner settings to balance color input and output. A technician should configure color settings with the assistance of a color profile.
Incorrect settings or a failed backlight can cause a dim image. Adjusting brightness and contrast controls can resolve any problems with dim images.
A user needs to adjust the resolution for a display if it is fuzzy. An image appears fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution.
When the same static image displays for an extended period, it can damage the monitor’s picture elements, causing a ghost image to “burn” permanently onto the display. An animated screensaver can help prevent this problem.
A company has found that specific departments are more productive when working from home as remote workers. The company would like to implement this ability and has reached out to a network security firm. What foundational infrastructure solution should the company implement to allow remote workers to access all the needed resources from their laptops at home?
Virtual private network
Virtual LAN
Mail exchange records
DNS (AAAA) records
Virtual private network
Explanation:
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site. This would be the first foundational step to implement in the given scenario.
A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical network segment using a feature of managed switches to segregate network traffic. Though the company may use this as a layer of security, it would not be foundational.
A mail exchange (MX) record identifies an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an AAAA record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address. This would not help with granting remote workers access to resources.
A company plans on upgrading a fleet of mobile phones. Upon inspection, the phones that will be retired do not utilize a SIM card. What does the company learn about the phones that have been in use?
The phones are LTE.
The phones are 4G.
The phones are 3G.
The phones are CDMA.
The phones are CDMA.
Explanation:
3G defines Universal Mobile Telecommunications Service (UMTS) on a Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) handset or Evolution-Data Optimized (EV-DO) on CDMA networks, working at up to around 3 Mb/s.
Code division multiple access (CDMA) means that the handset is directly managed by the provider and there is no removable SIM card.
Long-term evolution (LTE) provides an upgrade from CDMA. All 4G and 5G cellular data connections require a SIM card.
4G phones use a SIM card and have a maximum downlink of 300 Mb/s in theory, with around 20–90 Mb/s typical of real-world performance.
Sandboxes can be used to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. Sandboxes also provide an isolated environment for what other important function?
Testing and development
Resource requirements
Legacy software/OS
Cross-platform virtualization
Testing and development
Explanation:
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some guest OS hypervisor.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
What format uses a system of mirrors that reflects the illuminated image of the object onto a lens that uses a prism to split the image into its component RGB colors?
OCR
ADF
SMB
Flatbed scanner
Flatbed scanner
Explanation:
A flatbed scanner works by shining a bright light at the object placed on a protective glass surface. This information creates a bitmap file of the object.
The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol means the scan generates as a file on a shared network folder. Each user must have permission to write to the share.
Optical character recognition (OCR) is software that can convert scanned text into digital documents ready for editing.
An automatic document feeder (ADF) passes paper over a fixed scan head. This is a more efficient way of scanning multi-page documents.
A user contacts an IT help desk to report a problem with a laptop computer. The complaint is that the laptop is very hot to the touch when typing. The user also states that the laptop does not sit correctly as the bottom of the laptop has a slight bulge. Which component does the help desk technician determine to be the problem?
Keyboard
Memory
Battery
SSD
Battery
Explanation:
Laptop computers use removable, rechargeable Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery packs. Li-ion batteries are typically available in 6-, 9-, or 12-cell versions. A problematic battery can overheat and expand.
A keyboard is an input device. Therefore, a laptop keyboard does not usually overheat. However, the user noticed heat coming from the laptop in this case.
Small outline dual inline memory modules (SODIMMs) package the laptop’s double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDRx SDRAM). Laptop RAM can become very hot; however, it would not cause the battery to expand.
A solid-state drive (SSD) does not get as hot as a traditional magnetic drive. Even so, an SSD would not cause the battery to expand.
What is a physical indicator of overheating?
Grinding noises
Blank screen
LED status lights
Burning smell
Burning smell
Explanation:
Excessive heat can easily damage a computer. A burning smell will almost always indicate that something (probably the power supply) is overheating. Shut down the system immediately and investigate the problem.
Grinding or clicking noises generally indicate a mechanical problem with the hard drive disk (HDD), not overheating problems.
LED status lights can indicate if the computer is getting power or other diagnostic codes. They do not indicate overheating.
A blank screen can indicate anything from no power to a faulty screen. A blank screen does not directly point to overheating problems.
This can be used individually or in conjunction with other configurations to effectively verify email services and block the transmission of spoofed and unwanted messages. (Select all that apply.)
Sender Policy Framework
Virtual private network
DomainKeys Identified Mail
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance
DomainKeys Identified Mail
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance
Sender Policy Framework
Explanation:
The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record—there must be only one per domain—identifies the hosts authorized to send email from that domain.
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. This can replace or supplement SPF.
The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that the developer effectively utilizes SPF and DKIM. A DMARC policy publishes as a domain name system (DNS) TXT record.
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site.
A security administrator checks computer components that rely on the unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature that helps prevent malicious software applications from being hijacked. What is this component?
Support virtualization
Boot options
Secure boot
USB permission
Secure boot
Explanation:
Secure boot is a UEFI feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware configuration has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.
Support virtualization is hardware-assisted virtualization. This makes the VMs run more quickly.
USB permission is an option for enabling or disabling the connection of a USB device. USB devices can be a security risk.
Boot options define how the system firmware searches devices for a boot manager. It is one of the most important parameters in a system setup.
This protocol makes files available for download across a network and uses ports 20 and 21.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Telnet
File Transfer Protocol
Secure Shell
File Transfer Protocol
Explanation:
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) makes files available for download across a network. It utilizes two ports. TCP Port 21 establishes the connection between two computers (control connection), and TCP port 20 is the port the file(s) are transferred across (data connection).
Secure Shell (SSH) makes a secure connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 22.
Telnet makes an unsecured connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 23.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) transfers email messages across a network and uses TCP port 25.
Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) applies a strategy that is the simplest way of protecting a single disk against failure by using a mirrored drive configuration with two disks?
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 1
Explanation:
RAID 1 uses two disks where each operation is duplicated on the second disk, introducing a small performance overhead. If one disk fails, the other takes over.
RAID 0 uses at least two disks. The logical volume of size is the combined total of the smallest capacity physical disk in the array. RAID 0 provides no redundancy.
RAID 5 uses striping like in RAID 0 but with distributed parity. If a single disk fails, enough information is spread across the remaining disks to reconstruct the data.
RAID 10 is a logical striped volume configured with two mirrored arrays. This configuration offers excellent fault tolerance, as one disk in each mirror can fail, and the volume will still be available.
