CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Test Flashcards
What voltage range do appliances such as dryers, heavy-duty power tools, and oven ranges require?
115V
220V
110V
120V
220V
Explanation:
220V is a requirement for appliances because of the high-power range needed to supply them. The power requirement for 200V would be 900 watts of power. This range is typically in commercial applications for large motors and other equipment.
110V is present mainly in portable electronics and small appliances. 110V is typically safer to work with because of the fewer volts.
115V is similar to 110V and rated on a low range that would not support the appliances.
120V is in the same low range as 110V and 115V. 110V, 115V, and 120V have tests to operate at a lower voltage.
An IPv6 address is composed of which two main parts? (Select all that apply.)
Dynamic address
Interface ID
Network ID
Static address
Interface ID
Network ID
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The first 64 bits are a network ID.
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The second 64 bits designate a specific interface.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually. This is traditionally only used for IPv4 addresses.
A host can receive its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server as an alternative to static configuration. This is also used traditionally with only IPv4 addresses.
A startup company does not have the capital to invest in infrastructure to host their website, nor do they have the capital to hire engineers to manage their cloud environment. At this point, strict access control is not a concern for the startup, but they do not want to share resources with other organizations. Which cloud implementation will best suit the startup’s needs?
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud
Public cloud
Public cloud
Explanation:
Public cloud will best meet the startup’s needs because it offers subscriptions and pay-as-you-go finances and can even provide lower-tier services free of charge. Public clouds are also offered over an internet connection by cloud service providers (CSPs).
Private cloud is unnecessary for the startup’s use case because they do not require strict access control in their operations.
Community cloud is incorrect because the startup does not want to share resources with other organizations.
A hybrid cloud is not the best answer because there is potential for resources to be shared among multiple organizations and the requirement to maintain data on-premises, which the startup cannot afford.
A technician troubleshoots a laptop’s direct connectivity to the organization’s access points connected to an internal network. Troubleshooting starts by removing a screw-down panel to access and examine internal components. Which components does the technician test?
Wireless card
mSATA
Mini PCIe
Modem
Wireless card
Explanation:
A wireless card is an internal component of a laptop that provides Wi-Fi connection capabilities. A wireless card would be seated within the laptop and have an antenna connection.
A modem is a communication device; however, it is not the correct component in this case. The modem would not connect to an access point as detailed in the scenario.
A mini peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) card is a form factor that many adapter cards use. These form factors include wireless cards, Bluetooth cards, and more.
A mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) card is a storage device, like a solid-state drive (SSD). An mSATA uses far less power and has a smaller footprint than a traditional SSD drive.
A basic firewall configuration has rules, referred to as network access control lists (ACLs). What are the basic properties needed for a firewall ACL to implement the desired security features configured? (Select all that apply.)
Protocol
Source and destination network/device
MAC address
Block/Allow property
Protocol
Source and destination network/device
Block/Allow property
Explanation:
The ACL requires source and destination network or device for the firewall to know what networks and devices are allowed to communicate with each other.
A protocol needs to be defined in an ACL to narrow the scope of network traffic managed by the ACL.
The network technician can set the ACL to either allow or block specific protocols and traffic between various sources and destination networks and devices.
Firewalls typically manage network traffic at a different layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, and MAC addresses are usually not found in traditional firewall ACLs.
An online retailer uses the cloud to host its infrastructure because the cloud provider guarantees 99.999% service uptime. What benefit of using the cloud has the online retailer been guaranteed?
High availability
Shared resources
Metered utilization
Rapid elasticity
High availability
Explanation:
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur because of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
Rapid elasticity refers to the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in real-time without loss of service or performance. Rapid elasticity allows a system to reduce costs when demand is low.
Metered utilization is the per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud, making cloud offerings cheaper or more expensive for an organization, depending on their resource consumption.
Shared resources are incorrect. To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
A company is looking for computers with accelerated graphic capabilities and large, high-resolution monitors. Which of the following would meet the company’s needs?
Workstation
Server-class
Desktop
Mobile
Workstation
Explanation:
The workstation is a high-performance PC, such as one used for software development or graphics/video editing. Any business PC or network client can be a workstation.
Desktop is shorthand for a basic PC used at home or in the office. Computer cases sit horizontally on a desk rather than the vertical towers or all-in-one configurations used today.
Server-class computers must manage more demanding workloads than most desktops and operate to greater reliability standards.
Mobiles use Advanced RISC Machine (ARM)-based central processing units (CPUs) that prioritize power and thermal efficiency plus weight over pure performance. Mobile CPUs tend to use different socket form factors to desktops.
Which of the following allows printers to connect using a Plug and Play that installs the driver automatically?
Ethernet
USB
RJ45 port
Wireless
USB
Explanation:
USB connects the device plug to the printer’s USB port and the host plug to a free port on the computer.
Wireless has two interfaces, Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. Bluetooth allows access by using the print device control panel to make it discoverable Then, the Bluetooth page adds the device. Wi-Fi uses two ways infrastructure mode and Wi-Fi direct.
An engineer can configure Ethernet to obtain an Internet Protocol (IP) configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server or they can manually configure this.
RJ45 port is used with an Ethernet network adapter to connect a printer to a computer.
A growing manufacturing company wants to better manage all of its controlled systems in various plants around the city. After speaking with a technology vendor, what type of system would they recommend investing in for this solution?
Load balancers
SCADA
IoT
Proxy servers
SCADA
Explanation:
A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system typically runs as software gathering data and managing plant devices and equipment with embedded PLCs, referred to as field devices. These typically use WAN communications, such as cellular or satellite, to link the SCADA server to field devices.
The Internet of Things (IoT) describes the global network of wearable technology, home appliances, home control systems, vehicles, and other items equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity.
A proxy server takes a full HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination server on the internet.
A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool.
What component can be used in a camera to hold digital image storage?
Memory card
HDD
Optical drive
Flash drive
Memory card
Explanation:
Memory card is a form factor used in consumer digital imaging products, such as digital still and video cameras, and to expand smartphone and tablet storage.
Flash drives are flash memory boards with a USB connector and protective cover.
Optical drives rate according to their data transfer speed. An optical drive can perform recording/rewriting and markets with three speeds.
A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter are accessed by its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.
This part of an IP address configuration allows a host to communicate with a remote network, most notably the internet. Otherwise, the host will only communicate with the local network without this.
Static address
Gateway address
APIPA address
DNS address
Gateway address
Explanation:
The default gateway is the IPv4 router address, such as 192.168.0.1. This setting is not compulsory, but failure to enter a gateway would limit the host to only communicate on the local network.
DNS addresses provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the internet.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually.
When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have obtained a valid DHCP lease.
A systems engineer is doing an internal audit of their virtual environment before an annual inspection and is making sure that all the virtual machines are up to date on patches. What could the systems engineer consult to verify which patches need to be on each machine?
Legacy software/OS
Resource requirements
Security requirements
Test development
Security requirements
Explanation:
Security requirements are correct because patching is a part of ensuring a system is secure against the latest vulnerabilities.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms that are based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
One of two monitors remains a blank screen after a user logs onto the system. The technician suspected an unplugged monitor, but it was connected. What is the next step in troubleshooting?
Escalate the problem.
Establish a new probable cause.
Identify the problem.
Document the changes.
Establish a new probable cause.
Explanation:
After the first theory does not work, establish a new probable cause of the problem. Start with basic information, including verifying that the monitor is receiving power.
Escalating the problem to a supervisor is a valid route, but not in this case. The technician has not exhausted all reasonable troubleshooting options.
The problem is that the second monitor has a blank screen, which the technician has already identified. Identifying the problem is the first troubleshooting step.
Documenting the changes is the last step in the troubleshooting methodology, including a verified working solution.
A support desk technician must make a custom-length Ethernet patch cable for a user’s desk setup. What tool do they need to create this cable? (Select all that apply.)
Snips
Cable stripper
Crimper
Punchdown tool
Cable stripper
Snips
Crimper
Explanation:
A crimper is a tool used to fix a male jack to a patch cord. The support technician would do this to both ends of the custom cable.
A cable stripper is a tool that would score the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
Snips are needed to cut the custom length cable to size and trim the ripcord and the start filler inside the cable. Sometimes snips are integrated on cable stripper tools and can be singular in function.
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC). This would not be used in this scenario, as there is no punching down of wires into a block.
A technician upgrades the memory in a laptop computer. Which interface does the memory have?
PCIe
mSATA
SODIMM
M.2
SODIMM
Explanation:
A smaller form factor called small outline DIMM (SODIMM) packages laptop random access memory (RAM). The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45-degree angle.
A technician can provision a solid-state drive (SSD) in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. An M.2 port is oriented horizontally.
The mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) form factor allows an SSD packaged as an adapter card to plug into the motherboard’s combined data and power port.
Modern SSDs often use the peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus directly. Where SATA uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus, PCIe-based SSDs use the non-volatile memory host controller.
What uses a method of down-plugging, where a longer card can fit into a short slot, assuming other features do not obstruct the card in the case?
M.2
SATA
PCI
PCIe
PCIe
Explanation:
Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus is the mainstream interface for modern adapter cards.
A peripheral component interconnect (PCI) is a legacy bus type superseded by PCI Express. PCI ports can be included on a PCIe motherboard to support legacy adapter cards, but PCI cards cannot fit into PCIe slots.
M.2 adapters can be of different lengths. The adapter card is inserted at an angle and then pushed into place and secured with a screw.
Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) ports connect to one or more fixed drives. Technicians can also use SATA to connect removable drives, such as tape and optical drives.
After a technician has verified resolving a problem, what is the next step?
Close the ticket.
Ask about recent environmental changes.
Document what was done.
Identify a solution.
Document what was done.
Explanation:
Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes is essential for tech support. Documentation can be useful for future troubleshooting, creating a knowledge base, and analyzing IT infrastructure.
The technician needs to complete documenting the actions taken before closing a ticket. Documentation demonstrates what the support department is doing to help the business.
Identifying the solution occurs earlier in the troubleshooting steps. When identifying a problem, the technician proposes and tests a solution.
Asking about recent changes in the environment is ideal when identifying the problem. This step occurs earlier in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology.
A user complains that their laptop does not hold a charge for more than 30 minutes, even after charging all night. They also mention that there is an error message when they restart their computer that states something about power. What is likely the problem?
Poor battery health
Underpowered adapter
Physically damaged charging port
Swollen battery
Underpowered adapter
Explanation:
AC adapters can get mixed up. If an underpowered adapter is used, the laptop will display a warning at boot. Using the wrong adapter can cause problems, such as the battery not completely charging.
As batteries age, they no longer hold a charge and need to be replaced. This would be the best answer except that the boot error points to another problem.
A swollen battery indicates a problem with the battery’s charging circuit. This can be diagnosed by the keyboard or trackpad being pushed up or the laptop wobbling when sitting on a flat surface.
Charging ports can be damaged by improper insertion and removal of the connectors. Signs of this are no charging or intermittent charging.
What component in a fused deposition model (FDM) 3-D printer is usually heated to prevent the material from warping?
Fan
Filament
Print bed
Extruder
Print bed
Explanation:
Print bed, also known as the build plate, is a flat glass plate that extrudes the material. The bed is heated to prevent the plastic from cooling too quickly and creating a product warp.
Filament supplies the ink of a 3-D printer. The filament spools require careful storage once opened. They should be kept free from heat and humidity.
The extruder is the equivalent of a print head in an inkjet. A motor in the extruder draws filament from the “cold end” to the nozzle. It is then melted and squeezed onto the object.
The fan cools the melted plastic where necessary to shape the object correctly.
A small shop uses a new point of sale system that allows for touchless payments. The business owner, who is not so tech-savvy, is amazed at the process. As the owner sets up the system, what technology does the system installer mention the payments use?
Bluetooth
NFC
Wi-Fi
Cellular
NFC
Explanation:
Many mobile devices have near-field communication (NFC) chips built in. NFC allows for very short-range data transmission. Credit card payments can use this technology.
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. The connection occurs through what is known as pairing.
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.
Cellular data networking means connecting to the internet or services via a device’s cellular radio and the phone/system network provider.
A vast majority of rural residents in the United States still use this internet connection type that utilizes the public switched telephone network (PSTN).
Wi-Fi
DSL
WISP
Satellite
DSL
Explanation:
A digital subscriber line (DSL) uses the higher frequencies available in copper telephone lines as a communications channel. The two major “flavors” of this type of connection are asymmetrical and symmetrical.
Various satellite internet solutions are available to rural residents, but they do not utilize the PSTN infrastructure.
A wireless internet service provider (WISP) uses ground-based long-range fixed access wireless technology. The WISP installs and maintains a directional antenna to bridge the customer’s network and the service provider.
Wi-Fi is the brand name for the IEEE 802.11 standards used to implement wireless local area networks (WLANs).
While planning a new virtual environment, a systems engineer noted that one virtual machine (VM) would run a Windows OS and store two snapshots at all times. The VM will need to have at least 80 GB in its hard disk drive for the VM to function properly. What is the systems engineer considering when planning this aspect of the new virtual environment?
Test development
Resource requirements
Legacy software/OS
Security requirements
Resource requirements
Explanation:
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Security requirements are incorrect because the amount of central processing units (CPUs) and random access memory (RAM) a system needs will not impact the security of a system.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
If a computer produces digital art, what special process will it require?
Color calibration
Adjust brightness and contrast controls.
Use a screensaver.
Adjust resolution
Color calibration
Explanation:
Color calibration is the process of adjusting screen and scanner settings to balance color input and output. A technician should configure color settings with the assistance of a color profile.
Incorrect settings or a failed backlight can cause a dim image. Adjusting brightness and contrast controls can resolve any problems with dim images.
A user needs to adjust the resolution for a display if it is fuzzy. An image appears fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution.
When the same static image displays for an extended period, it can damage the monitor’s picture elements, causing a ghost image to “burn” permanently onto the display. An animated screensaver can help prevent this problem.
A company has found that specific departments are more productive when working from home as remote workers. The company would like to implement this ability and has reached out to a network security firm. What foundational infrastructure solution should the company implement to allow remote workers to access all the needed resources from their laptops at home?
Virtual private network
Virtual LAN
Mail exchange records
DNS (AAAA) records
Virtual private network
Explanation:
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site. This would be the first foundational step to implement in the given scenario.
A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical network segment using a feature of managed switches to segregate network traffic. Though the company may use this as a layer of security, it would not be foundational.
A mail exchange (MX) record identifies an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an AAAA record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address. This would not help with granting remote workers access to resources.
A company plans on upgrading a fleet of mobile phones. Upon inspection, the phones that will be retired do not utilize a SIM card. What does the company learn about the phones that have been in use?
The phones are LTE.
The phones are 4G.
The phones are 3G.
The phones are CDMA.
The phones are CDMA.
Explanation:
3G defines Universal Mobile Telecommunications Service (UMTS) on a Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) handset or Evolution-Data Optimized (EV-DO) on CDMA networks, working at up to around 3 Mb/s.
Code division multiple access (CDMA) means that the handset is directly managed by the provider and there is no removable SIM card.
Long-term evolution (LTE) provides an upgrade from CDMA. All 4G and 5G cellular data connections require a SIM card.
4G phones use a SIM card and have a maximum downlink of 300 Mb/s in theory, with around 20–90 Mb/s typical of real-world performance.
Sandboxes can be used to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. Sandboxes also provide an isolated environment for what other important function?
Testing and development
Resource requirements
Legacy software/OS
Cross-platform virtualization
Testing and development
Explanation:
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some guest OS hypervisor.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
What format uses a system of mirrors that reflects the illuminated image of the object onto a lens that uses a prism to split the image into its component RGB colors?
OCR
ADF
SMB
Flatbed scanner
Flatbed scanner
Explanation:
A flatbed scanner works by shining a bright light at the object placed on a protective glass surface. This information creates a bitmap file of the object.
The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol means the scan generates as a file on a shared network folder. Each user must have permission to write to the share.
Optical character recognition (OCR) is software that can convert scanned text into digital documents ready for editing.
An automatic document feeder (ADF) passes paper over a fixed scan head. This is a more efficient way of scanning multi-page documents.
A user contacts an IT help desk to report a problem with a laptop computer. The complaint is that the laptop is very hot to the touch when typing. The user also states that the laptop does not sit correctly as the bottom of the laptop has a slight bulge. Which component does the help desk technician determine to be the problem?
Keyboard
Memory
Battery
SSD
Battery
Explanation:
Laptop computers use removable, rechargeable Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery packs. Li-ion batteries are typically available in 6-, 9-, or 12-cell versions. A problematic battery can overheat and expand.
A keyboard is an input device. Therefore, a laptop keyboard does not usually overheat. However, the user noticed heat coming from the laptop in this case.
Small outline dual inline memory modules (SODIMMs) package the laptop’s double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDRx SDRAM). Laptop RAM can become very hot; however, it would not cause the battery to expand.
A solid-state drive (SSD) does not get as hot as a traditional magnetic drive. Even so, an SSD would not cause the battery to expand.
What is a physical indicator of overheating?
Grinding noises
Blank screen
LED status lights
Burning smell
Burning smell
Explanation:
Excessive heat can easily damage a computer. A burning smell will almost always indicate that something (probably the power supply) is overheating. Shut down the system immediately and investigate the problem.
Grinding or clicking noises generally indicate a mechanical problem with the hard drive disk (HDD), not overheating problems.
LED status lights can indicate if the computer is getting power or other diagnostic codes. They do not indicate overheating.
A blank screen can indicate anything from no power to a faulty screen. A blank screen does not directly point to overheating problems.
This can be used individually or in conjunction with other configurations to effectively verify email services and block the transmission of spoofed and unwanted messages. (Select all that apply.)
Sender Policy Framework
Virtual private network
DomainKeys Identified Mail
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance
DomainKeys Identified Mail
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance
Sender Policy Framework
Explanation:
The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record—there must be only one per domain—identifies the hosts authorized to send email from that domain.
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. This can replace or supplement SPF.
The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that the developer effectively utilizes SPF and DKIM. A DMARC policy publishes as a domain name system (DNS) TXT record.
A virtual private network (VPN) enables hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site.
A security administrator checks computer components that rely on the unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature that helps prevent malicious software applications from being hijacked. What is this component?
Support virtualization
Boot options
Secure boot
USB permission
Secure boot
Explanation:
Secure boot is a UEFI feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware configuration has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.
Support virtualization is hardware-assisted virtualization. This makes the VMs run more quickly.
USB permission is an option for enabling or disabling the connection of a USB device. USB devices can be a security risk.
Boot options define how the system firmware searches devices for a boot manager. It is one of the most important parameters in a system setup.
This protocol makes files available for download across a network and uses ports 20 and 21.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Telnet
File Transfer Protocol
Secure Shell
File Transfer Protocol
Explanation:
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) makes files available for download across a network. It utilizes two ports. TCP Port 21 establishes the connection between two computers (control connection), and TCP port 20 is the port the file(s) are transferred across (data connection).
Secure Shell (SSH) makes a secure connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 22.
Telnet makes an unsecured connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 23.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) transfers email messages across a network and uses TCP port 25.
Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) applies a strategy that is the simplest way of protecting a single disk against failure by using a mirrored drive configuration with two disks?
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 1
Explanation:
RAID 1 uses two disks where each operation is duplicated on the second disk, introducing a small performance overhead. If one disk fails, the other takes over.
RAID 0 uses at least two disks. The logical volume of size is the combined total of the smallest capacity physical disk in the array. RAID 0 provides no redundancy.
RAID 5 uses striping like in RAID 0 but with distributed parity. If a single disk fails, enough information is spread across the remaining disks to reconstruct the data.
RAID 10 is a logical striped volume configured with two mirrored arrays. This configuration offers excellent fault tolerance, as one disk in each mirror can fail, and the volume will still be available.
A laptop user has a slim laptop that has very few external ports. As there is no Ethernet port on the laptop, it only uses wireless. The user would like a low-cost solution that allows for an Ethernet connection when not traveling. What does IT purchase for the user?
Docking station
Port replicator
Serial connection
Lightning cord
Port replicator
Explanation:
A port replicator either attaches to a special connector on the back or underside of a laptop or is connected via USB. It provides a full complement of ports for devices such as keyboards, monitors, mice, and network connections.
A docking station is a sophisticated port replicator. When docked, a portable computer can function like a desktop machine or use additional features, such as a full-size expansion card.
Most iPhone and iPad Apple devices use the proprietary Lightning connector. This would be for connecting an iOS device for purposes including charging.
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used.
A technician decides to update a server’s redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array with solid-state hard drives. The plan is to clone the current array and restore it to the newly built array. Which step does the technician use in a migration approach?
Data backup
Data restore
OS installation
Disk imaging
Disk imaging
Explanation:
Migration means using backup software to perform disk imaging on the old drive and storing it on a USB or directly to the new drive(s).
A replacement drive approach only has the data backed up from the old drive. The technician then fits the new drive to the laptop and reinstalls all software.
When using a replacement approach, the technician restores user data from a backup. This approach means that the technician removes the old drives and replaces them with the new drives.
When a replacement approach occurs, the new drives need the operating system (OS) installed and any other required applications.
A user has been working with a large transportation company for 30 years and has never seen a double image before. However, when they print the latest report on the new printer they see a double image on the print. What should they do first?
Check for mechanical problems.
Clean the drum.
Check toner installation location.
Use a toner vacuum.
Clean the drum.
Explanation:
Double/echo images is a sign that the photosensitive drum has not been cleaned properly. Try printing a series of different images, and see if the problem resolves itself. If not, replace the drum/toner cartridge.
For an incorrect chroma display, prints come out in the wrong color. Ensure that the toner cartridges have been installed in the correct location.
A loud or grinding noise, or any sort of clicking sound, is a sign of a mechanical problem.
Speckling on output indicates loose toner may be getting onto the paper. Clean the inside of the printer using an approved toner vacuum.
This protocol provisions secure websites and services and uses port 443.
Internet Mail Access Protocol
HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure
Post Office Protocol 3
HyperText Transfer Protocol
HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure
Explanation:
HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) delivers secure websites and services and uses TCP port 443. Data encrypts over this connection between the client and server.
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) retrieves email messages from a server mailbox and uses TCP port 110. This is one main way email clients retrieve email messages.
HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) provisions unsecured websites and web services and uses TCP port 80. This connection is not encryption secured.
Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) reads and manages mail messages on a server mailbox and uses TCP port 143. This also retrieves email messages for client applications but has the added feature of managing the messages on the server (delete, archive, moving to folders, etc.)
A user complains that a laptop is slow. A technician concludes that the best solution is to remove the current mechanical disk drive with a faster solid-state drive. The technician opts to back up the user data and install a fresh operating system on a new drive. Which approach defines the technician’s steps?
Clone
Migration
Replacement
Upgrade
Replacement
Explanation:
A replacement drive approach only has the data backed up from the old drive. The technician then fits the new drive to the laptop and reinstalls all software. Then the technician can restore user data from the backup.
An upgrade is a general term, and with software, an upgrade occurs between software versions. With hardware, newer hardware replaces older hardware. While a hardware upgrade occurs in the scenario, it does not define the technician’s steps.
Migration means using backup software to create an image of the old drive and storing it on a USB or other type of media.
Cloning a disk is similar to migration in that it makes a copy of an entire drive to another storage device.
A computer has multiple hard drives installed, but the second hard drive does not show up in Windows Explorer. What is a possible problem?
Corrupted boot sector
Bad sectors
Overheating
Cable or connector fault
Cable or connector fault
Explanation:
Suppose the system boots, but a second fixed disk or removable drive does not appear in File Explorer. The technician should first check that the system has initialized and formatted with a partition structure and file system. If the system does not detect the disk by a configuration tool, such as Windows Disk Management, the technician will suspect that there is a hardware or cable/connector fault.
The computer booted up correctly, so a corrupted boot sector is not the problem.
Overheating is generally detected from the computer becoming hot to the touch.
Bad sectors occur when parts of a hard disk drive (HDD) fail, resulting in read/write failures and not the inability to see a hard drive in the OS.
A network technician installs wireless access points (APs) in an office and would like to use power over Ethernet (PoE) to power the APs. The current network infrastructure is not capable of doing this. What would the network technician need to install to augment the power requirements for PoE APs?
Power injector
Firewall
Managed switch
Patch panel
Power injector
Explanation:
If a switch does not support PoE, a network technician can use a power injector. One port on the injector connects to the switch port. The other port connects to the device.
Firewalls have rules that list source and destination network addresses, protocol types, and whether to allow or block traffic matching the rule. This would not provide power to connected devices.
Managed switches have internal software for more advanced functionality. Though managed switches can provide power, this scenario points out that it is not available.
In most types of office cabling, the computer connects to a wall port and via cabling running through the walls to a patch panel. Patch panels do not provide inline power to connected devices.
A RAID array cannot boot, and the technician cannot reach the configuration utility. There have been no recent changes to the array. What is the likely problem?
Failed RTC battery
Disk failure
Misconfiguration
Controller failure
Controller failure
Explanation:
If the redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array cannot boot, the first step is to use the configuration utility to verify the status. If the system cannot reach it, then the controller likely failed.
Single disk failure would not stop the booting process from happening. RAID arrays operate so that a single disk can fail and not cause any data loss.
Misconfiguration can always be a problem, but no recent changes occurred in this case. If it was booting fine before and no configurations have changed, then misconfiguration is highly unlikely to be the problem.
A failed real-time clock (RTC) battery will cause an incorrect date or time but would not stop a RAID array from booting.
A video gamer is using a product designed to record footage from computer games. What is this called?
NIC
Video card
Sound card
Capture card
Capture card
Explanation:
Capture cards record video input and save it as a movie or streaming media file. Some work with PC games, while others record from a game console or live camera high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) sources, such as a camcorder or security camera.
Video cards generate the signal to drive a monitor or projector. Low-end graphics adapters are likely to be included with the motherboard chipset or as part of the CPU itself.
A sound card records input from a microphone. Audio playback occurs via speakers or headphones connected to sound cards.
The network interface card (NIC) hardware component on a computer provides a network connection.
An organization rolls out a security update that utilizes either a contactless smart card reader or a fingerprint scanner for login to mobile devices. What type of security implementations is the organization allowing for user logins? (Select all that apply.)
Wi-Fi 6
Bluetooth
Near-field
Biometrics
Near-field
Biometrics
Explanation:
A biometric sensor allows users to record a template of a feature of their body that is unique to them. On a laptop, this is typically a fingerprint scanner.
A near-field communication (NFC) scanner is an authentication mechanism. It may also pair peripheral devices or establish a connection to a smart device.
Smart card readers do not use Bluetooth and typically connect peripheral devices to PCs and mobiles. Smart card readers also share data between two systems.
Wi-Fi 6 works in both the current 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands and adds support for a new 6 GHz frequency band. However, it is not applicable in this scenario.
A technician builds a computer using the most common form factor measuring 12 x 9.6 inches and has up to seven expansion slots. What form factor is the technician using?
ITX
ATX
SAN
B
ATX
Explanation:
An advanced technology extended (ATX) specifies the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboards.
Information technology extended (ITX) has two designs: the mini-ITX and the mobile-ITX. The mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square with one expansion slot. Technicians can mount most mini-ITX boards in ATX cases.
A storage area network (SAN) is more flexible and reliable than using local disks on each server machine. It provides access to a configurable group of storage devices that application servers can use.
A balanced technology extended (BTX) improves ATX since it has better airflow.
A company meets with an IT consultant about building a small data center within their facility. The company would house all its servers in this data center, and each server would have local disks set up for all the servers and PCs to share over the network. The consultant would question this method and suggest installing which storage solution into the data center?
LAN
SAN
SCSI
PAN
SAN
Explanation:
A storage area network (SAN) provisions access to a configurable pool of storage devices that application servers can use, isolated from the main network. It is only accessed by servers, not by client PCs and laptops. This would be the best solution for a data center build.
A local area network (LAN) consists of computers connected by cabling and one or more network switches installed at a single geographical location.
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is a legacy standard for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices.
A personal area network (PAN) refers to using wireless connectivity to connect to devices at a range of a few meters.
What can a technician use on a 20-pin main power connector for the motherboard? (Select all that apply.)
24-pin
20-pin
4-pin x5
8-pin x2 and 4-pin x1
20-pin
24-pin
Explanation:
The technician can use a 20-pin main power adapter for the motherboard. This is the adapter that was specifically made for it.
A 24-pin adapter supplies power to the motherboard but can connect in a 20-pin. In most cases a 24-pin adapter has 4 pins that are detachable. This is not always 100% the case though.
4-pin x5 adapters would not work with the 20-pin main power connector. 4-pin connectors typically connect to case fans and other accessories devices.
A technician cannot use 8-pin x2 and 4-pin x 1. 8-pin for all multi-core processors use this connector since some power supplies have two 4-pin connectors that they can use side by side.
What tool is also known as a universal serial bus (USB) drive, thumb drive, or pen drive?
HDD
Memory card
Flash drive
Optical drive
Flash drive
Explanation:
Flash drives are flash memory boards with a USB connector and protective cover.
Optical drives rate according to their data transfer speed. An optical drive can perform recording/rewriting and markets with three speeds.
Memory card is a form factor used in consumer digital imaging products, such as digital still and video cameras, and to expand smartphone and tablet storage.
A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter are accessed by its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.
A technician replaced a failed drive in a RAID array and noticed a severely degraded performance. What is the problem?
There is a faulty disk.
There is a cable problem.
The controller is failing.
Takes resources to rebuild the array.
Takes resources to rebuild the array.
Explanation:
After replacing the failed disk in the redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the performance of the array degrades for some time since the array is rebuilding and the system is writing several gigabytes of data onto the new drive.
If the controller were failing, replacing the failed disk or boot into the RAID array would not have been possible.
A cable problem would not cause degraded performance. However, a cable problem would likely cause the system not to read the new disk at all.
The technician has already replaced the faulty disk. Furthermore, failing disks generally fail slowly over time, not immediately, causing substantial performance issues.
Where is the best source of information for installing a vendor-specific piece of technology?
Vendor documentation
Social media
Internal documentation
Web search
Vendor documentation
Explanation:
Vendor documentation is the best source of information for details regarding their products. Vendors generally provide detailed specifics about installation requirements and steps.
Internal documentation may document installation, but this may not be the most up-to-date example. Vendor documentation will be the most up-to-date installation information.
Instructions found on social media can vary wildly on accuracy. The vendor documentation is the authoritative source of information on their products.
A web search for information will likely lead to vendor documentation. However, if the web search reveals other sources, the quality of information is likely not reliable.
A consumer that is new to iOS devices does not understand what type of cable is required to charge a new iPhone. The consumer would like an extra cable to keep in a home office. What type of proprietary cable does the consumer look to purchase?
LCD
USB
Lightning
Serial
Lightning
Explanation:
Most iPhone and iPad Apple devices use the proprietary Lightning connector. Some of the latest iPad models, such as the iPad Pro, use USB-C.
Modern Android-based smartphones and tablets use the USB-C connector for wired peripherals and charging. The Micro-B USB and Mini-B connector form factors are only found on old devices.
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used for programming and connectivity.
Most mobile devices use a flat-panel screen technology based on a type of liquid crystal display (LCD). A liquid crystal display is not a cable type.
What kind of storage media can have grinding and clicking as a diagnostic tool?
NVRAM
RAM
HDD
SSD
HDD
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD) has moving platters and arms. These mechanical parts can start making grinding or clicking noises as they fail.
A solid-state device (SSD) does not have moving parts. Instead, SSD uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. As a result, risks from failure due to mechanical shock and fear are generally lower.
Random access memory (RAM) does not have moving parts to fail. RAM is the nonpersistent memory used for running programs and open data files.
Non-volatile read access memory (NVRAM) does not have moving parts to fail.
When a user downloads a Microsoft Store application, where does the application run to prevent the app from making system-wide changes and prevent a faulty store app from “crashing” the entire OS?
Test development
Resource requirements
Cross-platform virtualization
Sandbox
Sandbox
Explanation:
A sandbox is an isolated environment where Microsoft Store apps run to prevent the app from making system-wide changes and prevent a faulty store app from “crashing” the entire OS.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
A manager uses a dot matrix printer that uses specific types of paper. Which of the following papers does the printer use? (Select all that apply.)
Impact paper
Thermal paper
Replaceable ribbon
Tractor-fed paper
Explanation:
Impact paper makes multiple copies of a document in the same pass. A sheet of impact paper is between each sheet of plain paper, and when the print head strikes, the same mark remains on each sheet.
Tractor-fed paper has removable, perforated side strips. The holes in these strips secure over studded rollers at each end of the platen.
The thermal paper contains chemicals designed to react and change color as it heats by the heating element within the printer to create images.
Impact printers use replaceable ribbon with a cartridge device that slots over or around the carriage of the print head.
A technician is working on a blank computer monitor problem. The monitor power cord is plugged in and receiving power. What is the next step to check?
Check for physical damage.
Check monitor input settings.
Check the PSU.
Check if the monitor connects to the computer.
Check if the monitor connects to the computer.
Explanation:
A systematic approach to troubleshooting helps save time and effort. After verifying that the monitor is getting power, checking that the monitor connects to the computer is the next logical step.
The power supply unit (PSU) is a component on the computer that can cause intermittent issues if it is failing. There is no indication that the PSU is the problem here.
Incorrect monitor input settings can cause a blank screen but the technician should follow the step verifying that the monitor connects to the computer first.
Physical damage to a computer can cause problems, but there is no indication that this could be the problem and is not a logical next step.
A user, who is new to computers, inspects a laptop to become acquainted with all the physical features. The user finds a small hole in the top bezel of the display. What feature is this?
Webcam
Microphone
Speaker
LED Light
Microphone
Explanation:
On a laptop, the microphone is exposed by a small hole in the top bezel of the laptop display. This can be true with a laptop that either has or does not have a webcam built-in.
A digital camera/webcam allows for video recording or web conferencing and can also be used to take still pictures. The webcam is usually located on the top bezel of the display.
A light-emitting diode (LED) on a laptop is present to illuminate the subject during webcam use.
Speakers are usually found in either the side bezels of a laptop display or somewhere on the main laptop body.
Which of the following would a technician use in small, low-power motherboards?
ITX
SAN
BTX
ATX
ITX
Explanation:
Information technology eXtended (ITX) has two designs: the mini-ITX and the mobile-ITX. The mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square with one expansion slot. Technicians can mount most mini-ITX boards in ATX cases.
An advanced technology eXtended (ATX) specifies the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboards.
A balanced technology eXtended (BTX) improves ATX since it has better airflow.
A storage area network (SAN) is more flexible and reliable than using local disks on each server machine. It provides access to a configurable group of storage devices that application servers can use.
A customer builds a new facility that they will mainly use to provide services for physically disabled residents. They would like to accommodate as much as possible so that residents can be more independent. What type of technology, if appropriately secured, would be a great solution to accomplish this goal?
SCADA
Syslog server
Exchange servers
IoT
IoT
Explanation:
The Internet of Things (IoT) endpoints implement the function of a smart lightbulb, refrigerator, thermostat/heating control, or doorbell/video entry phone that a user can operate and monitor remotely. Configured with the appropriate hub/control solution, this would be a proper solution.
A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system typically runs as software gathering data from and managing plant devices and equipment with embedded PLCs, referred to as field devices.
Exchange servers are mail servers that facilitate sending and receiving mail messages and also manage user mailboxes.
Syslog is an example of a protocol and supporting software that facilitates log collection. It has become a de-facto standard for logging events from distributed systems.
A technician needs a connector that offers high-speed standards that specify a data rate of 480 Mbps shared between the devices attached to the same host controller. What connector should the technician use?
USB 3.0
Lightning port
HDMI
USB 2.0
USB 2.0
Explanation:
USB 2.0 is half-duplex, which means that each device can send or receive, but not simultaneously.
USB 3.0 has new versions of Type A, Type B, and Type B Micro connectors with additional signaling and wires. This allows a device to send and receive simultaneously.
The Lightning port is found only on Apple’s mobile devices. The Lightning connector is reversible. The user needs a suitable adapter cable to connect such a device as a Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) can rate as either standard or high speed. It provides high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source.
A technician receives a ticket on a proprietary internal system. What would be the best place to start researching possible solutions?
Search an internal ticketing system.
Search the internet.
Ask a supervisor.
Search through textbooks.
Search an internal ticketing system.
Explanation:
Colleagues, or an internal ticketing system, will give the most relevant information to specific systems and sets of problems that users have. Well-documented internal tickets will generally contain solutions to the most common problems.
A textbook is generally outdated for specific technology solutions and would not contain information about a proprietary system.
A supervisor is a useful resource but should not be the first person to ask. The technician should complete documentation of all attempts at solutions and searches before escalating tickets.
Searching the web is a great research step, but the technician should perform it after first checking if any internal documentation is available.
A developer uses a design that implements a system-on-chip (SoC) that controls video, sound, networking, and storage as part of the CPU. What is the developer using?
ARM
Intel
AMD
M.2
ARM
Explanation:
Advanced RISC machines (ARM) is a processor architecture based on a 32-bit reduced instruction set computer. Developers use ARMS in the current generation of Apple hardware, most Android smartphones and tablets, most Chromebooks, and some Windows tablets and laptops.
Intel is known as integrated electronics that design internal CPU architectures, an x86 PC processor. A CPU implements an instruction by obtaining it from memory, using its ALU to perform an action, and then storing the result in memory.
Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) manufacture and design the x86 PC processor.
M.2 adapters can be of different lengths. The adapter card is inserted at an angle and then pushed into place and secured with a screw.
A user’s Bluetooth keyboard is no longer working after a year. What steps will fix this problem? (Select all that apply.)
Replace the keyboard battery.
Pair the devices.
Install drivers.
Replace the computer battery.
Replace the keyboard battery.
Pair the devices.
Explanation:
A wireless keyboard uses a disposable battery for power. After a year, it is likely the battery has run down and needs replacing.
Bluetooth works by pairing two devices. Steps to pair devices will vary, but the user will need to place the keyboard and device in pairing mode. After successful pairing, the user should verify functionality.
Generally, computers do not need Bluetooth drivers installed on them, and this device was working recently.
The computer battery is not the problem. However, the user needs to replace the keyboard battery in this case.
A software development company uses a system to allow developers to log into any computer throughout the building and load their unique desktop environment. The IT department decided to manage these servers in the data center located in the basement of the company’s office building. What system is the software development company leveraging?
VDI in the cloud
Platform as a service (PaaS)
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) on premises
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) on premises
Explanation:
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) on-premises is correct because the developers log into virtual machines that load the users’ computer images. The servers are hosted on the same network as the clients.
VDI in the cloud is incorrect because the servers hosting the virtual machines in the cloud mean that the servers are not hosted on the same network as the clients.
Platform as a service (PaaS) is incorrect because PaaS is typically a solution that would deploy hardware and applications platforms for the clients to use.
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is incorrect because IaaS is deploying IT hardware through a service provider.
What types of components provide input and output functions for a personal computer? (Select all that apply.)
HDMI
USB
System case
Peripheral device
Explanation:
Peripheral devices typically perform the input function (keyboard, mouse, microphone, and camera), output (monitor and speakers), or external storage.
System case houses the internal components, including the motherboards, central processing unit (CPU), system memory modules, adapter cards, fixed disks, and power supply unit.
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is the standard meaning of connecting most peripheral device types to a computer. A host controller manages USB.
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) is the most widely used video interface. HDMI supports both video and audio. HDMI rates as either standard or high speed.
A technician wants to install a non-standard program on a user’s computer to solve a problem. What does the technician need to consult before installing the program?
Corporate policies
Vendor solutions
The user
Social media
Corporate policies
Explanation:
Before making any changes to a system, consult the corporate policies and procedures. For example, some systems allow installing all software, while others have limited lists of accepted programs to install on the user’s computers.
Before posting any information on social media, it is imperative to get permission from supervisors. In this case, any answers received from social media would likely not apply to the particular system.
Before bringing a possible solution to the user, ensure that the solution falls within the acceptable corporate policies and procedures.
Vendor-specific documentation can provide possible solutions to a problem, but that solution is not relevant if it falls outside the corporate policies and procedures.
An IT support specialist updated all the information systems in the office last week and the users are complaining that the routinely used applications no longer work. What is most likely the issue breaking the applications?
Test development
Resource requirements
Legacy software/OS
Security requirements
Legacy software/OS
Explanation:
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Security requirements are incorrect because the question does not mention anything security-related.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor. This environment protects a live environment from any potential coding issues.
A user contacts a cellular service tech support team. The complaint is that no voice services are working. What is the likely issue?
Device pairing
Location services
A data cap
Preferred roaming list
Preferred roaming list
Explanation:
Information that a cellular radio needs to connect to a network is provided as a preferred roaming list (PRL). An update would update the list.
When a user utilized a mobile device with a data connection, a data cap should be recognized. This means being aware of how much data is allowed with a paid plan and how much data costs over the cap.
Using location services is not related to being connected to a cellular network. Location services use Wi-Fi and GPS to determine a device’s location.
To connect devices via Bluetooth, the Bluetooth radio on each device must be put into discoverable mode, which is also known as pairing mode.
A network engineer must set up an office’s new wireless access points (APs). After installing the access points, the engineer must ensure they set up the radio signals correctly and that all office areas receive the most efficient signal possible. What tool will the engineer utilize?
Loopback plug
Cable tester
Wi-Fi analyzer
Toner probe
Wi-Fi analyzer
Explanation:
A network engineer can install Wi-Fi analyzer software to record the AP’s associated statistics and detect other access points in the vicinity. This can configure the proper signal strength and channels.
A cable tester is a pair of devices attached to each end of a cable. It tests a patch cord or is connected via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel port to test the permanent link.
A toner probe detects the signal and follows the cable over ceilings and through ducts, or identifies it from the rest of the bundle. This is strictly for physical cabling.
A loopback plug tests a network interface card (NIC) or switch port. This does not test any wireless metric.
A technician researches flat-screen displays to find the perfect model for a conference room. The screen should feature a high viewing angle as the conference room is wide. Which technology does the technician look for when purchasing a flat-screen display?
VA
LED
IPS
OLED
IPS
Explanation:
In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles. Most IPS panels support 178/178 degree horizontal and vertical viewing angles.
Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.
An array of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) can provide illumination in a flat panel. Most smartphone and tablet screens use edge lighting where the LEDs are at the top or bottom of the screen.
A separate LED generates each pixel in an organic LED (OLED) display, or technically, an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED) display.
What are the main components of authentication, authorization, and accounting that securely and adequately connect devices to a network? (Select all that apply.)
AAA server
Network access server/point
Supplicant
DHCP server
Explanation:
The supplicant is the device requesting access, such as a user’s PC or laptop.
Network access servers (NAS) or network access points (NAP) are network access appliances, such as switches, access points, and VPN gateways. These are also called AAA clients or authenticators.
The AAA server is the authentication server positioned within the local network. With AAA, the network access appliances do not store any authentication credentials.
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server issues network configuration to clients to communicate on the network. This is not a part of the AAA process specifically.
What measures the PSU to meet the combined power requirements of the PC’s components?
Redundant power supply
Heat sink
Modular power supply
Wattage rating
Wattage rating
Explanation:
The wattage rating measures the power supply unit’s (PSU’s) output capability. Depending on the model, CPUs can range from 17 W to over 100 W. The power output is not the same as the PSU’s power from grid power.
A redundant power supply requires a compatible motherboard. This configuration is more common in server systems than on desktop PCs. Typically, each PSU plugs into a backplane on a server and is hot-swappable.
A modular power supply has power connector cables that are detachable from the unit.
A heat sink is a block of copper aluminum with fins. The fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component to achieve a cooling effect by convection.
A company receives a new printer that needs assembly. What factors should the company consider when assembling it? (Select all that apply.)
Correctly unboxing
Pixel dimension
Overload output trays
Set up location
Set up location
Correctly unboxing
Explanation:
Set up location should be used when deploying a new printer. The printer must have a power outlet and potentially a network data port. The printer needs to be accessible to its users.
Correctly unboxing should be used when setting up the printer. Many printers are heavy and may require two persons to lift safely. A printer should normally be left acclimate after removing the packaging materials.
Pixel dimensions are multiple dots that produce one pixel quoted in pixels per inch to avoid confusion.
Overload output trays will cause paper jams If the output tray is in low capacity, which could quickly happen in a busy office.
What should a software development company utilize to test software applications that must operate under several different OS and resource constraints?
Cross-platform virtualization
Sandbox
Resource requirements
Test development
Cross-platform virtualization
Explanation:
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
A software development company should use a sandbox to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans in a contained environment so that the developers’ systems do not become infected.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
A user is having trouble with their laser printer and notices that the light from the laser is not shining on this part of the printer. What part of the printer has a photosensitive surface?
Imaging drum
Toner
Developer roller
Transfer roller
Imaging drum
Explanation:
An imaging drum is in the charging stage of the laser printer. The imaging drum is a round rotating cylinder conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR).
The toner is charged with a high negative charge and applies to the drum. The laser toner consists of a fine compound of dyestuff and wax or plastic particles.
The developer roller is very close to the photosensitive drum. The toner carries the same negative charge polarity as the drum.
Transfer roller applies a positive charge to the underside of the paper. This causes the toner on the drum to be attracted to the paper.
A user has intermittent problems with a program, and the technician has determined two courses of action. The first solution would take several hours of work and may resolve the problem. The second solution is to reimage the computer. What is the best solution?
Request the user no longer uses the program.
Replace the computer.
After backing up the data, reimage the computer.
Attempt to resolve the problem with the first solution.
After backing up the data, reimage the computer.
Explanation:
Business considerations need to be taken into account when resolving IT problems. However, if reimaging the computer has a high likelihood of fixing the problem, then this is the simplest, most time-effective solution.
The first proposed solution that will take hours of hands-on work, with no guarantee of resolving the issue, does not make business sense as the technician will occupy the user’s computer for hours.
Workarounds are a valid solution to some problems, but assuming the program is critical to a user’s job, this is not a good answer.
Replacing the computer is a worst-case scenario. This is the most expensive option.
A user’s laptop screen is very dim. However, the image becomes bright when the technician attaches an external monitor. What is the problem?
Backlight
Malware
Battery
Video configuration
Backlight
Explanation:
When a backlight fails, the screen will be very dim. The technician has verified that the graphics card is working by connecting the external monitor. Replacing a laptop backlight is generally a warranty repair.
A faulty battery will cause overheating or an inability to hold a charge. A battery exhibiting poor health will not hold a charge.
The image will appear fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution.
The technician should always consider malware when a device acts unexpectedly. However, the technician should not assume malware is the culprit until ruling out hardware problems.
A user has a known problem with a system that is solvable by deleting the local user profile. However, what is the next step before moving forward with that solution?
Check corporate policies.
Perform a backup.
Implement a plan of action.
Formulate a new theory.
Perform a backup.
Explanation:
Deleting the local user profile will remove any information saved to the desktop, so the technician must backup any information saved on it.
Checking corporate policies is a good solution when implementing any changes to a system, but deleting a local user profile does not rise to the level of installing a program or changing network settings.
If the initial solution of deleting the local user profile does not work, then it would be time to formulate a new theory. However, since the technician has not yet tested the initial theory and solution, formulating a new theory is premature.
The technician already has a plan of action, so a new plan of action is not necessary.
A technician needs a cable for 10G Ethernet and higher within a data center network. What type of cable does the technician need?
UTP
STP
Coaxial cable
Direct burial cable
STP
Explanation:
Shielded twisted pair (STP) provides extra protection against interference. This is more reliable than UTP.
Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) is the most popular type of network cable because of the copper wire construction. The electrical signals sent over each pair are balanced.
Coaxial cable is a different type of copper cabling that also carries an electrical signal. Coaxial uses two conductors that share the same axis. Coax cable for CATV installations can use a secret-down F-type connector.
Direct burial cable is laid and then covered in dirt or cement/concrete.
A user is trying to send the audio and video from their computer to a large panel display, but the audio will not play through the large display. The user has a VGA cable connected to the display. What would fix this problem?
Adjust the speaker volume.
Change the audio source in the OS.
Unmute the large display.
Change to an HDMI cable.
Change to an HDMI cable.
Explanation:
A video graphics array (VGA) cable does not carry audio. If the ports allow it, changing to a high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) cable is the easiest solution.
If the speaker volume is too low, either on the computer or on the display, that could be the problem. But the VGA cable is not capable of sending audio.
When correctly cabled, there are several ways that audio can be muted, and all must be checked.
When correctly cabled, the audio source may need to be changed in the OS to have the correct output.
A user is trying to mirror a computer to a large display monitor for a presentation. The computer is on, and the display reads “no input” on the screen. An HDMI cable connects the two devices. What would be the next thing to check?
Replace the bulb.
Change the HDMI cable.
Turn the display on.
Change the display source.
Change the display source.
Explanation:
The computer and the monitor display are on, and a cable connects the two. The next thing to check is to ensure the user chooses the appropriate data source. Generally, a menu on the display will change the data source to the appropriate high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) cable.
The monitor display is already on, indicated by the “no input” on the screen.
The HDMI cable may be the problem, but the more obvious problem is that the user chose the wrong input source on the display screen.
A burned-out bulb is a problem with a light-emitting diode (LED) projector, not a large monitor display.
A user decides to take a coffee break so the cleaning crew can do their job. After returning, the computer has power but no internet. What is a possible cause?
Unclear, escalate to a supervisor.
The latest OS update corrupted their Ethernet adapter.
The cleaners accidentally unplugged the Ethernet cable.
The whole building has lost internet.
The cleaners accidentally unplugged the Ethernet cable.
Explanation:
When gathering the initial information, asking about recent changes can narrow down the problem. For example, the internet was working, but after the cleaners left, it was not working, which narrowed the problem down significantly. Vacuums or brooms can easily unplug Ethernet cords.
Although operating system updates can cause problems, there was no indication that an operating system update occurred during a coffee break.
If the whole building had lost internet services, there would be more complaints from users. An issue with the internet is unlikely to be the problem.
Although escalating to a supervisor is a valid resolution method, the technician must first perform basic troubleshooting steps.
What characteristics of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) allow for increased bandwidth and support for modern networks? (Select all that apply.)
Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access
Designed to work in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
Uplink and downlink MU-MIMO
Designed to work in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access
Uplink and downlink MU-MIMO
Explanation:
Wi-Fi 6 works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. There is emerging development for operation over the 6 GHz band as well (Wi-Fi 6e).
Wi-Fi 6 also adds support for uplink multi-user, multiple input, multiple output (MU-MIMO) along with downlink MU-MIMO. This allows MU-MIMO-capable clients to send data to the access point simultaneously.
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access (OFDMA) can work alongside MU-MIMO to improve client density—sustaining high data rates when more stations connect to the same access point.
Wi-Fi 5 supports up to four simultaneous clients over 5 GHz only, and Wi-Fi 6 can support up to eight clients, giving it better performance in congested areas.
A network engineer is designing an enterprise network for their firm’s new office. This focus on security will require the engineer to consider what fundamental concept when combining wired and wireless devices in an enterprise local area network?
Wi-Fi
Segmentation
Firewall
IEEE 802.11
Segmentation
Explanation:
Segmentation separates devices in various ways to better manage network traffic. Personal wireless devices are constantly coming and going, and it is best to have that section of a network segregated from the rest of the LAN.
IEEE 802.11 is better known by its brand name, Wi-Fi. This is just a set of standards used in implementing a wireless local area network (WLAN).
Wi-Fi is the brand name for the IEEE 802.11 standards used to implement wireless local area networks (WLANs).
Though some companies may use firewall solutions between internal network segments, this is not typical. Firewall technologies can give network engineers granular control over network traffic flow within an enterprise LAN.
A technician responds to a computer intermittently shutting down and finds that the tower has a personal heater blowing on it. What is a likely problem?
Unstable power supply
Malware
Overheating
Hard drive failure
Overheating
Explanation:
The computer is overheating. Even with all the fans working properly, computers cannot have personal space heaters blowing directly on them. Redirecting the heater should resolve the problem.
Intermittent shutdowns can be an indicator of malware, but the physical details in this example do not point to malware as the problem.
A power supply unit (PSU) that is not delivering stable power can cause intermittent shutdowns, but this does not seem to be the problem here. Instead, the space heater is the apparent problem.
Hard drive failure can result in intermittent shutdowns and is diagnosed with OS tools, such as the chkdsk command. However, this is unlikely to be the problem in this case.
What are generic approaches to solving an IT problem?
Repair, replace, workaround
Reimage and start over.
Avoid, repair, remove
Escalate to a supervisor.
Repair, replace, workaround
Explanation:
Three generic approaches to solving IT problems are repair, replace, and workaround. Not all problems are critical, and technicians can find workarounds. Depending on the balance between cost and time, repairing or replacing parts can be the best answer.
Avoiding a problem does not fix them. Repairing the problem can be a viable solution, but removing the problem may not resolve it.
Escalating to a supervisor does not solve problems; it just moves the responsibility.
Reimaging computers is a valid solution to a problem but is not a generic way to describe different approaches to solving IT problems.
