A+ Core 1 Practice Test Flashcards
A vast majority of rural residents in the United States still use this internet connection type that utilizes the public switched telephone network (PSTN).
Wi-Fi
WISP
DSL
Satellite
DSL
A digital subscriber line (DSL) uses the higher frequencies available in copper telephone lines as a communications channel. The two major “flavors” of this type of connection are asymmetrical and symmetrical.
Various satellite internet solutions are available to rural residents, but they do not utilize the PSTN infrastructure.
A wireless internet service provider (WISP) uses ground-based long-range fixed access wireless technology. The WISP installs and maintains a directional antenna to bridge the customer’s network and the service provider.
Wi-Fi is the brand name for the IEEE 802.11 standards used to implement wireless local area networks (WLANs).
Microsoft Word crashes every time it opens, but otherwise, the computer runs fine. What is a reasonable proposed solution?
Replace the RAM.
Replace the PSU.
Uninstall and reinstall the program.
Dust the fan.
**Uninstall and reinstall the program **
Application crashes are difficult to diagnose, but if only a single program continues to crash, it is likely a corrupted program problem. The simplest fix would be to uninstall and then reinstall the program.
A faulty power supply unit (PSU) would result in the entire computer having problems, not just a single program.
Dust buildup can cause overheating in a fan system, but overheating would affect the whole computer, not just one program.
Replacing the random access memory (RAM) would solve a memory problem, but since only one program has issues, it is likely a corrupted program.
A system administrator implemented a physical device that expedites cryptographic operations and manages cryptographic keys. What is this device the system administrator implemented?
TPM
Boot options
HSM
Secure boot
HSM
A hardware security module (HSM) is a secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material.
A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, and hashed passwords.
Boot options define how the system firmware searches devices for a boot manager. It is one of the most important parameters in a system setup.
Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware configuration has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.
What voltage range do appliances such as dryers, heavy-duty power tools, and oven ranges require?
220V
115V
120V
110V
220V
220V is a requirement for appliances because of the high-power range needed to supply them. The power requirement for 200V would be 900 watts of power. This range is typically in commercial applications for large motors and other equipment.
110V is present mainly in portable electronics and small appliances. 110V is typically safer to work with because of the fewer volts.
115V is similar to 110V and rated on a low range that would not support the appliances.
120V is in the same low range as 110V and 115V. 110V, 115V, and 120V have tests to operate at a lower voltage.
The reason that large appliances like clothes dryers, central A/C, and electric ranges is most economic. The units consume a lot of power (Watts). Power can be calculated as Voltage * Current. Bigger wires are required to carry higher currrents. Bigger wires contain more copper. More copper in a wire means you pay more per foot. Therefore in is economical to reduce the amount of current in a circuit. Since Voltage * Current = Power, with two appliances consuming the same amount of power, the one connected to the higher voltage will required less current and smaller wires.
Example: 2 dryers each 4400 Watts. Dryer 1 operates on 110V and dryer 2 operates on 220V.
Dryer 1 requires 4400W / 110 v = 40 Amps
Dryer 2 requires 4400W / 220V = 20 Amps
Both dryers will dry the clothes in the same amount of time, but dryer 2 will work on half the current and, therefore, require smaller, less expensive wires.
A smartphone user tries to connect a new set of earbuds. What is the first step that the user does with the phone?
Enable Bluetooth.
Find a device for pairing.
Enable pairing.
Perform a PRL update.
Enable Bluetooth.
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data and connect to peripherals. Bluetooth needs to be enabled before pairing can begin.
To connect a peripheral device via Bluetooth, the Bluetooth radio on each device must be put into discoverable mode, which is also known as pairing mode.
Once a phone has Bluetooth and pairing mode enabled, a list of nearby devices will be listed for connecting. Selecting a device will begin the pairing process.
Information that a cellular radio needs to connect to a network is provided as a preferred roaming list (PRL). An update would update the list.
An important part of testing a new application is running it under several different OSs and resource constraints so the developer can be sure it will work for all customers regardless of their system. What term is used to identify the application testing described in this question?
Cross-platform virtualization
Resource requirements
Sandbox
Test development
Cross-platform virtualization
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
A sandbox is an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans in a space that prevents the researcher’s computer and network from becoming infected.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some guest OS hypervisor.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
A technician working on a 3-D printer needs to change out a part. The part is either 1.75 mm or 3mm and requires that the extruder be heated to the appropriate temperature to pull as much of the old part out as possible and finally push the new part through. What is this part?
Gear
Filament
Resin
Print bed
Filament
Filament supplies the ‘ink’ of a 3-D printer. The filament spools require careful storage once opened. They should be kept free from heat and humidity.
Stereolithography uses liquid plastic resin or photopolymer to create cured objects using an ultraviolet laser.
The print bed is one of the main components of a fused deposition model (FDM) 3-D printer. Print bed, also known as the build plate, is a flat glass plate that extrudes the material. The bed must be level for each print job, which is usually automated.
Gears enable the precise positioning of the extruder.
A consumer buys the cheapest laptop that they can possibly find. Which component did the consumer choose not to include in the laptop that would help drive down the cost?
Microphone
Speaker
Webcam
Touchpad
Webcam
While just about every laptop has one, it is possible to buy a laptop without a built-in webcam. While the cost-saving may not be significant, having one less component drives down the cost.
Speakers are standard on any modern laptop. Even a budget laptop will include a set of built-in speakers.
A microphone is a standard internal device on a laptop. Even a budget laptop will include a microphone.
A touchpad is a standard component on any laptop. As mouse input is required, even a budget laptop will include a touchpad.
What problem does a screensaver help prevent?
Fuzzy image
Dim image
Stuck pixels
Display burn-in
Display burn-in
When the same static image displays for an extended period, it can damage the monitor’s picture elements, causing a ghost image to “burn” permanently onto the display. An animated screensaver can help prevent this problem.
If the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution, then the image will appear fuzzy.
Incorrect settings or a failed backlight can cause a dim image. Adjusting the brightness and contrast of a display can help fix a dim image.
A flat-panel monitor defect may cause individual pixels to be “stuck” or “dead.” If a digital display panel has stuck pixels, and the panel is not replaceable under warranty, then software utilities are available to reactivate pixels.
A new IT support technician troubleshoots a user’s report of intermittent network connectivity. After inspecting the workstation, they see a label above the station’s RJ-45 port wall connection. This label is likely to identify what device?
Patch panel
Hub
Firewall
Switch
Patch panel
In most types of office cabling, the computer is connected to a wall port and via cabling running through the walls to a patch panel.
A switch is an intermediate system used to establish contention-free network segments at OSI layer 2 (Data Link). A port on a patch panel will connect into a switch to provide office network connectivity.
A hub is a legacy network hardware device that implemented the 10BASE-T and 100BASE-T Ethernet cabling designs. Hubs were used to provide multiple connections to computers in a small area and are inefficient at network management.
A basic firewall has rules that list source or destination network addresses and protocol types and whether to allow or block traffic that matches the rule.
A government organization uses an application that must be accessed via Citrix XenApp. What is the software delivery model being used in this scenario?
Legacy software/OS
Test development
Cross-platform virtualization
Application virtualization
Application virtualization
Application virtualization means that the client either accesses a particular application hosted on a server or streams the application from the server for local processing. Most application virtualization solutions are based on the Citrix XenApp.
Cross-platform utilization tests software applications under different OSs and resource constraints and is important to ensure the application is compatible across several different environments.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
What characteristics of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) allow for increased bandwidth and support for modern networks? (Select all that apply.)
Uplink and downlink MU-MIMO
Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients
Designed to work in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access
Uplink and downlink MU-MIMO
Designed to work in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access
Wi-Fi 6 works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. There is emerging development for operation over the 6 GHz band as well (Wi-Fi 6e).
Wi-Fi 6 also adds support for uplink multi-user, multiple input, multiple output (MU-MIMO) along with downlink MU-MIMO. This allows MU-MIMO-capable clients to send data to the access point simultaneously.
Orthogonal frequency division multiple access (OFDMA) can work alongside MU-MIMO to improve client density—sustaining high data rates when more stations connect to the same access point.
Wi-Fi 5 supports up to four simultaneous clients over 5 GHz only, and Wi-Fi 6 can support up to eight clients, giving it better performance in congested areas.
A user’s Bluetooth keyboard is no longer working after a year. What steps will fix this problem? (Select all that apply.)
Replace the computer battery.
Replace the keyboard battery.
Pair the devices.
Install drivers.
Replace the keyboard battery
Pair the Devices
A wireless keyboard uses a disposable battery for power. After a year, it is likely the battery has run down and needs replacing.
Bluetooth works by pairing two devices. Steps to pair devices will vary, but the user will need to place the keyboard and device in pairing mode. After successful pairing, the user should verify functionality.
Generally, computers do not need Bluetooth drivers installed on them, and this device was working recently.
The computer battery is not the problem. However, the user needs to replace the keyboard battery in this case.
An on-premises data center is moving to a cloud model to take advantage of the many benefits cloud computing offers. One of the most important benefits of this specific data center is handling changes to demand in real-time without degrading services. Which of the following is the most important benefit of migrating this data center to the cloud?
Metered utilization
Shared resources
Rapid elasticity
High availability
Rapid Elasticity
Rapid elasticity refers to the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in real-time without loss of service or performance. Rapid elasticity allows a system to reduce costs when demand is low.
Metered utilization is the per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud, making cloud offerings cheaper or more expensive for an organization, depending on their resource consumption.
Shared resources are incorrect. To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur as a result of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
A startup company does not have the capital to invest in infrastructure to host their website, nor do they have the capital to hire engineers to manage their cloud environment. At this point, strict access control is not a concern for the startup, but they do not want to share resources with other organizations. Which cloud implementation will best suit the startup’s needs?
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud
Public cloud
Public cloud
Public cloud will best meet the startup’s needs because it offers subscriptions and pay-as-you-go finances and can even provide lower-tier services free of charge. Public clouds are also offered over an internet connection by cloud service providers (CSPs).
Private cloud is unnecessary for the startup’s use case because they do not require strict access control in their operations.
Community cloud is incorrect because the startup does not want to share resources with other organizations.
A hybrid cloud is not the best answer because there is potential for resources to be shared among multiple organizations and the requirement to maintain data on-premises, which the startup cannot afford.
A server system uses a method where each transfer performs a hash calculation on the data value and stores it as an 8-bit checksum. This can detect and correct single-bit errors and allow the PC to continue functioning normally. What is this method called?
SODIMM
Virtual RAM
ECC RAM
Dual-channel
ECC RAM
A technician uses error correction code (ECC) RAM for workstations and servers that require high reliability.
Virtual RAM, also called virtual memory, is not just used to supplement RAM with swap space.
Small outline DIMM (SODIMM) is the smaller form factor packaged for laptop RAM. The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45-degree angle to allow the chips to be inserted or removed.
Dual-channel memory controllers effectively have two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that they can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits.
What might be diagnosed by no LED status indicators on a drive?
Bad sectors
Faulty disk
Keyboard issue
Corrupted boot sector
Faulty disk
No LED status indicator lights could indicate that the whole system might not be receiving power or that the individual disk could be faulty.
A read/write error can indicate faulty sectors in a hard disk drive (HDD). Likewise, a power failure or a mechanical fault can damage a sector. If the technician runs a test utility, such as the chkdsk command, and chkdsk locates more bad sectors each time the technician runs the test, it is a sign that the disk is about to fail.
During power-on self-test (POST), three long beeps will indicate a keyboard issue.
The error message, “Boot device not found,” would indicate a corrupted boot sector.
A technician troubleshoots a laptop’s direct connectivity to the organization’s access points connected to an internal network. Troubleshooting starts by removing a screw-down panel to access and examine internal components. Which components does the technician test?
Mini PCIe
mSATA
Wireless card
Modem
Wireless card
A wireless card is an internal component of a laptop that provides Wi-Fi connection capabilities. A wireless card would be seated within the laptop and have an antenna connection.
A modem is a communication device; however, it is not the correct component in this case. The modem would not connect to an access point as detailed in the scenario.
A mini peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) card is a form factor that many adapter cards use. These form factors include wireless cards, Bluetooth cards, and more.
A mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) card is a storage device, like a solid-state drive (SSD). An mSATA uses far less power and has a smaller footprint than a traditional SSD drive.
What features of the cloud allow multiple users to simultaneously access content and work collaboratively while tracking edits by each user?
High availability
File synchronization
Community cloud
Shared resources
File synchronization
File synchronization is an advantage of cloud storage that replicates files between data centers and different devices such as PCs and smartphones. Cloud storage also allows multiple users to access content to work collaboratively simultaneously.
To meet availability, scalability, and elasticity requirements, cloud providers must be able to provision and de-provision resources automatically through the pooling of shared resources and virtualization.
A community cloud is a cloud environment deployed for shared use by cooperating tenants. These tenants usually have similar security and operating concerns.
High availability means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur because of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages.
Users at an organization prefer that any mobile devices deployed for company use have location services disabled. IT administrators agree and configure which option?
Global Positioning System
Preferred roaming list
Global System for Mobile Communication
Mobile data options
Global Positioning System
Global Positioning System (GPS) is a means of determining the device’s latitude and longitude based on information received from orbital satellites via a GPS sensor.
Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.
Information that a cellular radio needs to connect to a network is provided as a preferred roaming list (PRL).
Mobile data options allow a user to enable or disable Wi-Fi, cellular service, Bluetooth, and all services together (known as airplane mode).
A large real estate agency has acquired a new service from their cloud provider called desktop as a service (DaaS). The service will enable the real estate agents to use virtual machines to load their desktops. Which option best describes the service the real estate agency has begun using?
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) on-premises
VDI in the cloud
Public cloud
Private cloud
VDI in the cloud
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in the cloud is often referred to as desktop as a service (DaaS) and enables users to load their desktops from a virtual machine hosted in the cloud.
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) on-premises means that the virtualization server hosting the virtual desktops has been provisioned on the same local network as the clients.
A public cloud is a cloud service offered over the internet by cloud providers to customers who share resources with other customers and pay on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.
Private cloud is completely private to and owned by the organization that pays for the service. The private cloud does not provide VDI services alone.
A company meets with an IT consultant about building a small data center within their facility. The company would house all its servers in this data center, and each server would have local disks set up for all the servers and PCs to share over the network. The consultant would question this method and suggest installing which storage solution into the data center?
SAN
LAN
PAN
SCSI
SAN
A storage area network (SAN) provisions access to a configurable pool of storage devices that application servers can use, isolated from the main network. It is only accessed by servers, not by client PCs and laptops. This would be the best solution for a data center build.
A local area network (LAN) consists of computers connected by cabling and one or more network switches installed at a single geographical location.
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is a legacy standard for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices.
A personal area network (PAN) refers to using wireless connectivity to connect to devices at a range of a few meters.
How can a technician diagnose capacitor swelling?
Slow computer
System diagnostics
Computer that is hot to the touch
Physical inspection
Physical inspection
Capacitors are barrel-like components that regulate the flow of electricity to system chips. Swollen, bulging, or emitting any residue indicates damaged or failed capacitors. The only sure way to diagnose this is visual.
A computer that is hot to the touch can indicate overheating, not capacitor swelling.
A sluggish computer can result from many different problems and is not a diagnostic indicator of capacitor swelling.
System diagnostics can help diagnose software and some hardware problems, and it can also point towards capacitor swelling. However, a physical inspection will still be necessary.
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A network engineer must set up an office’s new wireless access points (APs). After installing the access points, the engineer must ensure they set up the radio signals correctly and that all office areas receive the most efficient signal possible. What tool will the engineer utilize?
Loopback plug
Cable tester
Toner probe
Wi-Fi analyzer
Wi-Fi analyzer
A network engineer can install Wi-Fi analyzer software to record the AP’s associated statistics and detect other access points in the vicinity. This can configure the proper signal strength and channels.
A cable tester is a pair of devices attached to each end of a cable. It tests a patch cord or is connected via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel port to test the permanent link.
A toner probe detects the signal and follows the cable over ceilings and through ducts, or identifies it from the rest of the bundle. This is strictly for physical cabling.
A loopback plug tests a network interface card (NIC) or switch port. This does not test any wireless metric.
A user decides to take a coffee break so the cleaning crew can do their job. After returning, the computer has power but no internet. What is a possible cause?
The cleaners accidentally unplugged the Ethernet cable.
Unclear, escalate to a supervisor.
The latest OS update corrupted their Ethernet adapter.
The whole building has lost internet.
The cleaners accidentally unplugged the Ethernet cable.
When gathering the initial information, asking about recent changes can narrow down the problem. For example, the internet was working, but after the cleaners left, it was not working, which narrowed the problem down significantly. Vacuums or brooms can easily unplug Ethernet cords.
Although operating system updates can cause problems, there was no indication that an operating system update occurred during a coffee break.
If the whole building had lost internet services, there would be more complaints from users. An issue with the internet is unlikely to be the problem.
Although escalating to a supervisor is a valid resolution method, the technician must first perform basic troubleshooting steps.
While trying to set up for a presentation, the wall-mounted display will not mirror the laptop display. The technician traces the long HDMI cable to find that it runs on the floor, and it is evident that users have repeatedly run over it. What will likely fix the problem?
Replace the PSU.
Plug the cable securely in.
Use a new HDMI cable.
Turn on the laptop.
Use a new HDMI cable.
A cable that has physical damage will likely be the cause of the problems. Replacing the high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) cable and finding another way to run the wires to avoid damage in the future will likely solve this problem.
A faulty power supply unit (PSU) on the laptop would not cause problems displaying on a second monitor.
The damaged HDMI cable will likely still not work, even if plugged in securely on both ends.
The laptop is already on since the display on the laptop is visible and not correctly mirroring on the display monitor.
A technician uses a storage device containing non-volatile flash memory to replace the hard drive since the speed is much greater. What is this called?
SSD
NVMe
mSATA
M.2
SSD
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives. Devices are produced in a standard width of 2.5 inches.
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard’s combined data and power port.
NVMe (NVM express) can be packaged for installation to a PCIe slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.
The M.2 adapter card form factor is considerably smaller than a PCIe adapter and is oriented horizontally rather than vertically, so the interface is often used on laptops and PC motherboards.
An IT administrator noticed that the company needs a more secure way to create and store data. What should the IT administrator implement?
HSM
Boot options
TPM
Secure boot
TPM
A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, and hashed passwords.
A hardware security module (HSM) is a secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material.
Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware configuration has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.
Boot options define how the system firmware searches devices for a boot manager. It is one of the most important parameters in a system setup.
A network engineer gets a report that a growing number of wireless devices cannot obtain an IP address from the Wi-Fi network. They can see the network name (SSID) and authentication is successful, but devices say that they cannot obtain an address. What is most likely the problem?
The VLAN for the wireless network cannot be accessed.
The DHCP server has run out of reservations.
DHCP has no more addresses available.
There is no DNS (A) record for the devices.
DHCP has no more addresses available.
This problem is due to the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) having no more addresses available to clients. To solve this, they should extend the scope or shorten the lease time to allow for more address availability.
If users can see and authenticate to the wireless network, access to a virtual LAN (VLAN) is not the problem. The devices can communicate enough to authenticate.
Although a DHCP server may have some reservations for specific hosts, most reservations would not typically take up the entire scope. Adjusting the lease and scope would be the solution in this case.
A device would not have a domain name system (DNS) A record until it obtained an IP address.
A DHCP server is configured with a ‘POOL’ of available I/P addresses if can lease out. When all the addresses in the pull are used, it is called ‘pool exhaustion”. Some remedies would beto:
- Expand the pool of I/P addresses from which to choose (might not be possible)
- Shorten the lease time when an address is assigned.
A network administrator noticed that latency has been higher than their service-level agreement (SLA) covers for quite some time. What should they do?
Check cabling and NICs.
Diagnose with a certifier.
Implement QoS.
Contact the ISP.
Contact the ISP.
If high latency is persistently higher than an agreed service level, contact the internet service provider (ISP) to resolve the issue.
There could be a termination or external interference problem. An advanced type of cable tester called a “certifier” can report detailed information about cable performance and interference.
VoIP call quality can only really be established by using a quality of service (QoS) mechanism across the network.
Port flapping means that the network interface card (NIC) or switch interface transitions continually between up and down states. This is often caused by bad cabling or external interference or a faulty NIC at the host end.
A technician upgrades the memory in a laptop computer. Which interface does the memory have?
PCIe
mSATA
SODIMM
M.2
SODIMM
A smaller form factor called small outline DIMM (SODIMM) packages laptop random access memory (RAM). The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45-degree angle.
A technician can provision a solid-state drive (SSD) in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. An M.2 port is oriented horizontally.
The mini serial advanced technology attachment (mSATA) form factor allows an SSD packaged as an adapter card to plug into the motherboard’s combined data and power port.
Modern SSDs often use the peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus directly. Where SATA uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus, PCIe-based SSDs use the non-volatile memory host controller.
A computer has no display on the screen, and it makes continuous beeps after booting. What is the likely problem?
Keyboard issue
Faulty screen
Power supply error
System memory problem
System memory problem
Not all modern computers use power-on self-test (POST) beep codes, but it is a valuable diagnostic tool. For example, the continuous beep code indicates a problem with system memory modules or memory controllers. This problem can stop the computer from booting or from displaying properly.
The system will indicate a keyboard issue by three long beeps, and the technician can generally solve it by removing whatever is depressing a key.
A faulty screen would result in a blank screen, but it does not give the POST beep code.
A power supply error results in either repeating short beeps or the computer is failing to initiate POST at all.
A user has a TV connected as a presentation monitor but cannot play audio through the TV. The technician has verified that the cables are good and has chosen the correct output. What might fix the problem?
Adjust resolution.
Change to a DVI cable.
Adjust contrast.
Unmute the TV.
Unmute the TV.
There are several avenues to adjust the volume in this setup. The simplest answer may be a muted TV. Finding the remote or on-screen menu to unmute the TV may solve the problem.
Adjusting the resolution will fix a fuzzy picture and has nothing to do with audio issues.
Adjusting the contrast will assist when the screen is too dim, but it does not relate to audio issues.
A digital visual interface (DVI) cable would be incorrect since DVI, and video graphics array (VGA) cables do not carry audio signals. Therefore, the user needs a high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) or DisplayPort cables to carry both audio and video in the same cable.
A user contacts an IT help desk to report a problem with a laptop computer. The complaint is that the laptop is very hot to the touch when typing. The user also states that the laptop does not sit correctly as the bottom of the laptop has a slight bulge. Which component does the help desk technician determine to be the problem?
SSD
Battery
Memory
Keyboard
Battery
Laptop computers use removable, rechargeable Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery packs. Li-ion batteries are typically available in 6-, 9-, or 12-cell versions. A problematic battery can overheat and expand.
A keyboard is an input device. Therefore, a laptop keyboard does not usually overheat. However, the user noticed heat coming from the laptop in this case.
Small outline dual inline memory modules (SODIMMs) package the laptop’s double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDRx SDRAM). Laptop RAM can become very hot; however, it would not cause the battery to expand.
A solid-state drive (SSD) does not get as hot as a traditional magnetic drive. Even so, an SSD would not cause the battery to expand.
An employee uses a device that gives them authentication to release the print job. What is this device?
User authentication
Print server
Badging
Audit log
Badging
Badging means the print device has a smart card reader. An employee must present an ID badge to the reader to start the print job.
A print server is a hardware and firmware that allows client computers to connect directly over the network without going via a server computer.
An audit log can identify printed documents that have gone missing or identify the unauthorized release of information.
A company can configure user authentication on a print share. User authentication means that the printer sharing server or print device will only accept print jobs from authorized user accounts
A computer monitor’s display is so dim it is almost invisible. What is the likely problem?
Dead pixels
Incorrect cables
Failed display backlight
Incorrect resolution
Failed display backlight
If a display’s image is so dim that it is almost invisible, the backlight has probably failed. The technician will need to replace the backlight or get it repaired under warranty.
The image will appear fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution. This fuzzy resolution typically happens if the video card’s driver is faulty or incorrectly configured.
Dead pixels occur when individual pixels stay black. A technician generally cannot fix dead pixels.
Incorrect cables can cause many problems, from flickering screens to audio problems. However, in this case, it is unlikely to be the problem.
After discovering an unlabeled wall port in an office, a technician would like to label it appropriately. Not knowing where the permanent link patches into specifically, they know which IT closet it would run to, as all the other permanent links in the same area run to the same closet. When connecting a laptop, there appears to be a successful connection. Which tool would be most helpful for the technician to use?
Punchdown tool
Cable tester
Cable stripper
Toner probe
Toner probe
A toner probe detects the signal and follows the cable over ceilings and through ducts, or identifies it from the rest of the bundle. A technician uses this along with a tone generator, applying a continuous audio signal on the cable.
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC).
A cable stripper scores the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
A cable tester is a pair of devices designed to attach to each end of a cable. It tests a patch cord or is connected via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel port to test the permanent link.
A user reports that their PC can not access the internet and internal network resources. The user also reports that the internet is intermittent throughout the day. A technician confirmed that the Ethernet cable is connected securely to the PC and the wall port. What tool should an engineer bring with them to investigate this further?
Punchdown tool
Cable tester
Snips
Cable stripper
Cable tester
A cable tester is a pair of devices that attach to each end of a cable. It tests a patch cord or connects via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel port to test the permanent link.
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC). There is no punching down wires into a block in this scenario. This will only be required if the cable tester shows a fault in the permanent link.
A cable stripper scores the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
Snips would cut the cable and trim the ripcord and the start filler inside the cable, should this process be necessary after testing the patch cable and permanent link.
A network administrator is looking at a user’s box which seems to have intermittent connectivity issues. Which of the following should they do first?
Analyze network congestion.
Check the physcial cords.
See if it received a DHCP lease.
Check nominal link speed.
Check the physcial cords.
The first step in resolving a no or intermittent connectivity issue is to check that the patch cords are properly terminated and connected to the network ports.
If a user reports slow speed, establish that there is a link speed problem by checking the nominal link speed and using a utility to measure transfer rate independent of specific apps or network services.
Jitter is typically caused by network congestion affecting packet processing on routers and switches.
In Windows, a limited connectivity message specifically means that the host can establish a physical connection to the network but has not received a lease for an IP configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
Which type of DDR RAM have non-ECC and ECC types?
DDR4
DDR3
DDR5
SODIMM
DDR5
Double Data Rate 5 (DDR5) implements a form of error checking internally to the module. This is not the same as the ECC implemented by the memory controller, where the CPU communicates the error information. This can come as a non-ECC or ECC.
DDR4 is a synchronous dynamic random-access memory with a high bandwidth interface and a transfer rate of 12.8 to 25.6 GB/s and a maximum size of 32 GB.
DDR3 is a synchronous dynamic random-access memory with a high bandwidth interface and a transfer rate of 6.4to 17.066 GB/s and a maximum size of 8 GB.
Small outline DIMM (SODIMM) is the smaller form factor packaged for laptop RAM.
An organization rolls out a security update that utilizes either a contactless smart card reader or a fingerprint scanner for login to mobile devices. What type of security implementations is the organization allowing for user logins? (Select all that apply.)
Wi-Fi 6
Bluetooth
Near-field
Biometrics
Near-field &
Biometrics
A biometric sensor allows users to record a template of a feature of their body that is unique to them. On a laptop, this is typically a fingerprint scanner.
A near-field communication (NFC) scanner is an authentication mechanism. It may also pair peripheral devices or establish a connection to a smart device.
Smart card readers do not use Bluetooth and typically connect peripheral devices to PCs and mobiles. Smart card readers also share data between two systems.
Wi-Fi 6 works in both the current 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands and adds support for a new 6 GHz frequency band. However, it is not applicable in this scenario.
A government organization wants to develop their own application to process information, but they do not want to be responsible for maintaining the hardware or the database platform that the application runs on. Additionally, the organization does not want to be burdened with maintaining the integrity and availability of the database platform because they will be very busy with other responsibilities. Which service would be best for the government organization to pursue?
Shared resources
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
Platform as a service (PaaS)
Community cloud
Platform as a service (PaaS)
Platform as a service (PaaS) is correct. PaaS would provide IT hardware and the database platform on top of the hardware, but the customer must develop their app to run on top of the platform. The service provider will maintain the integrity and the availability of the platform for the customer.
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is incorrect because it will only provide IT hardware management for the customer.
Software as a service (SaaS) is incorrect because the organization will be developing its application.
Shared resources are not a service that can be purchased. Service providers can provide services using shared resources to lower the cost to the customer.
A developer asks that any network requests made to the host name dev23.company.net get directed to a specific IP address of 10.130.25.15. What type of record will the developer need to create?
(MX) record
(AAAA) record
(A) record
(TXT) record
(A) record
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an A record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address. This will be the record type that the developer will need to create on the DNS server.
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an AAAA record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address. The IP address in this scenario is IPv4.
A mail exchange (MX) record will identify an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.
A TXT record stores any free-form text that they may need to support other network services. They are most commonly used to verify email services and block the transmission of spoofed and unwanted messages.
A user complains their phone is not responding to touch. What is the likely culprit?
Faulty digitizer
Faulty battery
Damaged port
Overheating phone
Faulty digitizer
A touch screen can also be referred to as a digitizer due to the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. A faulty digitizer will cause the touch screen to stop working.
When a phone no longer holds a charge for a reasonable amount of time, the user should suspect a faulty battery. The issue can be a damaged battery or it is simply at the end of its life.
The main symptom of overheating will be that the device is almost too hot to touch. As well, overheating can sometimes cause the phone to turn off.
A damaged port will have intermittent or no connectivity. This issue can occur when charging or using other accessories, such as headphones.
A technician suspects a mobile device to have liquid damage. What should the technician do first?
Request a warranty replacement.
Power off the device.
Replace the screen.
Replace the battery.
Power off the device.
The technician should power off the device to avoid further damage and remove any excess liquid. Next, the technician must disassemble the device to dry the internal components when exposed to liquid.
The technician will need to replace the battery when a device has liquid damage; however, this is not the first step.
Sometimes liquid damage can result in seeing liquid under the screen. This does not necessarily mean that the screen needs replacing; sometimes, it just needs to dry out.
Depending on the warranty policy, a warranty replacement for water damage to a mobile device may be appropriate. However, the first step will be to power down the device before moving forward.
A company is looking for computers with accelerated graphic capabilities and large, high-resolution monitors. Which of the following would meet the company’s needs?
Workstation
Mobile
Desktop
Server-class
Workstation
The workstation is a high-performance PC, such as one used for software development or graphics/video editing. Any business PC or network client can be a workstation.
Desktop is shorthand for a basic PC used at home or in the office. Computer cases sit horizontally on a desk rather than the vertical towers or all-in-one configurations used today.
Server-class computers must manage more demanding workloads than most desktops and operate to greater reliability standards.
Mobiles use Advanced RISC Machine (ARM)-based central processing units (CPUs) that prioritize power and thermal efficiency plus weight over pure performance. Mobile CPUs tend to use different socket form factors to desktops.
A company looks into security controls for an entryway into a building. The chosen solution will use a chip for data transmission and another chip for receiving data over the air. Which solution uses this technique?
Retina scanner
Biometrics
Keypad
Near-field
Near-field
Near-field communication (NFC) technology allows very short-range data transmission (less than 1 foot) to activate a receiver chip in the contactless reader. For example, a smart proximity card uses NFC.
Biometrics refers to authentication while using a person’s traits. Biometrics include fingerprint readers and voice recognition.
A retina scanner is a biometric authentication device that uses a scan of an individual’s eye to allow access to a location or system. The individual’s retina pattern must match the biometric authentication device to gain access to a location or system.
A keypad is a hardware device that uses a combination of digits and a passcode for entry access.
What measures the PSU to meet the combined power requirements of the PC’s components?
Redundant power supply
Wattage rating
Modular power supply
Heat sink
Wattage rating
The wattage rating measures the power supply unit’s (PSU’s) output capability. Depending on the model, CPUs can range from 17 W to over 100 W. The power output is not the same as the PSU’s power from grid power.
A redundant power supply requires a compatible motherboard. This configuration is more common in server systems than on desktop PCs. Typically, each PSU plugs into a backplane on a server and is hot-swappable.
A modular power supply has power connector cables that are detachable from the unit.
A heat sink is a block of copper aluminum with fins. The fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component to achieve a cooling effect by convection.
A technician wants to install a non-standard program on a user’s computer to solve a problem. What does the technician need to consult before installing the program?
The user
Vendor solutions
Social media
Corporate policies
Corporate policies
Before making any changes to a system, consult the corporate policies and procedures. For example, some systems allow installing all software, while others have limited lists of accepted programs to install on the user’s computers.
Before posting any information on social media, it is imperative to get permission from supervisors. In this case, any answers received from social media would likely not apply to the particular system.
Before bringing a possible solution to the user, ensure that the solution falls within the acceptable corporate policies and procedures.
Vendor-specific documentation can provide possible solutions to a problem, but that solution is not relevant if it falls outside the corporate policies and procedures.
A user notices that their laser printer is not working and is causing an error. When the technician looks at the printer, they notice that the user was using thick paper, causing a part of the printer to overheat. Which part of the printer has overheated?
Fuser unit
Pickup roller
Transfer roller
Developer roller
Developer roller
The paper passes through the fuser assembly after passing through the transfer assembly. The fuser unit squeezes the paper between a hot roller and a pressure roller so that the toner melts onto the paper’s surface.
The transfer roller applies a positive charge to the underside of the paper. This causes the toner on the drum to be attracted to the paper. This avoids the paper sticking to the drum or curling as it enters the fuser unit.
The pickup roller turns against the paper stack, pushing the paper into a feed and separation roller assembly.
The developer roller is a magnetized roller located very close to the photosensitive drum.
A basic firewall configuration has rules, referred to as network access control lists (ACLs). What are the basic properties needed for a firewall ACL to implement the desired security features configured? (Select all that apply.)
Block/Allow property
MAC address
Protocol
Source and destination network/device
Block/Allow property, Protocol, and Source and destination network/device
The ACL requires source and destination network or device for the firewall to know what networks and devices are allowed to communicate with each other.
A protocol needs to be defined in an ACL to narrow the scope of network traffic managed by the ACL.
The network technician can set the ACL to either allow or block specific protocols and traffic between various sources and destination networks and devices.
Firewalls typically manage network traffic at a different layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, and MAC addresses are usually not found in traditional firewall ACLs.
A laptop user has a slim laptop that has very few external ports. As there is no Ethernet port on the laptop, it only uses wireless. The user would like a low-cost solution that allows for an Ethernet connection when not traveling. What does IT purchase for the user?
Lightning cord
Serial connection
Docking station
Port replicator
Port replicator
A port replicator either attaches to a special connector on the back or underside of a laptop or is connected via USB. It provides a full complement of ports for devices such as keyboards, monitors, mice, and network connections.
A docking station is a sophisticated port replicator. When docked, a portable computer can function like a desktop machine or use additional features, such as a full-size expansion card.
Most iPhone and iPad Apple devices use the proprietary Lightning connector. This would be for connecting an iOS device for purposes including charging.
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used.
Users at an organization rely heavily on attending online meetings with clients and customers. The IT department purchases new laptops for these users to support conferencing needs. What component does IT ensure the laptop has when the specification is 1080p?
Webcam
Microphone
Headset
Speaker
Webcam
A webcam allows for video recording or web conferencing and can also take still pictures. A good external or internal webcam will have a 1080p resolution.
Mobile devices feature integrated audio/video input and output devices. For example, a microphone records audio for voice calling and web conferencing.
Speakers produce audio output. Speakers can be an internal or external component and can vary in sound quality.
An external headset or earbud set provides both a speaker microphone and headphone speakers. Wired headsets use either the 3.5 mm audio jack or a USB/Lightning connector.
A user has a known problem with a system that is solvable by deleting the local user profile. However, what is the next step before moving forward with that solution?
Perform a backup.
Formulate a new theory.
Check corporate policies.
Implement a plan of action.
Perform a backup.
Deleting the local user profile will remove any information saved to the desktop, so the technician must backup any information saved on it.
Checking corporate policies is a good solution when implementing any changes to a system, but deleting a local user profile does not rise to the level of installing a program or changing network settings.
If the initial solution of deleting the local user profile does not work, then it would be time to formulate a new theory. However, since the technician has not yet tested the initial theory and solution, formulating a new theory is premature.
The technician already has a plan of action, so a new plan of action is not necessary.
An automobile allows for connecting a smartphone or tablet for entertainment and audio purposes. Pairing the two occurs with which technology?
Wi-Fi
Hotspot
Bluetooth
NFC
Bluetooth
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. The connection occurs through what is known as pairing.
Many mobile devices have near-field communication (NFC) chips built in. NFC allows for very short-range data transmission (up to about 20 cm/8 in.) to activate a receiver chip in a contactless reader.
A smartphone or tablet can be configured as a personal hotspot to share its cellular data connection with other computer devices.
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.
user has a newly issued smartphone that has corporate communication software installed. What can the user expect to sync while using Microsoft Exchange?
Contacts
Texts
Calendar
Most email systems store messages on the server, and the client device is used to manage them. A client device that uses technology such as ActiveSync can store a local copy.
A contact is a record with fields for name, address, email address(es), phone numbers, notes, and more. Contacts are synced with Exchange ActiveSync.
A calendar item is a record with fields for appointment or task information, such as subject, date, location, and participants. Calendars are synced with Exchange ActiveSync.
Texts are messages that are sent via cellular service. While there are sync methods available, they are not synced with Exchange.
A consumer that is new to iOS devices does not understand what type of cable is required to charge a new iPhone. The consumer would like an extra cable to keep in a home office. What type of proprietary cable does the consumer look to purchase?
Serial
Lightning
USB
LCD
Lightning
Most iPhone and iPad Apple devices use the proprietary Lightning connector. Some of the latest iPad models, such as the iPad Pro, use USB-C.
Modern Android-based smartphones and tablets use the USB-C connector for wired peripherals and charging. The Micro-B USB and Mini-B connector form factors are only found on old devices.
Serial is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used for programming and connectivity.
Most mobile devices use a flat-panel screen technology based on a type of liquid crystal display (LCD). A liquid crystal display is not a cable type.
A user noticed that their PC is generating more heat than can be removed, and the one component designed to draw cool air from the low vents in the front of the case over the motherboard is not working. What is the impacted component?
Heat sink
Fan
Liquid-base cooling system
Thermal paste
Fan
A fan improves airflow that helps to dissipate heat. Fans provide the power supply and chassis exhaust points.
A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins. The fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component to achieve a cooling effect by convection.
Thermal paste glues the heat sink to the surface of the chip to ensure the best transfer of heat by eliminating small air gaps.
A liquid-based cooling system refers to a system of pumping water around the chassis. The water loop/tubing and pump push the coolant added via the reservoir around the system.
While trying to resolve a computer that will not boot, a technician notices that the monitor’s LED indicators are not on. Both devices plug into the same power strip. What could be the problem?
The PSU is not working.
The PSU cable is not plugged in.
There is a wider power failure.
The power strip is off.
The power strip is off.
Although the other answers are plausible reasons why a computer may not get power, the details in the scenario point towards a simple answer, the power strip is likely off, or the outlet is not working.
A wider power failure would explain why the computer is not booting, but there is no indication that the lights are off in the room.
An unplugged cable or a cable not completely plugged in should be the first thing to check. However, since the monitor is also not getting power, this is unlikely the cause.
The power supply unit (PSU) not working would be the last thing to investigate. The technician needs to eliminate the simpler answers first.
What does SMART measure as a performance indicator?
POST
IOPS
BSOD
RAID
IOPS
Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) tools measure input/output operations per second (IOPS), comparing them against manufacturer baselines to determine if a drive is failing.
A Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) array is generally a collection of storage devices meant to protect against data loss. RAID has nothing to do with SMART performance measures.
System firmware performs the power-on self-test (POST) that checks whether the system hardware is present and working.
Blue screen of death (BSOD) is the Windows proprietary crash screen that typically indicates a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files.
A systems engineer is doing an internal audit of their virtual environment before an annual inspection and is making sure that all the virtual machines are up to date on patches. What could the systems engineer consult to verify which patches need to be on each machine?
Security requirements
Test development
Legacy software/OS
Resource requirements
Security requirements
Security requirements are correct because patching is a part of ensuring a system is secure against the latest vulnerabilities.
Resource requirements are important to consider and meet when setting up a virtualized system and network for virtualized systems to use. If the system is not designed with resource requirements in mind, it will be overwhelmed and dysfunctional.
Test development often uses virtual desktop platforms that are based on some sort of guest OS hypervisor.
Legacy software applications and operating systems may not perform well if a user’s system has been upgraded.
What are generic approaches to solving an IT problem?
Avoid, repair, remove
Repair, replace, workaround
Escalate to a supervisor.
Reimage and start over.
Repair, replace, workaround
Three generic approaches to solving IT problems are repair, replace, and workaround. Not all problems are critical, and technicians can find workarounds. Depending on the balance between cost and time, repairing or replacing parts can be the best answer.
Avoiding a problem does not fix them. Repairing the problem can be a viable solution, but removing the problem may not resolve it.
Escalating to a supervisor does not solve problems; it just moves the responsibility.
Reimaging computers is a valid solution to a problem but is not a generic way to describe different approaches to solving IT problems.
A student borrows an external hard drive from a friend but cannot see the drive in Windows Explorer. The friend’s computer is a Mac. What is the problem?
Incompatible file structures
Bad sectors
Faulty connectors
Faulty boot sector
Incompatible file structures
Mac and Windows file systems are not natively compatible with each other. The Windows device will not recognize the Mac-formatted external drive.
A faulty boot sector can be a problem if the boot drive does not initiate. In this example, this is a secondary external drive, which does not need to boot the operating system.
When trying to open or save a file, bad sectors can cause the error message, “Cannot read from the source disk.”
The external drive still needs to connect to the computer and could possibly be faulty. However, the incompatibility between file systems is still the most likely problem.
This protocol makes a secure connection to the graphical interface of another computer and uses TCP port 3389.
Trivial File Transfer Protocol
Server Message Block
Remote Desktop Protocol
Simple Network Management Protocol
Remote Desktop Protocol
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) makes a secure connection to the graphical desktop of a remote computer and uses TCP port 3389.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) queries status information from network devices and uses UDP port 161. SNMP traps information sent to a management server utilizing UDP port 162.
Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks. SMB usually runs directly over TCP port 445.
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simplified form of FTP supporting only file copying and uses UDP port 69.
A computer monitor keeps flickering. The technician has checked the connectors and replaced the cords, yet the problem continues. The technician connects the display to another computer, and the flickering problem is gone. What is the likely problem?
Incorrect resolution
Incorrect contrast controls
Failing display
Faulty video card
Faulty video card
A faulty or overheating video card could cause a flickering screen. Attaching the display device to a different computer isolates the cause of the issue.
Since the flickering stopped when connected to a different computer, the display is not the problem. If the display were failing, it would also likely include bright or dim bands or lines and bright spots at the edge of the screen.
An incorrect resolution will cause a blurry image but not a flickering image.
Incorrect contrast controls can cause a dim image, but not a flickering image.
What kind of storage media can have grinding and clicking as a diagnostic tool?
NVRAM
HDD
RAM
SSD
HDD
A hard disk drive (HDD) has moving platters and arms. These mechanical parts can start making grinding or clicking noises as they fail.
A solid-state device (SSD) does not have moving parts. Instead, SSD uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. As a result, risks from failure due to mechanical shock and fear are generally lower.
Random access memory (RAM) does not have moving parts to fail. RAM is the nonpersistent memory used for running programs and open data files.
Non-volatile read access memory (NVRAM) does not have moving parts to fail.
A technician builds a computer using the most common form factor measuring 12 x 9.6 inches and has up to seven expansion slots. What form factor is the technician using?
BTX
SAN
ATX
ITX
ATX
An advanced technology extended (ATX) specifies the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboards.
Information technology extended (ITX) has two designs: the mini-ITX and the mobile-ITX. The mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square with one expansion slot. Technicians can mount most mini-ITX boards in ATX cases.
A storage area network (SAN) is more flexible and reliable than using local disks on each server machine. It provides access to a configurable group of storage devices that application servers can use.
A balanced technology extended (BTX) improves ATX since it has better airflow.
An IT technician installs a solid-state drive (SSD) into a motherboard connector that enables high-performance storage and is oriented horizontally. What has the IT technician installed?
M.2
SATA
eSATA
PCI
M.2
M.2 adapters can be of different lengths. The adapter card is inserted at an angle and then pushed into place and secured with a screw.
Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) ports connect to one or more fixed drives. Technicians can also use SATA to connect removable drives, such as tape and optical drives.
External SATA (eSATA) is a standard for attaching external drives, with a 2 m (78 in.) cable.
A peripheral component interconnect (PCI) is a legacy bus type superseded by PCI Express. PCI ports can be included on a PCIe motherboard to support legacy adapter cards, but PCI cards cannot fit into PCIe slots.
A tier one helpdesk technician receives a corporate cellphone with a broken screen. What is the first step?
Replace the charging cable.
Replace the screen.
Open the phone to check for liquid damage.
Check if the phone is under warranty.
Check if the phone is under warranty.
Mobile devices are easy to drop, and screens can crack or shatter. This is likely to require warranty or professional services to repair it.
If there are no visible cracks, the screen or digitizer may have been damaged by liquid. But the screen is visibly cracked in this question.
Mobile devices are likely to require warranty or professional services to replace parts, such as a broken screen. Replacing parts outside the warranty can void the contract.
If a cellphone is having trouble charging, then replacing the charging cable can help isolate the problem. There is no indication of a charging problem in the scenario.
A cloud service provider (CSP) works with several organizations to establish new cloud deployments that best match their needs. Each organization has similar security needs and is open to sharing resources with other organizations to save money. Which cloud deployment sounds best for the CSP’s new customers?
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Community cloud
Public cloud
Community cloud
The community will be the best deployment model for the CSP’s new customers. A community cloud allows several organizations to share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud by pooling resources for common concerns, such as standardization and security policies.
Private cloud is incorrect because it does not allow for sharing cloud resources with organizations.
Hybrid cloud deployment is not the best choice for the CSP’s new customers because the customers want to share resources full-time.
The public cloud is incorrect because the CSP’s customers still want a private cloud to share with organizations with the same security concerns.
What characteristics of Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) allow for increased bandwidth and support for modern networks? (Select all that apply.)
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
Designed to work in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
Designed to work only in the 5 GHz band
Downlink MU-MIMO
Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients
Designed to work only in the 5 GHz band
Downlink MU-MIMO
**
Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients**
Wi-Fi 5 works only in the 5 GHz band. A dual-band access point can use its 2.4 GHz radio to support clients on legacy standards (802.11g/n), but it will not support Wi-Fi 5 on that 2.4 GHz band.
In Wi-Fi 5, downlink multi-user, multiple input, multiple output (DL MU-MIMO) allows the access point to use its multiple antennas to simultaneously send data to up to four clients.
Wi-Fi 5 allows up to eight streams, though most Wi-Fi 5 access points only support 4x4 streams in practice.
Wi-Fi 6 works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. This is not a characteristic of Wi-Fi 5.
A technician needs a connector that offers high-speed standards that specify a data rate of 480 Mbps shared between the devices attached to the same host controller. What connector should the technician use?
Lightning port
HDMI
USB 3.0
USB 2.0
USB 2.0
USB 2.0 is half-duplex, which means that each device can send or receive, but not simultaneously.
USB 3.0 has new versions of Type A, Type B, and Type B Micro connectors with additional signaling and wires. This allows a device to send and receive simultaneously.
The Lightning port is found only on Apple’s mobile devices. The Lightning connector is reversible. The user needs a suitable adapter cable to connect such a device as a Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) can rate as either standard or high speed. It provides high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source.
Each Ethernet network interface card (NIC) port has a unique hardware/physical identifier used for network routing and switching. What is this unique hardware or physical identifier?
Service set identifier
Media access control address
VLAN ID
Internet protocol address
Media access control address
Every NIC port has a unique hardware/physical address, called the media access control (MAC) address. Each frame of Ethernet data identifies the source MAC address and destination MAC address in a header field.
The core protocol in TCP/IP is the Internet Protocol (IP), which provides network and host addressing and packet forwarding between networks. This is not specific to the hardware.
A service set identifier (SSID) is a character string that identifies a particular wireless LAN (WLAN).
VLAN IDs are on network switch ports for traffic management and network segmentation. These are assigned by software and not native to the hardware.
A user reports that their reporting resource is not working. They mentioned an error message that they did not write down but are certain that a “HTTP request failed” was a part of the error. What specialized support team will the user contact to resolve this issue?
Mail server team
File server team
Print server team
Web server team
Web server team
A web server provides client access using HTTP or its secure version (HTTPS). Given the limited information, this would be the first team to reach out to.
Mail servers primarily use Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which specifies how the user delivers an email from one mail domain to another domain.
Print servers rely heavily on Server Message Block (SMB) protocol for file and printer sharing on a Windows network.
File servers also rely heavily on Server Message Block (SMB) protocol for file and printer sharing on a Windows network.
The software-defined networking (SDN) model consists of multiple layers for networking functions that can be accessed and managed via scripting and automation. Which of the following are layers within the SDN model? (Select all that apply.)
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
Application layer
Infrastructure layer
Control layer
Internet layer
Application layer
Infrastructure layer
Control layer
The application layer applies business logic to decide how to prioritize and secure traffic and where to switch the traffic.
The control layer is the principal innovation of SDN as it interfaces between the application and infrastructure layers and acts as a controller for the automation of networking functions via APIs.
The infrastructure layer contains the devices (physical or virtual) that handle the actual forwarding (switching and routing) of traffic.
The Internet Protocol (IP) layer is a function of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that provides packet addressing and routing within a network of networks. Though this functions within the SDN, it is not a main software-defined networking layer.
A technician uses an interface that enables storage access and transport to deliver high throughput and fast response time. What is this called?
HDD
NVMe
SSD
mSATA
NVMe
NVMe (NVM express) can be packaged for installation to a PCIe slot as an expansion card or an M.2 slot.
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Flash memory performs much better than the mechanical components used in hard drives.
A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. Desktops use a width of 3.5 inches, and a laptop uses 2.5 inches.
A mini-serial ATA (mSATA) allows a technician to plug an SSD packaged as an adapter card into the motherboard’s combined data and power port.
What can a technician use on a 20-pin main power connector for the motherboard? (Select all that apply.)
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
8-pin x2 and 4-pin x1
4-pin x5
20-pin
24-pin
20-pin
24-pin
The technician can use a 20-pin main power adapter for the motherboard. This is the adapter that was specifically made for it.
A 24-pin adapter supplies power to the motherboard but can connect in a 20-pin. In most cases a 24-pin adapter has 4 pins that are detachable. This is not always 100% the case though.
4-pin x5 adapters would not work with the 20-pin main power connector. 4-pin connectors typically connect to case fans and other accessories devices.
A technician cannot use 8-pin x2 and 4-pin x 1. 8-pin for all multi-core processors use this connector since some power supplies have two 4-pin connectors that they can use side by side.
A managed service company works with a client to enumerate and gather all the detailed events, errors, and notifications produced from various network devices. What solution would the company suggest in this particular case?
Syslog appliance
AAA server
Load balancer
Remote Desktop Protocol
Syslog appliance
Syslog is an example of a protocol and supporting software that facilitates log collection. It has become a de-facto standard for logging events from distributed systems. A Syslog collector usually listens on UDP port 514.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is Microsoft’s protocol for operating remote GUI connections to a Windows machine. RDP uses TCP port 3389.
An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is the authentication server positioned within the local network. With AAA, the network access appliances do not store any authentication credentials.
A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool. A technician can use it when multiple servers provide the same function.
This protocol makes files available for download across a network and uses ports 20 and 21.
Telnet
File Transfer Protocol
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Secure Shell
File Transfer Protocol
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) makes files available for download across a network. It utilizes two ports. TCP Port 21 establishes the connection between two computers (control connection), and TCP port 20 is the port the file(s) are transferred across (data connection).
Secure Shell (SSH) makes a secure connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 22.
Telnet makes an unsecured connection to the command-line interface of a remote server and uses TCP port 23.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) transfers email messages across a network and uses TCP port 25.
What type of printer uses a heating element to create the image on the paper?
Laser
Inkjet
Thermal
Impact
Thermal
A thermal printer is a general term for any device that uses a heating element to create paper images. Thermal printers have a heat-sensitive print that the paper is friction-fed through the print mechanism when in the feed assembly.
Laser printers are the most popular printer technologies for office applications because they are inexpensive, quiet, and fast.
Inkjet printers typically create good-quality color output, such as photo printing. Inkjet is cheap to buy but expensive to run.
Impact printer strikes an inked ribbon against the paper to leave marks. The most common type is the dot matrix printer.
An IPv6 address is composed of which two main parts? (Select all that apply.)
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
Dynamic address
Interface ID
Static address
Network ID
Interface ID
Network ID
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The first 64 bits are a network ID.
An IPv6 address is in two main parts. The second 64 bits designate a specific interface.
Using static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to enter the configuration information for that host manually. This is traditionally only used for IPv4 addresses.
A host can receive its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server as an alternative to static configuration. This is also used traditionally with only IPv4 addresses.
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A growing company is looking to move away from an outside vendor for payment processing and would like to do it in-house. As a part of securing the data on these computers, what foundational infrastructure solution should the company implement to keep this data separate from the rest of the company’s internal network?
Virtual LAN
DHCP scope
Virtual private network
DNS (A) record
Virtual LAN
A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical network segment using a feature of managed switches to segregate network traffic. This would be the first step to separating network traffic for the given scenario.
A virtual private network (VPN) enables mostly remote hosts to connect to the LAN without being physically installed at the site.
In the Domain Name System (DNS), an A record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address. This would not provide any added security.
A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) scope is a range of consecutive IP addresses in the same subnet that a DHCP server can lease to clients. The company may not use this if all the hosts have static addresses.
What hardware on a client’s computer allows a device and printer to connect over a network?
Print server
Printer share
Secured prints
Audit log
Print server
A print server is a hardware and firmware that allows client computers to connect directly over the network without going via a server computer.
The print share model describes how multiple client devices access the printer. Ordinary users can connect to a network printer if the print server administrator grants permission to use it.
Secured print is held on the print device until it authenticates directly with the print devices. This mitigates the risk of intercepting confidential information from the output tray before the user has had time to collect it.
An audit log can identify printed documents that have gone missing or identify the unauthorized release of information.
If a computer produces digital art, what special process will it require?
Color calibration
Adjust resolution
Use a screensaver.
Adjust brightness and contrast controls.
Color calibration
Color calibration is the process of adjusting screen and scanner settings to balance color input and output. A technician should configure color settings with the assistance of a color profile.
Incorrect settings or a failed backlight can cause a dim image. Adjusting brightness and contrast controls can resolve any problems with dim images.
A user needs to adjust the resolution for a display if it is fuzzy. An image appears fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution.
When the same static image displays for an extended period, it can damage the monitor’s picture elements, causing a ghost image to “burn” permanently onto the display. An animated screensaver can help prevent this problem.
Users reported an incident where they could not connect to network shares on a specific file server but could utilize all other resources and the internet. After logging into the server locally to check, it seems to be up and connected to the network. There is no response after going to a user’s station and using the ping command to contact the server by the documented IP address. What should be the issue to investigate next?
Check to see if the user workstation has been given an APIPA address.
Check the server’s IP address. It may have a DHCP-provisioned address instead of a static address.
Check the user’s default gateway to ensure it can communicate to remote networks.
Ensure the server has a Class A IPv4 address.
Check the server’s IP address. It may have a DHCP-provisioned address instead of a static address.
If the server locally appears online and connected, it has an address, but likely one provisioned from DHCP if workstations cannot ping the server by the documented IP address.
The user workstation would not likely reach all other resources if it had an APIPA address.
If the user station can connect to other resources, especially the internet, there is likely no issue with the gateway.
It may not be a Class A address, depending on the type of network structure. A technician can also use class B and C addresses for private addressing.
A user’s laptop screen is very dim. However, the image becomes bright when the technician attaches an external monitor. What is the problem?
Backlight
Video configuration
Malware
Battery
Backlight
When a backlight fails, the screen will be very dim. The technician has verified that the graphics card is working by connecting the external monitor. Replacing a laptop backlight is generally a warranty repair.
A faulty battery will cause overheating or an inability to hold a charge. A battery exhibiting poor health will not hold a charge.
The image will appear fuzzy if the output resolution does not match the display device’s native resolution.
The technician should always consider malware when a device acts unexpectedly. However, the technician should not assume malware is the culprit until ruling out hardware problems.
After discovering an unlabeled wall port in an office, a technician would like to label it appropriately. Not knowing where the permanent link patches into specifically, they know which IT closet it would run to, as all the other permanent links in the same area run to the same closet. When connecting a laptop, there appears to be a successful connection. Which tool would be most helpful for the technician to use?
Toner probe
Punchdown tool
Cable tester
Cable stripper
Toner probe
A toner probe detects the signal and follows the cable over ceilings and through ducts, or identifies it from the rest of the bundle. A technician uses this along with a tone generator, applying a continuous audio signal on the cable.
A punchdown tool fixes each conductor into an insulation displacement connector (IDC).
A cable stripper scores the outer jacket just enough to remove it.
A cable tester is a pair of devices designed to attach to each end of a cable. It tests a patch cord or is connected via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel port to test the permanent link.
A company has a structured cable system installed by a technician. The technician uses a permanent cable that terminates to wall ports and patch panels. What is this mechanism called?
T568A
RJ11
Punchdown block
RJ45
Punchdown block
A punchdown block is a mechanism used to terminate wires. A technician can use RJ45 to terminate twisted pair cabling for Ethernet.
RJ45 connectors are also known as “8P8C.” Each conductor is a four-pair Ethernet cable that is color-coded.
RJ11 typically terminates a two-pair cable used in the telephone systems and with DSL modems.
T568A is a twisted pair that a technician can use in the TIA/EIA-568. In T568A, the technician wires pin 1 to green/white, wires pin 2 to green, wires pine 3 to orange/white, and wires pin 6 to orange.
Each Ethernet network interface card (NIC) port has a unique hardware/physical identifier used for network routing and switching. What is this unique hardware or physical identifier?
Media access control address
VLAN ID
Service set identifier
Internet protocol address
Media access control address
Every NIC port has a unique hardware/physical address, called the media access control (MAC) address. Each frame of Ethernet data identifies the source MAC address and destination MAC address in a header field.
The core protocol in TCP/IP is the Internet Protocol (IP), which provides network and host addressing and packet forwarding between networks. This is not specific to the hardware.
A service set identifier (SSID) is a character string that identifies a particular wireless LAN (WLAN).
VLAN IDs are on network switch ports for traffic management and network segmentation. These are assigned by software and not native to the hardware.
A user is having trouble with their laser printer and notices that the light from the laser is not shining on this part of the printer. What part of the printer has a photosensitive surface?
Imaging drum
Transfer roller
Toner
Developer roller
Imaging drum
An imaging drum is in the charging stage of the laser printer. The imaging drum is a round rotating cylinder conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR).
The toner is charged with a high negative charge and applies to the drum. The laser toner consists of a fine compound of dyestuff and wax or plastic particles.
The developer roller is very close to the photosensitive drum. The toner carries the same negative charge polarity as the drum.
Transfer roller applies a positive charge to the underside of the paper. This causes the toner on the drum to be attracted to the paper.
A technician needs a connector that offers high-speed standards that specify a data rate of 480 Mbps shared between the devices attached to the same host controller. What connector should the technician use?
HDMI
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
Lightning port
USB 2.0
USB 2.0 is half-duplex, which means that each device can send or receive, but not simultaneously.
USB 3.0 has new versions of Type A, Type B, and Type B Micro connectors with additional signaling and wires. This allows a device to send and receive simultaneously.
The Lightning port is found only on Apple’s mobile devices. The Lightning connector is reversible. The user needs a suitable adapter cable to connect such a device as a Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.
A high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) can rate as either standard or high speed. It provides high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source.
What component in a fused deposition model (FDM) 3-D printer is usually heated to prevent the material from warping?
Filament
Print bed
Fan
Extruder
Print bed
Print bed, also known as the build plate, is a flat glass plate that extrudes the material. The bed is heated to prevent the plastic from cooling too quickly and creating a product warp.
Filament supplies the ink of a 3-D printer. The filament spools require careful storage once opened. They should be kept free from heat and humidity.
The extruder is the equivalent of a print head in an inkjet. A motor in the extruder draws filament from the “cold end” to the nozzle. It is then melted and squeezed onto the object.
The fan cools the melted plastic where necessary to shape the object correctly.
