CompTIA A+ 1101

Question 1

An HTTPS application is using SSL/TLS protocol but should use a different port for unencrypted HTTP. Which port should unencrypted HTTP use?

A. TCP/80
B. TCP/587
C. TCP/143
D. TCP/993

Answer 1

A. TCP/80, by default, HTTPS uses TCP port 443. Insecure default HTTP port is TCP port 80.

Question 2

The IT Department is setting up for outsource management of their client firms. The IT department has asked a server admin to configure a Linux server and accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords, along with encrypted terminal emulations. How does the admin set up this access? (Select all that apply)

A. Start a File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
B. Establish a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
C. Use an open Secure Shell (OpenSSH) connection
D. Use a Secure Shell (SSH) connection

Answer 2

C & D. A SSH connection is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to UNIX and Linux servers and to most types of network appliances (switches, routers, and firewalls). The most widely used Ssh is OpenSSH. Therefore a common SSH connection is considered OpenSSH

Question 3

During a company meeting, a technician scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration on a white board. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 & 587. What is the purpose of these protocols?

A. They are POP3, an early example pf a mailbox access protocol
B. The ports are for message relay between SMTP servers to submit secure and unsecured messages for delivery
C. Use TLS with the HTTP application to send these ports over rather than via an open and unencrypted port
D. They are the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP), a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update an X 500 directory

Answer 3

B. The ports are for message delivery relay between SMTP server to submit secure and unsecured messages for delivery. Port TCP/25 is for insecure message relays (MTAs) between Simple Mail Protocol (SMTP) servers. Port TCP/587 submits encrypted authenticated and secured messages for delivery by an SMTP server.

Question 4

A client connects to an IMAP server over port TCP/143, but this port is insecure. Instead, the client wants a secure connection established using TLS. What is the default port for the secure POP3/IMAP?

A. TCP port 993 or 995
B. TCP port 25 or 587
C. TCP port 143 or 110
D. TCP port 80 or 443

Answer 4

A. The default ports for a secure connection are either TCP port 993 IMAPS or 995 POP3S, depending on the mail access protocol in use (IMAP or POP)

Question 5

When advising a company on configuring systems, the admin wants to provide better information network device status and how to monitor them in a client manual. Which of the following is the correct protocol that maintains a database containing statistics related to the activity of devices for review?

A. IMAP
B. DHCP
C. POP3
D. SNMP

Answer 5

D. SNMP is a framework for the management and monitoring of network devices. SNMP requires a Syslog agent that maintains a management information base (MIB) database. MIB holds statistics relating to the activity of the device.

Question 6

A client wishes to download some files from home to upload onto the company’s website. Which ports would establish a connection for the client to achieve this? (Select all that apply)

A. TCP/20
B. TCP/80
C. TCP/443
D. TCP/21

Answer 6

A & D. FTP is associated with TCP/20 & 21 to transfer data in active mode or a server assigned port in passive mode or a server assigned port in passive mode & establish a connection.

Question 7

As an alternative to static configuration, wired and wireless host can receive their IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from which protocol? (Select all that apply)

A. APIPA
B. DHCP
C. DSL
D. PXE

Answer 7

A & B. Host servers have a failover mechanism when an IP configuration specifies the use of a DHCP server, but the host cannot contact one

Question 8

The network administrator is configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol should the admin use to allow access to Windows, Linux and Apple macOS clients.

A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D. Server Message Block (SMB)

Answer 8

D. SMB protocol that implements Windows File/Printer sharing is specifically for use on local networks only. Therefore allowing access from the internet would be a security risk.

Question 9

What network protocol is obsolete and should be disabled on most networks as it poses a significant security risk?

A. NetBIOS
B. TCP/UDP
C. FTP
D. SMB

Answer 9

A. NetBIOS is obsolete and only required if the network must support file sharing for Windows versions earlier than Windows 2000

Question 10

Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) allows switches and access points to hold directory information to authenticate clients as they connect to the network. Which protocol would the AAA server use if it wanted to communicate with the directory service?

A. SMB/CIFS
B. LDAP
C. SNMP
D. DHCP

Answer 10

B. The AAA server uses LDAP to communicate with the directory service (AD) from an access point with no configured user account credentials, and it cannot decrypt any authentication traffic

Question 11

In addition to Remote Desktop, which of the following protocols can an administrator use for remote access administration (Select all that apply)

A. SNMP
B. SSH
C. DHCP
D. Telnet

Answer 11

B & D. Telnet opens a plain text, unsecured remote console connection. Telnet uses TCP port 23. SSH provides the same capabilities as Telnet but encrypts the data while transferring to the port. SSH uses TCP port 22.

Question 12

A top-level domain (i.e., .com) falsely represents the top of the DNS hierarchy. Why is this considered false?

A. The name server hosting the domain is a static configuration as the primary DNS server entry in the IP configuration of local clients
B. The top-level domain cannot be a duplicate, but also, it does not have to be a fully FQDN
C. The name server hosting the domain resource records on the internet is configured as the only DNS server entry and recognized by a specific IP address, not the domain name.
D. The DNS uses root servers at the hierarchy top, represented by a trailing dot at the end of a FQDN, ensuring a unique host name.

Answer 12

C. DNS is a global hierarchy of distributed server databases that contain information about each domain and the hosts within those domains

Question 13

Which hardware networking device implements Ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub? (Select all that apply)

A. Switch
B. Firewall
C. SDN controller
D. Router or modem

Answer 13

A B & D. A switch is a hardware networking appliance acting as a concentrator or connector for cable segments to a patch panel or router port. A firewall is a network security system of shielding layer/barrier to protect a computer system from unwanted data/viruses. DSL modems or SOHO router is a separate hardware device that can be embedded into a system to connect to the ethernet.

Question 14

A network admin disconnected the company network router during a recent construction project. The system had a full fiber connection terminated to an optical network terminal, but now the patch cable is missing. The department manager insists the cable fiber optic since the service is full fiber. What type of cable does the system need for this connection?

A. An RJ45 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) patch cable
B. A copper wire VGA, HDMI, or USB
C. An RS-232 serial port cable
D. An RJ11 terminated patch cord asymmetrical digital subscriber line

Answer 14

A. The RJ45 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) patch cable will allow the ONT to convert the optical signal over the external fiber optic cable to an electrical one to connect to the local router

Question 15

A network administrator sets up a high-speed, long range Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) router/modem for a client. Unfortunately, the vendor did not include a list of the box contents and the instructions. What type of cable does the administrator need to connect the router’s interface?

A. A rewired RJ45 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) patch cable
B. A type A USB 3.2 high speed long range cable over 5m
C. A high speed 5 m asymmetrical VDSL cable
D. An RJ11 terminated patch cord over 300m long

Answer 15

D. A 300 m ADSL RJ11 terminated patch cord can connect to the phone line to support 52 Mbps downstream/6 Mbps upstream. A symmetric link only supports 26 Mbps in both direction.

Question 16

A network administrator can configure a SOHO router to provide an IPv4 address configuration to hosts without further admin attention. A tech wrote some notes about IPv4 addresses used in various networks associated with the company support tickets. The tech assigned one of the addresses to the WAN interface of a SOHO router that requires troubleshooting. Which of these addresses must it be?

A. 169.254.1.21
B. 192.168.100.52
C. 224.100.100.1
D. 52.165.16.254

Answer 16

D. The WAN interface of the router must use an IPv4 address from a valid public range, so 52.165.16.254 is the only one to use on a SOHO router

Question 17

What devices uses a embedded adapter to forward traffic through hardware ports between public and private network segments? (Select all that apply)

A. SOHO router
B. Patch panel
C. Firewall
D. Switch

Answer 17

A & D. A small office or home office (SOHO) will generally use a single wireless router, which combines the functions of a router, DSL/cable modem, Ethernet switch, and Wi-Fi access point to provide connectivity. The role of filtering allowed and denied hosts and protocols is performed by a network firewall. A basic firewall is configured with rules, referred to as a network access control list (ACL). An Ethernet switch provisions one port for each device that needs to connect to the network.

Question 18

Another group has cabled wall ports to a patch panel during a previous construction. Now the company network administrator is completing the remaining network installation as part of a team effort, and will require additional infrastructure to complete this installation. What does the network admin need to do the finish the network?

A. Switch
B. Hub
C. NIC
D. Modem or router

Answer 18

A. The admin needs to install a networking app to act as a concentrator, connecting the cable segments like a switch, then cabling it to the patch panel ports using RK45 patch cords

Question 19

A network admin is expanding the company network with new settings and requirements for switches, VLANs and IP subsets. What is the purpose of what the admin is doing?

A. To use unmanned switches to connect more clients without requiring configuration or intervention
B. To assign an FQDN managed by using a DNS within the org VLAN
C. To divide the VLAN into multiple secure broadcast domains through managed switches, allowing additional remote access via VPNs
D. To match the cable type and switches with sufficient ports to meet demand on the enterprise network

Answer 19

C. A VLAN ports can divide into groups using a feature of managed switches to allow additional remote access via VPNs

Question 20

The TIA/EIA-568 standard defines two methods for terminating twisted pairs: T568A or T568B. In T568A, pin 1 is wired to green/white, pin 2 is wired to green, pin 3 is wired to orange/white and pin 6 is wired to orange. In T568B, the position of the green and orange pairs swap over so that orange terminates to 1 & 2 while green terminates to 3 & 6. What is the reason for this?

A. To terminate Cat 5 cable into a two-pair cable used in telephone systems and broadband digital subscriber line modems
B. To use PoE 802.3bt installation and run distribution system cables to wireless access points
C. To rewire a network with Cat 5 cables to support twisted pair for Gigabit Ethernet switches
D. To use the same termination method consistently to support a Gigabit Ethernet or an upgrade to an optical network terminal

Answer 20

D. A network admin wires a straight through ethernet cable with the dame type of termination at both ends. Using T568A at one end and T568B at the other creates a crossover cable, but Gigabit Ethernet interfaces can. crossover automatically using a standard cable.

Question 21

Cloud services require the rapid provisioning and de-provisioning of server instances and networks. These components must be fully accessible to scripting, which brought about software defined networking (SDN). According to the definition by the IETF, the principal innovation of SDN is to do what?

A. To keep the layers and component interactions separated in the SDN architecture
B. To insert a control layer between the application and infrasture layers
C. To expose an API automated by scripts that call functions in the layer above or below and shut them down
D. To implement a physical device referred to as the “SDN controller”

Answer 21

B. The principal innovation of SDN is to insert a control layer between the application and infrastructure layers. It is a model for how these processes can provision and de-provision networks.

Question 22

All PC motherboard have a built-in 1000BASE-T compatible adapter to establish connectivity with the ethernet. What other devices connect to different types of ethernet, such as fiber optics. (Select all that apply)

A. Modem
B. Patch Panel
C. NIC
D. SOHO router

Answer 22

A B & D. Modem, Patch panel & SOHO router

Question 23

Which hardware networking device implements ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub? (Select all that apply)

A. router or modem
B. switch
C. An SDN controller
D. Firewall

Answer 23

Router or modem, switch and firewall

Question 24

A network admin plans to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of Power over (PoE) must the switch support to fulfill this requirement (Select all that apply)

A. An 802.3af switch
B. PoE+ (802.3at)
C. POE++/4PPoE (802.3bt)
D. PoE-power injector

Answer 24

B & C. PoE 802.3at (PoE+) allows powered devices to draw up to about 25W with a maximum current of 600 mA. (PoE) 802.3bt (PoE++ or 4PPoE) supplies up to about 51W (Type 3) or 73W (Type 4) usable power

Question 25

A network admin disconnected the company network router during a recent construction project. The system had a full fiber connection terminated to an optical network terminal (ONT), but now the patch cable is missing. The department manager insists the cable is fiber optic since the service is full fiber. What type of cable does the system need for this connection? A. An RJ11-terminated patch cord asymmetrical DSL B. An RS-232 serial port cable C. A copper wire VGA, HDMI, or USB adapter cable D. An RJ45 UTP patch cable

Answer 25

D. The RJ45 UTP patch cable will allow the ONT to convert the optical signal over the external fiber optic cable to an electrical one to connect to the local router.

Question 26

A network admin is completing an installation as part of a team. Another group cabled the wall ports but left the ends of the cables bundled in the network closet. What additional infrastructure will the network admin require to complete this installation (Select all that apply) A. A patch panel B. A hub C. A switch D. A modem or router

Answer 26

A patch panel & switch

Question 27

A Server admin for a major transportation company is facing a crisis where ransomware has taken over and destroyed the primary and backup locations. Luckily there was an unaffected domain controller in a remote country where the admin needed to fly immediately and back up the contents via a USB hard drive. The administrator uses a hard drive running USB 3.2 that supports 10 Gbps speeds but must ensure the legacy server can support connectors. Which of the following are supported connectors? (Select all that apply) A. USB-A B. USB Micro C. USB-B D. USB-C

Answer 27

A, B, & D. The admin uses a USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 Supersede USB, which runs up to 10 Gbps and supports the USB Micro connector. USB-A runs up to 10 Gbps. YSB Gen 2x1 Superspeed USB supports USB-C which runs up to 10 Gbps.

Question 28

An audiovisual support professional is setting up a conference room that contains an F-type connector. What type of cable till support professional need to set up the equipment? A. STP B. Coax C. Plenum D. Fiber

Answer 28

B. Coax for CATV installations is typically terminated using a screw-down F-type connector. Coax is now mostly used for CCTV installations and patch cable for Cable Access TV (CATV) and broadband cable modems.

Question 29

A marketing analyst is trying to connect an Apple device to a corporate PC, but the cable will not fit into the PC connections. What type of adapter should the analyst use? A. SATA B. HDMI C. USB D. Thunderbolt

Answer 29

C. The Lightning port is only found on Apple mobile drives. A suitable adapter cable needs to connect a device to a PC, such as Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning to USB C

Question 30

A new support technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues. The technician decides to troubleshoot the physical layer and traces the wire back to networking closet. There, the support technician sees a large patch panel? (Select all that apply) A. Fiber B. Punchdown block C. RJ11 D. RJ45

Answer 30

B, C, D. The cables running through the walls terminate the insulation displacement connector (IDC) punchdown blocks at the back of the panel. The tech can terminate the twisted pair cabling for Ethernet using modular RJ45 connectors. RJ11 is typically used to terminate two-pair cables and is widely used in telephone systems

Question 31

A brand new network associate sets up phone lines at a new location. What type of connector will the associate need? A. UTP B. RJ11 C. RJ45 D. LC

Answer 31

B. RJ11 typically terminates two-pair cable and is widely used in telephone systems

Question 32

A cable runner needs to run cable in a plenum space. What consideration does a runner need to account for with plenum spaces? A. Dust B. Easy damage C. Weather resistance D. Fire retardant

Answer 32

D. Building regulations require the use of fire-retardant plenum cables in such places. Plenum space is effective conduit for fire as there is plenty of airflow and no fire breaks

Question 33

A helpdesk analyst is replacing an internal hard drive on a desktop. A tech had previously removed the hard drive, so the analyst did not have a chance to map which cable should go where. Which cable will provide power in a modern SATA setup? A. 15-pin B. Molex C. 7-pin D. eSATA

Answer 33

A. A separate 15-pin SATA power connector connects the device to the PC's power supply

Question 34

A server tech sets up a new server in their data center and opens the case to view the insides. The tech notices several hard drives inside. What type of setup does the server most likely have? A. EIDE B. SCSI C. IDE D. DVI

Answer 34

B. A SCSI or SAS is a dominate interface for enterprise-class storage devices in the PC workstation and server market

Question 35

A service desk operator is looking at an older computer. The service desk operator attempts to plug a keyboard and mouse, but there are no USB ports. What type of cable do the keyboard and mouse need? A. IDE B. Molex C. DVI D. D89

Answer 35

D. D89 is the old proprietary standard for keyboards and mice, but USB cables replaced them

Question 36

A manufacturer sells home repair goods through its online portal. Sales often skyrocket when demand is high due to storms and other phenomena. Due to the unpredictable nature of sales, what service does the manufacturer have in place to handle changing service levels? A. Rapid elasticity B. High availability C. Shared resources D. Metered utilization

Answer 36

A. Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly doubles

Question 37

A company deploys a new cloud service for its customers and its salespeople. Depending on the login access, users of the service will either shift to a resource center internal to the organization or to a forum where customers can freely collaborate. What model does the company deploy? A. Private cloud B. Public cloud C. Community cloud D. Hybrid cloud

Answer 37

D. A hybrid cloud type is a cloud computing solution that implements some sort of hybrid public/private/community

Question 37

Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud computing system's ability to do what? A. Achieve pooling of shared resources B. Handle changes to demand in real time C. The service experiences very little downtime D. Provide per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud

Answer 37

B. Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real time.

Question 38

An organization uses a private cloud service most of the year but only needs a higher utilization service several times a year when they have a symposium and many people worldwide attend. What is the best service model for this use? A. A community cloud service deployed across multiple locations B. A hybrid cloud C. A public cloud C. A private cloud with legacy hardware on premises

Answer 38

B. A hybrid deployment is a blend of public and private cloud services to provide some functions via a public cloud and keep sensitive or regulated infrasture, apps, and data on-premises

Question 39

An engineer decommissions an on-premises email server as all email functionality is now a cloud subscription service. What type of cloud service does the email utilize? A. XaaS B. SaaS C. PaaS D. IaaS

Answer 39

B. SaaS is a model of provisioning software apps. Rather than purchasing software licenses, a business would access software hosted on a supplier's servers on a pay-as-you-go arrangement

Question 40

Which type of cloud model provides a scaffold for a business to develop, deploy, and run apps without having to run and maintain the underlying foundation? A. DaaS B. SaaS C. PaaS D. IaaS

Answer 40

C. PaaS provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS and deploys un-configured servers, storage network infrastructure, and a multi-tier web/database platforms on top

Question 41

A web hosting company is home to many company websites. The model is such that a single server can host roughly five small low-traffic websites without changing the configuration. What service type does the web hosting company offer with these sites? A. High availability B. Metered utilization C. Shared resources D. Rapid elasticity

Answer 41

C. Pooling shared resources means that the hardware making up the cloud provider's data center is not dedicated or reserved to a single customer account

Question 42

Multiple host servers exist of premise and in the cloud for a manufacturing company. Users receive a warning that files are not saved during logoff when using a computer session hosted by these servers. What type of service does the manufacturing company use? A. DaaS B. SaaS C. PaaS D. IaaS

Answer 42

A. Provisioning a virtual desktop infra sure (VDI) as a cloud service is often referred to as desktop as a service (DaaS). A tech can lock down virtual images in this environment to always use a fresh image

Question 43

In a virtual desktop infrasture, what client functionality does a server handle? (Select all that apply) A. App processing B. Data storage C. Screen display D. Remote connection

Answer 43

A & B. In typical desktop virtualization solution, low-spec thin client computers replace desktop computers. The server handles even the data storage. VDI refers to using machines to provision corporate desktops. The server performs all app processing in the virtual desktop environment (VDE)

Question 44

An engineer at the organization quickly deploys a small network in a cloud space. The network includes a subnet and router hidden behind a firewall for software testing. What type of service includes the ability to roll out such a cloud-based network? A. PaaS B. SaaS C. IaaS D. DaaS

Answer 44

C. IaaS is a means of provisioning IT resources such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly

Question 44

Fmputing, organization can expand resources as needed. Services expand rapidly with virtualization through metered utilization using a paid cloud service provider. allowing access to increased resources. What are some of the other benefits the cloud provides (Select all that apply) A. Data control B. Elasticity C. High availability D. Scalability

Answer 44

B & C. HA is a requirement for short periods of downtime, typically due to planned maintenance and unscheduled outages. Scalability is the cost of supplying the cloud services based on the number of users receiving the service. The benefit for an organization is it can scale up or down services based on the need.

Question 45

Multiple companies working together on a contract for an extended times decide that resources in a single cloud platform would work best during the project's duration. What cloud type do the companies utilize? A. Public cloud B. Private cloud C. Hybrid cloud D. Community cloud

Answer 45

D. A community cloud is where several organizations share the costs of either a hosted private of fully private cloud

Question 46

Which cloud service allows for deploying a network of virtual machines running configured web servers, scripting environments, database software, and storage networks? A. DaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS

Answer 46

C. It provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS and deployed un-configured servers, storage network infrastructure and multi-tier web/database platforms on top.

Question 46

One type of cloud service allows the members of an organization to interact with the organization's resources. What type of cloud service model is this? A. PaaS B. IaaS C. SaaS D. DaaS

Answer 46

B. Its a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly

Question 47

Users at an organization would like to have access to their data when not connected to the internet. What type of service should IT configure for the users? A. File sync B. Metered utilization C. Shared resources D. High availability

Answer 47

A. File sync allows users to have a mirrored copy of their data on any number of devices. Data sync can occur across the cloud for files, emails, contacts and more

Question 48

The company admin wants to provision IT resources such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, to deploy when they need them rather than purchase these components separately. Which service model would be best? A. PaaS B. SaaS C. DaaS D. IaaS

Answer 48

D. Its a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly

Question 49

After establishing a free account online, users can use a cloud-based mapping software for free. What type of cloud service is the mapping software an example of? A. Public cloud B. Community cloud C. Hybrid cloud D. Private cloud

Answer 49

A. A public cloud is a service offered over the internet by cloud service providers (CSPs) to cloud consumers, often referred to as tenants

Question 50

What cloud service type does a company subscribe to when there is a need for a backend database server for an online app? A. DaaS B. IaaS C. SaaS D. PaaS

Answer 50

D. PaaS

Question 51

A travel organization runs a website for most of the year using a private cloud but needs a "break out" solution when a higher utilization is forecast for sales. Which of the following would be the best solution? A. Hybrid cloud B. Public cloud C. Community cloud D. Private cloud with legacy hardware on premises

Answer 51

A. Hybrid

Question 52

When users connect to the network, they use a basic hardware terminal to access a desktop hosted on a server. What structure is the user deploying? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. DaaS D. VDI

Answer 52

D. VDI refers to the use of virtual machines to provision corporate desktops. Low-spec thin client computers replace desktop computers in a typical desktop virtualization solution.

Question 53

Cloud service providers should ensure that they meet the criteria for reliable and responsive cloud delivery characteristics, such as metered utilization, rapid elasticity, and high availability. What other criteria should cloud service providers meet? A. Data storage B. Resource sharing C. File sync D. File sharing

Answer 53

C. One of the advantages of cloud storage is automated file sync between different devices, such as a PC and smartphone

Question 54

The network supervisor plans to predominantly use the 5 GHz band for an open plan office network. However, the business owner heard that this has a shorter range and thinks the network supervisor should use the 2.4 GHz band. Why should the 5 GHz band be preferred over the 2.4 GHz band in this case? (Select all that apply) A. Regulations on power and dynamic frequency selection (DFS) prevent signals from entering with other nearby installations in a 5 GHz band B. The chances of overlap are high on a 2.4 GHz band, increasing the risk of interference from other products C. Despite the open floor plan, 2.4 GHz has a shorter range than 5 GHz and would not work well D. On a 2.4 GHz network, there is not enough space for separate networks

Answer 54

A, B, & D. In a 2.4 GHz network, each channel is only 5 MHz wide. WiFi requires 20 MHz. The 5 GHz band is subdivided into 23 non-overlapping channels, each 20 MHz wide, reducing the risk of interference. In a 2.4 GHz band, there is no room for separate networks. Therefore the chances of overlap/interference are high using the 2.4 GHz band products. There a regulatory limits on power output constraining ranges of WiFi devices. The 5 GHz band must use DFS to prevent WiFi signals from interfering with radar/satellite signals

Question 55

The standards compatibility for a WiFi network that will also be supporting most employees with mobile devices plan to use 802.11b/g/n to support its clients. Which GHz band is the best to support clients? (Select all that apply) A. WiFi 6 working with a dual band adapter using both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands B. WiFi working with the 5 GHz band C. WiFi 6 to work the 2.4 GHz band D. WiFi 5 working with the 5 GHz band

Answer 55

A & C. Most mobile devices use the 2.4 GHz frequency. WiFi 6 with access points will support 802.11b/g/n clients and is the best choice even an 11 Mbps data rate. Although WiFi 6 uses both bands, a client can only use one radio at a time, not both. This is not a feasible possibility, even with a dual band adapter.

Question 56

Suppose a network specialist establishes a fixed long-range wireless device to configure a bridge between two networks and wants to use a specific frequency. What would be the best way for the operator to ensure signal quality? A. Obtain a license to purchase exclusive rights to the frequency within a geological area from the FCC B. Use a public unlicensed frequency but understand that these frequencies mean interferences are a risk C. Install antennas to transmit signals via satellite unobstructed from a single directions not needing a license D. Use a frequency not needing a license and minimize conflicts by ensuring the power output is strong

Answer 56

A. Regulations state that to cover long distances, the must carefully configure devices with precisely aligned point-to-point line of sight, fixed wireless ground-based high-gain microwaves, and license for exclusive rights to a frequency given by the FCC

Question 57

The network specialist sets up a long range fixed wireless installation and operates on a public frequency without a license. Is this legal? A. No, The point-to-point fixed wireless uses ground based high gain microwave antennas precisely aligned with one another, requiring a license B. Yes, installations my use an unlicensed spectrum but cannot exceed the EIRP defined from regulations C. No, the public spectrum requires the operator using the frequency band to have a license to operate D. Yes, however the radio spectrum requires the operator to carefully shield the transmitters covering long distances to avoid obtaining a license.

Answer 57

D. Installations may use any unlicensed public spectrum but must no exceed the bands EIRP defined by regulations

Question 58

WiFi is designed to work in which bands? A. 5 GHz B. 2.4 GHz C. Neither 2.4 nor 5 GHz D. Both 2.4 and 5 GHz

Answer 58

A. WiFi works only in the 5 GHz band. So while it can support 2.4 GHz, it needs a dual-band adapter to work with 2.4 GHz

Question 59

The earliest versions of this technology supported a max range of 10m (30 feet). In contrast, newer versions can reach up to 100 feet, although at a significantly lower signal strength. Which of the following devices is usually portable, wearable, and must pair with other devices to work properly? A. A low-energy RFC B. An NFC tag C. Bluetooth D. An RFID tag

Answer 59

C. Bluetooth technology works best at the 2.4 GHz band, is portable, although some desktop systems are beginning to use it, and is usually wearable

Question 60

Unlicensed spectrum refers to the operator using a public frequency band, such as 900 MHz or which bands? A. 5 GHz only B. 2.4 GHz only C. Both 2.4 and 5 GHz D. 20 MHz channels on 2.4 GHz

Answer 60

C. An unlicensed spectrum means the operator can use a public frequency band like 900 MHz, both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz, as long as long range fixed wireless

Question 61

An organization has asked a security analyst to review the contents of an external drive to see if the drive is reusable or if the organization needs to destroy it. However, the drive does not have a cable that connects to a USB. After finding an older computer that supports the cable the cable type, it still does not seem to connect. The analyst notice that there appears to be a cable for what looks like the power to the device. The analyst notices that there appears to be a cable for what looks like power to the device. What type of cable should the analyst try using? A. eSATAp B. Molex C. IDE D. SATA power connector

Answer 61

A. There is an external serial advanced technology attachment (eSATA) standard for the attachment of peripheral drives. eSATAp is a nonstandard powered port used by some vendors

Question 62

A parent has purchased an older laptop for their young child to do some school work but finds the laptop has USB 1.1 connections. Which of the following should the parent use to be compatible? A. USB 3 Type B Micro B. Lightning C. USB 3 Type B D. USB 3 Type A

Answer 62

D. USB 3 Type-A connections are physically compatible with USB 1.1 and 2.0 connections

Question 63

A helpdesk engineer runs cabling at a construction site. The site needs to achieve 100 Mbps, but the manager wants them to use the oldest cabling first to get rid of it. Which cabling should the engineer use? A. Cat 6 B. Cat 5 C. Cat 5e D. Cat 6A

Answer 63

B. Cat 5 cable supports the older 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet standard. It is no longer commercially available. A tech will probably need to rewire the network cabled with Cat 5 to support Gigabit Ethernet

Question 64

A network associate is selecting cable that will need protection from the weather as much as possible. Which type should the associated use? A. OSP B. Aerial C. Conduit D. Direct burial

Answer 64

D. Direct burial cable is laid and then covered in earth or cement/concrete

Question 65

An organization has asked a helpdesk attendant to swap out a defective monitor since part of the monitor with not display colors correctly. They are curious about how the LCD monitor varies the color, so they look at the inner workings. What is each pixel addressed by to vary the intensity of RGB values? A. HDCP B. VESA C. Light-emitting diode D. Transistor

Answer 65

D. Each pixel is addressed by a transistor to vary the intensity of each cell, therefore creating the gamut (range of colors) that the display can generate

Question 66

A server tech has received a non-standard external drive. It appears older since it does not connect to USB, but it is not recognized when connected. The tech suspects it needs to be powered. Which of the following should the tech try? A. eSATAp B. SATA power connector C. Molex D. IDE

Answer 66

A. There is an eSATA standard for the attachment of peripheral drives. eSATAp is a non standard powered port used by some vendors

Question 67

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses making inquiries regarding environmental or infrastructure changes. Which step in the troubleshooting model covers this topic? A. Sixth step B. Fourth step C. Fifth step D. First step

Answer 67

D. The first step in the CompTIA's troubleshooting model is identifying the problem first and then including any inquiries regarding environmental or infrastructure changes

Question 68

A cyber technician is working on a computer issue that has established probable cause. Based on establishing the probable cause, the tech developed a plan of action. What step has the technician reached in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model? A. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures B. Identify the problem C. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes D. Test the theory to determine the cause

Answer 68

D. Testing a theory to determine the cause allows the technician to review various theories surrounding the issue (or issues) and what action the technician has performed to remedy the issue

Question 69

A technician is troubleshooting a computer and wants to eliminate any factors that could cause the problem to reoccur. What can the technician use to mitigate re-occurrence? A. Perform preventative measures B. Establish a new theory C. Establish a plan of action D. Identify the problem

Answer 69

A. To fully solve a problem, the technician should implement preventative measures. This means eliminating any factors that could cause the problem to reoccur

Question 70

A software technician is following the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model and is gathering infromation from the employee of the contracted vendor. What questions could the technician ask the employee to gain the desired information? (Select all that apply) A. What are the exact error messages appearing on the screen or coming from the speaker B. Is anyone else experiencing the same problem C. Has management been notified of this issue? D. How long has the problem been occuring

Answer 70

A, B, & D. Before examining the computer, the technician should gather the date from the user by asking what error messages they got, how long the problem has occurring and if its affecting anyone else.

Question 71

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses first confirming the theory and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem. Whicj part of CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model covers this topic? A. Fifth step B. Sixth step C. Second step D. Third step

Answer 71

D. The third step in the CompTIA's troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause, confirming the theory, and then determining the next steps tp resolve the problem

Question 72

A tehcnician is reviewing the cyber ticket system and is reading through the documented findings and actions from the past 30 days. What benefit does this review provide the technician? A. It provides the technician with an opportunity to review a complete description of the problem and its solution B. It allows the technciian to review theories surrounding the issue and what actions to use to remedy the issue C. It verifies that full system functionality has occured and preventative measures implemented if required D. It allows the technician to gain information directly from the user who has reported the issue

Answer 72

A. Documenting the findings, actions and solutions allows a user to review a complete description of the problem and its solution

Question 73

A cyber tehcnician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes. Which step in the troubleshooting model covers this topic? A. Second step B. Third step C. Fourth step D. Sixth step

Answer 73

D. The sixth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to document the findings, actions and outcomes

Question 74

A software technician is reviewing the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model and is examining the topic that discusses when a techcician cannot confirm a theory and the steps to either re-establish a new theory or escalate it to a supervisor. What step in the model is the tech reviewing. A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution B. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable implement preventative measures C. Document the findings actions and outcomes D. Test the theory to determine the cause

Answer 74

D. The third step in the CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause. If the technician cannot confirm the theory, then it requires re-establishing a new theory or escalating to a supervisor

Question 75

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for torubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The fourth step of this model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. What should the techncian consider when implementing this step in the model A. Refer to the vendor's instruction for guidance B. If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate C. If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms D. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem

Answer 75

A. The fourth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, the implement the solution, including referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance

Question 76

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. What is NOT an aspect associated with the troubleshooting model? A. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem B. If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms C. Consider corporate policies, procedures and impacts before implementing changes D. Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and if applicable, perform backups before making changes

Answer 76

C. The technician must seek the proper authorization for a plan and conduct all remedial activities within the constraints of corporate policies and procedures, which is not part of the troubleshooting model

Question 77

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The third step pf this model is to test the theory to determine the cause. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model? (Select all that apply) A. Gather information from the user identify user changes, and if applicable, perform backups before making changes B. If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate C. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem D. If necessary, conduct external or internal research

Answer 77

B & C.

Question 78

A software technician is about to begin troubleshooting a computer for a company employee. What are the benefits of identifying the problem? A. It allows the technician to archive data findings and actions taken for future reference B. It provides assurance to the technician that the issue has been resolved C. It allows the technician to gain information from the user, identify any user changes and perform backups to the system if required D. It allows the technician to contact vendor support for assistance in troubleshooting specific issues

Answer 78

C. Identifying the problem is usually initiated by the technician gaining details of the issue for the user of the system/device

Question 79

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance. Which step in CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model discusses this topic A. Fourth step B. Sixth step C. Third step D. Second step

Answer 79

A. The fourth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then implement the solution, including referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance

Question 80

A help desk analyst is looking at a computer that has PC-1600 RAM in it. What is the max data transfer? A. 1.6 GBps B. 2.1 GBps C. 2.4 GBps D. 3.2 GBps

Answer 80

A. The peak transfer rate is 1600 MBps (200 MT/s multiplied by 8 bytes (64 bits) per transfer), giving the "PC-1600" designation. 1600 MBps is equivalent to 1.6 GBps

Question 81

A network admin is setting up a server to manage their routers and switches throughout the environment and push standardized configurations. The admin wants to use memory which performs a hash calculation on the data value. What should the network admin use? A. UDIMM B. RDIMM C. Swap space D. Virtual Memory

Answer 81

B. Error correction code (ECC) RAM performs a has calculation on the data value for each transfer and stores it as an 8-bit checksum. Most types of ECC supply as registeredDIMMs. A registered DIMM uses an extra component to reduce electrical load on the memory controller.

Question 82

A server admin considers installing ECC RAM into the critical server to help with integrity but is concerned about multiple bit errors. What can happen when the admin installas ECC RAM? A. System halt B. Correction C. An extra processor would be able to handle these D. It cannot detect multiple bit errors

Answer 82

A. ECC can detect errors of 2, 3, or 4 bits but cannot correct them. Instead, it will generate an error message and halt the system

Question 83

A server tech sets up a critical server that requires memory with a high reliability level. Which type of memory should the tech use? A. ECC B. Pagefile C. DIMM D. SODIMM

Answer 83

A. ECC RAM is for workstations and servers that require high reliability. ECC RAM performs a hash calculation on the data value for each transfer and stores it as an 8-bit checksum

Question 84

A PC operator is building out a new system to replace an engineering tech's order system. The system is rated 2400 MT/s. The engineer wants to maximize the amount of RAM. Which amount should they put in? A. 8 GB B. 32 GB C. 16 GB D. 128 GB

Answer 84

B. DD4 is rated at a data rate of 1600 to 3200 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 12.8 to 25.6 GB /s. The max size supported is 32 GB

Question 85

A systems admin sets up dual-channel in a system to increase performance. Which of the following does not require support? A. Memory controller B. RAM devices C. CPU D. Motherboard

Answer 85

B. With a dual-channel memory controller, there are effectively two 64 bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that the system can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. This does not require support RAM devices, but it does from all others mentioned

Question 86

A helpdesk technician is diagnosing a laptop and determines that the RAM has gone bad. The tech should replace it with what type of memory? A. DIMM B. Pagefile C. SODIMM D. Swap space

Answer 86

C. SODIMM is a small form factor that packages laptop RAM. The memory typically fits into slots that pop up at a 45 degree angle to allow inserting or removing the chip

Question 87

A windows admin sets up a SQL server that is very resource-intensive on memory and never deallocates room in memory. They want to set up an area in case all system RAM is eaten up. What should they set up? A. Address space B. Swap space C. Virtual memory D. Pagefile

Answer 87

D. In a windows system, the extended memory space on a disk is a pagefile. The memory controller moves static memory pages to the swap space to free up physical RAM and retrieve pages from the swap space to physical RAM when process execution requires it

Question 88

A data analyst is looking at a system with four 32 bit channels. The data analyst is most likely looking at what type pf memory? (Select all that appy) A. DDR4 B. Dual channel C. Quadruple channel D. DDR5

Answer 88

B & C. Double data rate 5 (DDR5) introduces a different type of data bus. Each memory module has two channels of 32 bits. When installed in a dual-channel memory controller configuration, this becomes four 32-bit channels

Question 89

A computer operator is setting up memory in a computer and is curious how speed improvements occur to DDR RAM. So the operator begins researching. What will the computer operator find? A. Increased bus speed B. Design improvements C. Increased speed at which device works D. New materials

Answer 89

A. Subsequent generations of DDR technology (DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5) increase bandwidth by multiplying the bus speed. The transfer rate is the speed at which the memory controller can move data

Question 90

A graphics artist wants to put together the best possible machine then is to do graphics-intensive processing. Which of the following can the graphics artist use to distinguish between memory that appears to be the same? A. Transfer rate B. Timing C. PC-# value D. RAM type

Answer 90

B. The tech can use timings to differentiate performance of modules that are an identical DDR type and speed. Lower timing values are indicator of better performance

Question 91

A computer component was upgraded recently to improve speed. However, during the boot process, the screen states "no bootable disk." What may have been upgraded? A. Hard drive B. Keyboard C. Battery D. Processor

Answer 91

A. The main components of a computer used to store data is the hard drive. Hard drives come in multiple forms, such as a magnetic spinning drive or SSD.

Question 92

A user is trying to buy a monitor and is told that the crystals in the screen rotate rather than twist or tilt. What kind of tech does the monitor use? A. IPS B. OLED C. VA D. TN

Answer 92

A. IPS uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles.

Question 93

A customer brought back a TV with a complaint that while the color constrast was great, the viewing angle was terrible and would not work with their living room set up. What kind of LCD technology does this TV have? A. TN B. VA C. OLED D. IPS

Answer 93

B. VA uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast ratio performance.

Question 94

An IT department is looking to purchase TVs for their conference. The main requirements are that they have good contrast ratios, are thinner and lighter and consume less power. What kind of TV should they buy for the conference rooms? A. IPS B. VA C. TN D. OLED

Answer 94

D. In an OLED display, a separate LED generates each pixel. OLED allows much better contrast ratios and allows the display to be thinner, lighter and consume less power.

Question 95

A video gamer is looking to buy a new monitor that has great response time, quality, and brightness while also being cost effective. What monitor technology would best fit the gamer's needs? A. VA B. TN C. IPS D. OLED

Answer 95

A. IPS uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles.

Question 96

Which system works out a device's location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources through identifying and tracking objects using special tags? A. RFID B. NFC C. IPS D. GPS

Answer 96

A. RFID identifies and tracks objects using specially encoded tags that can be unpowered and passive, responding when scanned at close range or from a powered, active device within 100 m

Question 97

The network operator is trying to minimize the potential for conflicts in an unlicensed power output but knows regulatory requirements limit them. Gain measures a wireless signal's power. What is gain, and how is it measured? A. Gain is the sum of transmit power expressed in dBm B. Gain is the wireless antenna frequency working over long-range bands, measured in dBi C. Gain is the amount of boost that occurs in a focused antenna signal, measured in dBi D. Gain is the transmit strength of the radio measured in dBm

Answer 97

C. Gain is the amount of boost an antenna signal receives by directionality , focusing the signal in a single direction rather than spreading it over a wide area, and is measured in dBi

Question 98

WiFi 5 is designed to work in which bands? A. 2.4 GHz B. 5 GHz C. Neither 2.4 nor 5 GHz D. Both 2.4 and 5 GHZ

Answer 98

B. WiFi 5 works only in the 5 GHz band. So while it can support 2.4 GHZ, it needs a dual-band adapter to work with 2.4 GHz

Question 99

The standards compatibility for a WiFi network that will also be supporting most employees with mobile devices plans to use 802.11b/g/n to support its clients. Which GHz band is the best to use to support clients? (Select all that apply) A. WiFi 6 working with a dual band adapter using both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands B. WiFi 4 working with the 5 GHz band C. WiFi 6 to work with the 2.4 GHz band D. WiFi 5 working with the 5 GHz band

Answer 99

A & C. Most mobile devices use the 2.4 GHz frequency. WiFi 6 with access points will support 802.11b/g/n clients and is the best choice even with an 11 Mbps data rate

Question 100

A network admin is assessing standards compatibiluty for a WiFi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which WiFi standards work in this band? (Select all that apply) A. WiFi 5 (802.11b/g/n) B. IEEE standard 802.11a C. WiFi 4 (802.11n) D. WiFi 6 (802.11ax)

Answer 100

C & D. WiFi 6 works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, but the 5 GHz standard is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces and does not support the max ranges achieved with 2.4 GHz standards. Substantial improvements have occurred with WiFi 4 since 2009, and now 802.11n is officially designated as WiFi 4 and works in the 2.4 GHz band.

Question 101

During a meeting, the network supervisor argued that they should use a 5 GHZ band in their new open plan office setting, but the owner heard that the 2.4 GHz band is the one to use since it has a shorter range. Who is right and why? (Select all that apply) A. The owner is correct. The chances of interference are higher on a 5 GHz band B. The owner is correct. Despite the open floor plan, a 5 GHz has a shorter range C. The supervisor is correct. A 2.4 GHz network does not have enough space for separate networks D. The supervisor is correct. A 5 GHz band power's regulations and DFS prevents signals from interfering

Answer 101

C & D. In a 2.4 GHz network, each channel is only 5 MHz wide. WiFi requires 20 MHz. The 5 GHz band is subdivided into 23 non-overlapping channels, each 20 MHz wide, reducing the risk of interference

Question 102

Vulnerability issues do not just affect PC operating systems and apps in enterprise networks. Any device or network appliance can be vulnerable to exploits from within and outside the network. Which devices are considered a new and growing problem regarding these proposed risks? (Select all that apply) A. Any unpatched device B. IOT C. New motherboard, router, adapter, or other internal devices D. Mobile devices

Answer 102

A, B, & D.

Question 102

A network tech plans a simplified network addressing scheme that configures IP. What mechanisms will the tech implement? (Select all that apply) A. Static IP addressing B. VPN C. DNS D.DHCP

Answer 102

C & D. Commonly deployed to provide auto configuration for IP addresses is DHCP. Installation of DNS commonly provides an auto configuration mechanism that allows name-based addressing of network hosts and resources.

Question 103

A tech troubleshoots that AAA system that consolidates service across multiple devices. What component is responsible for requesting access? A. The supplicant B. Syslog C. AAA server D. Proxy server

Answer 103

A. Supplicants are the devices that request access. such as a user's workstation, laptop, and printer in AAA systems. Supplicants combined with the AAA server and network access appliances, consolidate authentication services

Question 103

While advising a company on configuring systems to provide better information about network device status, why would a network admin recommend using both SNMP snd syslog? A. The SNMP is an open format for event data, and the syslog monitors all agents polling regularly for their MIBs for review B. Syslog and SNMP can be used to centralize logs and network appliance status information C. The SNMP holds messages from routers and other devices and a syslog maintains an MIB database D. The SNMP captures logs, and Syslog manages agents, maintaining a database with statistics

Answer 103

B. SNMP reports operational statistics to a management server and sends a trap if a threshold for a critical value is exceeded. Syslog sends log entries to a remote server. Both types of information are required for effective monitoring.

Question 104

Syslog and SNMP configure systems and provide better information about network device statuses for security purposes. What is the main reason for this? A. The SNMP manages agents maintaining a database with statistics and a syslog maintains an MIB database B. The SNMP communicates with switches, routers, and firewalls while syslog transits authentication between devices C. The SNMP is an open format for event data and syslog monitors all agents polling regularly for their MIBs for review D. Syslog and SNMP can centralize logs and network appliance status information

Answer 104

D. SNMP reports operational statistics to a management server and sends a trap if a threshold for a critical value is exceeded. Syslog sends log entries to a remote server. Both types of information are required for effective monitoring.

Question 105

A type of server takes a complete HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it the the destination server on the internet. This server checks the reply and then shuttles it back to the local area network computer when the reply comes back. What type of server does not just translate IP addresses? A. Mail server B. Web server C. Proxy server D. Print server

Answer 105

C. A proxy server fulfills requests for internet resources and configures or converts a private address to a public address so a client can access the internet directly

Question 106

Client drives do not store credentials that need authentication when connecting to an enterprise network. Where would these credentials be found so the system can authenticate clients when connected? A. AAA server B. Switches and access points C. Syslog D. Spam gateways

Answer 106

A. An AAA server consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices containing directory information

Question 107

The system admin recommends that a small business owner replace separate appliances with a UTM. What is the principal advantage of doing this? (Select all that apply) A. To verify the authenticity of mail servers configured with filters that can identify spoofed, misleading, malicious, or unwanted messages B. To consolidate configuration, monitoring and reporting multiple security functions to a single console or dashboard C. To provide additional functionality to security protocols not currently available together, such as intrusion detection, spam filtering, and data loss prevention D. To configure NAT as a proxy to cache data that is commonly requested by multiple clients and prevent reduction in bandwidth consumption and speed up requests

Answer 107

B & C. A UTM appliance consolidates the configuration, monitoring, and reporting of multiple security functions to a single console or dashboard. A UTM can provide additional functionality not currently available together, such as intrusion detection, spam filtering, or data loss prevention

Question 108

A host configured with a private address cannot access the internet directly, therefore, a router uses a NAT to convert the private and public addresses through what? A. Spam gateway B. Proxy server C. Web server D. Mail server

Answer 108

B. A proxy server fulfills requests for internet resources and configured a private address to a public address so it can access the internet directly

Question 109

An IPv6 address is 128 bits, divided into two main parts. The first 64 bits and the second 64 bits are known as what? A. Public address, Private address B. Global address, Link-local address C. Network ID, Interface ID D. Protocols, Ports

Answer 109

C. In IPv6, the first 64 bits are for the network address, and the interface identifier is always the last 64 bits

Question 110

Windows machines will default to APIPA, also known as link-local, if which Windows network service fails? A. SOHO LAN B. DHCP C. IPv6 D. TCP/IP

Answer 110

B. If the DHCP service fails, Windows machines will default to APIPA, also known as link-local, allowing them to communicate with other hosts on the same network

Question 111

A class B IPv4 host configured with a private IP address will use what mechanisms to facilitate access to the internet? (Select all that apply) A. Switched port analyzer (SPAN) port B. Network address translation (NAT) C. Proxy device D. Code division multiple access (CDMA)

Answer 111

B & C. Hosts configured with a private address cannot access the internet directly. A host must use some mechanism to allow it to forward packets. NAT is one. It shuffles traffic between the private and public addresses. A proxy device can fulfill requests for internet resources on behalf of clients configured with a private IP address, facilitating internet access.

Question 112

In IPv6, it is possible to configure addresses statically. However, most hosts obtain their global and link-local addresses from the local router. In IPv6, the network and host portions are a fixed size. What part of this IPv6 IP address is the network ID 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0abc:0000:def0:1234? A. 0abc:0000:def0:1234 B. 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0abc:0000:def0 C. 2001:0db8:0000:0000 D. 2001:db8::abc:0:def0:1234

Answer 112

C. In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits are the network ID, while the second 64 bits are the Interface ID

Question 113

Why would hosts NOT need to be configured with a default gateway in an IPv6 implementation with SLAAC? A. ND allows hosts to discover a router and perform interface address querying functions B. Dual stack allows for IPv6 to fall back to IPv4 C. TXT records support network services D. Spam gateways filter out unwanted messages

Answer 113

A. IPv6 uses a protocol called ND, implementing SLAAC and allowing a host to discover a router and perform interface address querying functions

Question 114

An IT Helpdesk technician has received a service call for a small home office worker experiencing network connectivity issues. The IPv4 network host can communicate with other local hosts but fails to reach the internet. What should the technician check? A. ND B. The default gateway C. IPv6 subnet mask D. System logs

Answer 114

B. The default gateway in an IPv4 network is the address of the router. Which the default gateway setting is not required, failure to enter the default gateway would limit the hosts to local network comm only.

Question 115

Suppose the DHCP service fails in a Windows network. What will Windows network machines default to that will allow them to communicate with other hosts on the same network? A. AAA server B. APIPA C. Static addressing D. Code division multiple access (CDMA)

Answer 115

B. Windows machines will default to APIPA, also known as link-local, if the DHCP service fails or if there is some connectivity error. It allows them to communicate with other hosts on the same network.

Question 116

Why would a network engineer choose a dynamic network addressing configuration over a static configuration in a large network? (Select all that apply) A. Static addressing requires additional network components when compared to dynamic addressing B. Dynamic addressing provides automatic address allocation reducing the time required to manage large networks C. Static addressing can be time-consuming in large networks D. Static addressing is prone to configuration errors in large networks

Answer 116

B, C, & D. Static addressing requires an administrator to visit each computer to configure addresses manually. In large networks, static addressing can be very time consuming, as it requires an administrator to visit each system.

Question 117

When reviewing the mail exchange (MX) record for IPv4 and IPv6, the host names identifies in an MX record must have what other tote of record associated with them? (Select all that apply) A. AAAA B. A C. Master boot record (MBR) D. DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

Answer 117

A & B. A mail exchange (MX) record identifies an email server, and the host names specified in an MX record must have an associated A record for IPv4 networks & an associated AAAA record for IPv6 networks.

Question 118

When planning to set up a virtual LAN (VLAN), the network admin must prepare for each VLAN, configuring them with their own what? (Select all that apply) A. Hypervisor B. Subnet address C. VPN D. IP address range

Answer 118

B & D. Hosts placed in separate VLANs can no longer communicate directly, requiring the configuration of each VLAN with its own subnet address and IP address range

Question 119

The Domain-based Authentication, reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework utilizes the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) or the DomainKeys Identifies Mail (DKIM), or both, to provide what? A. A framework for managing and monitoring network devices B. Network log capture and aggregation C. Store free-form text D. A more robust policy mechanism for senders

Answer 119

D. DMARC will use SPF, DKIM, or both, to specify a more robust policy mechanism for senders that define how admins should treat DMARC authentication failures

Question 120

What type of TXT record uses cryptography to validate the source server of a given email to help recipient servers reject spoofed messages and spam? A. DKIM B. AAAA record C. MX D. SPF

Answer 120

A. DKIM is a TXT record verifying that a message comes from an authentic server. Using cryptography, DKIM can validate the source server of an email message

Question 121

A VLAN can improve security by monitoring and filtering network traffic. What is another benefit of implementing a VLAN? A. Reduction in excessive network traffic B. Identification of authorized domain email hosts C. Email message server authentication D. Traffic tunneling

Answer 121

A. A VLAN will improve security and reduce excessive broadcast traffic by dividing large networks into multiple segments

Question 122

What do SPF, DKIM, and DMARC provide for a domain? A. IP leases B. VLAN C. Spam management D. VPN

Answer 122

C. SPF, DKIM, and DMARC utilized DNS records that enable SPAM management through a SPAM gateway. The SPAM gateway applies filters to identify spoofed, misleading, malicious, or otherwise unwanted messages

Question 123

A network tech is responsible for an extensive network. The network has hundreds of hosts on the same broadcast domain, reducing performance. The tech needs to find a solution to improve security and mitigate excessive broadcast traffic. What is the solution? A. VPN B. VLAN C. SPF D. DKIM

Answer 123

B. Placing hundreds of hosts in the same broadcast domain reduces performance. Dividing switch ports into managed groups called VLAN will mitigate performance issues

Question 124

Wireless communication utilizes ait as its data transfer medium. When communication with electrical signals or pulses of light, what standard do cable-based copper and fiber LANs use? A. RS- 232 B. IEEE 802.3 C. IEEE 802.11 D. TIA/EIA -568

Answer 124

B. 802.3 standard is the internet standard for ethernet networks. Ethernet utilizes copper cabling and fiber optic cabling, where the fiber use pulses of light, and copper sends electrical signals to transmit data

Question 125

Often described as a hybrid fiber coax (HFC) broadband connection, what type of service combines links to the customer premises? A. Cellular B. Cable C. Wireless internet service provider (WISP) D. Personal Area Network (PAN)

Answer 125

B. Cable internet connection, usually offered as part of a cable TV service, are often described as HFC. HFC combines a fiber optic core network with copper coaxial cable links to the customer site

Question 126

A wireless ISP used ground-based fixed access wireless technology for long-range, low latency connectivity. The WISPs utilize directional antennas to bridge between the customer and the service provider networks. What is one disadvantage of a WISP? A. Latency B. Line of sight C. Limited range D. Phased array

Answer 126

B. A disadvantage of fixed access wireless (such as a WISP) is that the actual unobstructed line of sight between the two antennas can be challenging to maintain

Question 127

In what standard will client devices connect to an access point in infrastructure mode? A. IEEE 802.3 B. TIA/EIA 568 C. IEEE 802.11 D. RS-232

Answer 127

C. In most IEEE 802.11, better known as WiFi, networks configured for wireless-only connect in what is often technically referred to as "infrastructure mode"

Question 128

An organization has tasked a network admin with establishing a means of communication with the new IoT smart meters. These IoT devices cover a large area with a limited line of sight. What would be the best solution for the network admin to implement? A. Wireless B. RFID C. Bluetooth D. Cellular

Answer 128

D. Cellular radio networking communication will reach further distances, regardless of line of sight issues, using mobile devices. It also enables the connectivity of the IoT devices, such as smart energy meters

Question 129

Wireless communication utilizes air as its data transfer medium. When communication with electrical signals or pulses of light, what standard do cable-based copper and fiber LANs use? A. RS-232 B. IEEE 802.11 C. IEEE 802.3 D. TIA/EIA-568

Answer 129

C. The 802.3 standard is the internet standard for Ethernet networks. Ethernet utilizes copper cabling and fiber optic cabling, where the fiber uses pulse of light, and copper sends electrical signals to transmit data

Question 130

Symmetric and Asymmetric are two of the most notable flavors of what type of internet connection? A. DSL B. Encryption C. MAN D. SOHO

Answer 130

A. The most notable types of DSL are symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical offers the same uplink and downlink speeds as asymmetrical. Symmetrical is most often used in businesses

Question 131

To ensure the wire is conducting signals, a network tech needs to evaluate a patch cord connected to a wall opera and patch panel port. What device could the tech use to ensure its connection is correct? A. Network tap B. Toner probe C. Cable tester D. Loopback plug

Answer 131

C. Cable testers use a pair of devices attached to each end of a cable to test a patch cord or those connected via patch cords to a wall port to patch panel to test permanent links

Question 132

A loopback plug is a simple tool that a technician could quickly build using a scrap cable and a connector, enabling an admin to create a looped data signal. Why would a network tech want to use a loopback plug? A. To detect a signal in a wire bundle B. To test patch cords C. To remove a section of a cable's outer sheath D. To test NICs

Answer 132

D. A loopback plug can test NIC or switch ports by using a loopback plug from a six inch cable stub, where the wires connect pin one to pin three and pin two to pin six

Question 133

A system admin needs to troubleshoot an intermittent connectivity issue on a client PC. While evaluation the patch cable, the system admin finds exposed wire pairs, likely creating crosstalk or signal disruptions. After snipping the RJ45 cable, what tool would the sysadmin use to remove a small section of the outer jacket to expose the wire pairs? A. Cable stripper B. Crimper C. Punchdown tool D. Loopback plug

Answer 133

A. When building a cable, the cable stripper removes a section of the cable sheath without damaging the insulation on the inner wire pairs to score the outer jacket just enough to remove it

Question 134

The network tech will need to troubleshoot the wireless network's performance. The technician needs to measure the wireless signal strength to determine the best channels to optimize network performance. What tool would the technician use? A. WiFi analyzer B. Loopback plug C. Toner probe D. Network tap

Answer 134

A. WiFi analyzers determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics and troubleshoot the network's performance

Question 135

A network installer has recently built and terminated several patch cables. It would be wise to test them to ensure that each wire makes good electrical contact and is in the correct pin position. The installer should correct any errors before installation to save time when onsite. What tool would validate proper assembly to ensure the patch cables operate correctly? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. WiFi analyzer D. Crimper

Answer 135

B. Cable tester use a pair of devices attached to each end of a cable to test a patch cord or those connected via patch cords to a wall port and patch panel to test permanent links

Question 136

An access point is configured as a bridge to forward communications between new wireless clients and the existing wired network. The network security technician needs to ensure no unauthorized APs are in the vicinity. What tool could the tech use to validate that no other APs are in the area? A. Network tap B. WiFi analyzer C. GSM signal monitor D. Loopback plug

Answer 136

B. WiFi analyzers measure the wireless signal strength to determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics, troubleshoot the network's performance, and detect other access points in the vicinity

Question 137

While validating the ethernet network efficiency, the network admin finds many lost or damaged frames. What tools does the network admin use to identify the dropped or damaged frames? A. Loopback plug B. Toner probe C. WiFi analyzer D. Network tap

Answer 137

D. In powered and unpowered versions, network taps intercept 802.3 signals passing over a cable and send them to a packet or protocol analyzer for later identification and inspection

Question 138

A system admin has a patch cable with a broken RJ45 jack. The admin has no replacement patch cords but has an extra RJ45 jack and the tools to repair the patch cord. After cutting the broken jack and removing the outer jacket, what instrument would affix the jack to the cable? A. Loopback plug B. Cable stripper C. Punchdown tool D. Crimper

Answer 138

D. Crimpers attach jacks to the RJ45 cables after removing the outer jacket, with the wires appropriately arranged and pushed into the jack

Question 139

A network tech can utilize a WiFi analyzer to determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics and what else? A. Troubleshoot WiFi performance B Intercept 802.3 signals C. Terminate cable D. Test the ethernet NIC

Answer 139

A. WiFi analyzes easier the wireless signal strength to determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics, and troubleshoot the network's performance

Question 140

When the network installers install permanent cable, what tool will terminate wall ports and patch panels using insulation displacement connectors (IDCs)? A. Punchdown block B Crimper tool C. Cable stripper D. Punchdown tool

Answer 140

D. Punchdown tools press individual RJ45 wires into insulation displacement connectors (IDCs). Blades in the terminal cut through the insulation, making electrical contact with the wire

Question 141

A system admin has an 802.3 compliment NIC that needs testing. What could best enable the system admin to test this NIC, including the switch port? A.Wifi Analyzer B. Loopback plug C. Punchdown tool D. Toner probe

Answer 141

B. A loopback plug can test NICs or switch ports. The admin can create loopback plug from a 6 inch cable stub, where the wires connect pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6

Question 142

While a toner probe sends a signal through a wire bundle to identify a cable and may come as part of a cable tester, what ability would the cable tester provide the user? A. To test wireless signals B To test patch cords C. To test a NIC D. To intercept network data

Answer 142

B. Cable testers use a pair of devices attached to each end of a cable to test a patch cord or those connected via patch cords to a wall ports and patch panel to test permanent links

Question 143

A Helpdesk support professional is helping set up a computer for a presentation not generally used for presentations. The Helpdesk professional notices that the display connector has 15 pins. Why\at type of cable will the computer need? A. VGA B. DisplayPort C. DVI D. Lightning

Answer 143

A. The 15 pin VGA port was the standard analog video interface for PC for devices for a very long time.

Question 144

A data center admin is setting up new fiber drops and needs a commonly used connector suitable for multi-mode networks. Which connector could the admin use? A. F-type B. FC C. MTRJ D. ST

Answer 144

D. The ST (Straight Tip) connector is a bayonet-style connector that uses a push and twist locking mechanism. It's commonly used in multi-mode networks, but can also be used with single-mode fibers

Question 145

A marketing analyst is trying to connect an Apple device to a corporate PC, but the cable will not fit into the PC connections. What type of adapter should the analyst use? A. SATA B. Thunderbolt C. USB D. HDMI

Answer 145

C. The Lightning port is found only on Apple devices. A suitable adapter cable needs to connect a device to a PC, such as Lightning to USB A or Lightning to USB C

Question 146

A server admin for a major transportation company is facing a crisis where ransomware has taken over and destroyed the primary and backup locations. Luckily there was an unaffected offline domain controller in a remote country where the admin needed to fly immediately and back up the contents via a USB hard drive running USB 3.2 that supports 10 Gbps speeds but must ensure the legacy server can support connectors. Which of the following are supported connectors? A. USB Micro B. USB-A C. USB-C D. USB-B

Answer 146

A, B, & C. The admin used a USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 SuperSpeed USB, which runs up t0 10 Gbps and supports the USB Micro connector

Question 147

An audio visual support tech assists a customer who normally uses a USB 3.0 display cable to connect, but the cable seems to have gone bad. What else could the tech likely use? A. Thunderbolt 3 B. Thunderbolt 2 C. Thunder bolt 1 D. Lightning

Answer 147

A. A USB device plugged into a Thunderbolt 3 port will function normally, but Thunderbolt devices will not work if connected to a USB port that is not Thunderbolt-enabled

Question 148

A organization has asked a security analyst to review the contents of an external drive to see if the drive is reusable or if the organization needs to destroy it. However, the drive does not have a cable that connects to a USB. After finding an older computer that supports the cable type, it still does not see to connect. The analyst notices that there appears to be a cable for what looks like power to the device. What type of cable should the analyst try using? A. eSATA B. Molex C. IDE D. SATA power connector

Answer 148

A. There is an eSATA standard for the attachment pf peripheral drives. eSATAp is a nonstandard powered port used by some vendors

Question 149

A company has tasked a network admin with running ethernet cabling in an enterprise and is told to use the most popular type of network cable with an insulated jacket. Which of the following should the admin use? A. UTP B. Fiber C. STP D. Coax

Answer 149

A. The most popular network cable type is copper wire construction called UTP and contains an insulating jacket in the cable

Question 150

A helpdesk operator is working on an urgent task that needs completing immediately when the network goes down, even for the local network. The helpdesk operator needs to transfer files from a particular computer onto another computer. What type of connector could the operator use to transfer files directly from computer to computer? A. T586A & T568B B. T568B C. RJ11 D. T568A

Answer 150

A. Using T586A at the end and T568B at the other creates a crossover cable. Crossover cables once connected computers directly, but Gigabit Ethernet interfaces can perform the crossover automatically even if using a standard cable

Question 151

A technician ia building out a new desktop PC and is trying to connect the hard drive and ensure it has power. In a more modern system, which cable will provide power? A. 15 pin B. Molex C. 7 pin D. eSATA

Answer 151

A. A separate 15 pin SATA power connector connects the device to the PC's power supply

Question 152

An IT analyst is a huge fan of superhero movies an dis excited about the new movies coming out, so the analyst decides to splurge and buy an 8k television. However, the analyst also wishes to connect a laptop to play games on the television but is unsure which cables support 8k. Which of the following would work? (Select all that apply) A. Thunderbolt B. Premium High speed HDMI C. Ultra high speed HDMI D. DisplayPort

Answer 152

A, B, & C. HDMI versions 2.0 and 2.1 specify premium high speed (up to 18 Gbps). In addition, updates to the original HDMI specification have introduced support for high resolutions, such as 4K and 8K, and gaming features, such as the ability to vary the monitor refresh rate to match the frame rate of the video source. As the name implies, ultra high speed (up to 48 Gbps) cable ratings support 8K. Thunderbolt ports are distinguished from MiniDP by a lightning bolt/flash icon. Version 2 of the standard supports links of up to 20 Gbps.

Question 153

A PC tech is researching why memory is not performing as expected. The tech tried installing quadruple channel memory, but it does not seem to be working as it should. What should the tech also check? (Select all that apply) A. Make sure the full component is installed B. Check for mismatched modules C. Check for flex mode D. Check for bad RAM

Answer 153

A, B, & C. Some CPUs and supporting chipsets have triple or quadruple channel memory controller. In these architectures, if the admin does not install the full component of modules, the system will revert to as many channels as are populated. A configuration with mismatched modules, the system to operate in a single-channel mode. Flex mode means that if A1 contains a 2 GB module and B1 contains a 6 GB module, it will enable the dual channel mode for 2 GB of memory, and the remains 4 GB from the module in B1 will work in single channel mode

Question 154

A graphics artist wants to put together the best possible machine since the plan is to do graphics intensive processing. Which of the following can the graphics artist use to distinguish between memory that appears to be the same? A. Timing B. Transfer rate C. RAM type D. PC-# value

Answer 154

A. The tech can use timings to differentiate the performance of RAM modules that are an identical double rate (DDR) type and speed. Lower timing values are an indicator of better performance

Question 155

A PC operator is building out a new system to replace an engineering tech's older system. The new system is rated 2400 MT/s. The engineer wants to maximize the amount of RAM. Which amount should they put in? A. 8 GB B. 128 GB C. 32 GB D. 16 GB

Answer 155

C. DDR4 is rated at a data rate of 1600 to 3200 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 12.8 to 25.6 GB/s. The max size supported is 32 GB

Question 156

A server admin is looking at older physical servers in the organization environment's environment and notices that while a key web server is in a RAID configuration, no redundant is available. What type of RAID is this? A. 0 B. 5 C. 10 D. 1

Answer 156

A. RAID 0 provides no redundancy at all. Therefore, if any physical disk in the array fails, the whole logical volume will fail, cause the computer to crash and recover data from backup

Question 157

A tech is looking at SATA interface specifications and notices a particular key associated with it. A tech usually keys a SATA interface SSD as what? A. B B. B/M C. M.2 D. M

Answer 157

A. SATA interface SSDs are usually B keyed. An M.2 socket may support both types of drive or only one on the motherboard. The tech should check the documentation

Question 158

A parent, who works in IT, started researching camera and video recorders now that their child plays sports. The parent wants to record every game in the best standard possible, ensuring the storage can keep up with the filmed HD video. Which of the following orders the highest recording speeds? A. UHS-II half duplex B. FD624 C. UHS-11 full duplex D. FD312

Answer 158

B. UHS-II specifies two full duplex rates; the fasted is 624 MBps (FD624). There are also 4 speed variants. The original spec is up to 25 MBps, and UHS allows 108 MBps

Question 159

A gamer primarily uses a desktop computer to set up to handle the most resource intensive games without experiencing any lag. However, the hard drive went bad and needed replacing. What form factor should the gamer buy for it? A. 5 inch B. 7 inch C. 2.5 inch D. 3.5 inch

Answer 159

D. There are two main form factors for HDDs. The mainstream type used in desktop PCs is 3.5 inch units

Question 160

A professional photographer conducts multiple engagements per day and booked solid 5 to 6 days per week. The photographer wants camera story to hold at least 1 TB of data to avoid running out of space while on engagements. Which type of SD card should the photographer buy? A. SD B. SDXC C. CompactFlash D. SDHC

Answer 160

B. Secure digital extended capacity (SDXC) has a maximum capacity of up to 2 TB. In addition, there are several proprietary types of memory cards, each of which also has different sizes and performance ratings

Question 161

A computer specialist is helping a medium sized business with several forward offices which control construction sites in various cities. Each forward office has VPN connectivity established back to the main office. The business wants to set up a central storage location for file services, but the specialist does not know how to set up a file server. Which of the following would be the best option for their needs? A. SSD B. NAS C. HDD D. NVMe

Answer 161

B. Some enclosures can connect directly to a network rather than a PC and are known as Network attached storage (NAS)

Question 162

A PC tech looks at how a SATA drive communicates with the bus. What will the tech find? A. NAND B. AHCI C. NVMe D. ESD

Answer 162

B. SATA uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus. Consequently, modern SSDs often directly use the PCIe bus

Question 163

A computer enthusiast receives a 3-D printer and decides to build a laptop case since their current laptop keeps overheating. So the enthusiast wants to design something that has better airflow. The computer enthusiast is creating the area for the internal hard drive but needs to make sure it is tall enough. Which of the following is NOT a standard height? A. 9.5 mm B. 7 mm C. 5.5 mm D. 15 mm

Answer 163

C. Devices with 2.5 inch form factors can vary in height, with 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm form factors available. However, 5.5 mm is not a standard size

Question 164

A network administrator is setting up a DHCP server, and the supervisor requests using the best high performance hard drives possible. Which of the following should the admin use? A. 8,600 rpm B. 10,000 rpm C. 5,400 rpm D. 15,000 rpm

Answer 164

D. The units for speed are known as revolutions per minute (RPM). High performance drives are rated at 15,000 or 10,000 rpm

Question 165

An avid gamer receives a new rig that should handle games at their most intensive graphics settings. The gamer starts immediately and finds that the desktop runs quite war, but the fans have not started kicking in yet. What is the first thing the gamer should check? A. Power B. UEFI C. Heat sink D. Thermal paste

Answer 165

B. System settings can control most cooling fans, typically under a cooling power, or advanced menu. The UEFI can control this

Question 166

A user accidentally entered the UEFI setup grogram. How can the user generally get out? A. Escape B. Mouse C. F10 D. F2

Answer 166

B. UEFI setup programs use a graphical interface and have mouse support, though advanced menus may still require keyboard navigation

Question 167

A server engineer replaces the company's gold standard image quarterly, which they use to provision virtual machines. The engineer often has to wait for hours for the gold images to download since the company has several operating systems to maintain. The engineer checks with the networking department and confirms the internet speed, routing, and switching are not the holdup. What component can the engineer replace on their endpoint to help? A. Hard drive B. Capture card C. NIC D. Memory

Answer 167

C. A dedicated NIC may also provide multiple ports. The engineer can bond these into a single higher bandwidth link

Question 168

A server tech sets up a small server at home to keep up with emerging technology and learn in a test environment at home. However, the tech wants a lower power consumption to use a small form factor. Also, since the tech is building it from scratch, what type of motherboard should the tech get? A. ATX B. Mini-ITX C. mATX D. CompactFlash

Answer 168

B. SFF PCs are popular as home machines and mini servers. SFF PCs often use Via's Mini-ITX (IT Extended) form factor

Question 169

A PC tech often likes to build computers from scratch and resell them. The tech is researching chip architectures and is interested in a system-on-chip. What does the tech have an interest in? A. x64 B. Emulation C. x86 D. ARM

Answer 169

D. An advanced reduced instruction set computing (RISC) machine design implements a system-on-chip (SoC). SoC means that all the controllers, video, sound, networking, and storage are part of the CPU

Question 170

A server admin assesses various types of server hardware, specifically chipsets. The admin plans to run a hypervisor on the hardware, which will run several hundred virtual machines. What would be the best chip type to use? A. x64 B. ARM C. Emulation D. x86

Answer 170

A. The x64 chip is the best and most powerful type to use. The x86 instruction set is extended for 64 bit operation as the x64 instruction set, developed initially by AMD as AMD64 or x86-64

Question 171

A computer operator has an x8 PCIe bit plugs it into an x16 connector. The operator notices that the performance seems to be a but sluggish. What is the most likely cause? A. It defaulted to a slower speed because of the mismatch B. It is working fine C. It is only working at x1 D. The RAM does not match

Answer 171

C. An x8 card will fit in an x8 or x16 socket. Therefore, the card should work at x8, but in some circumstances, it may only work at x1

Question 172

A PC tech is diagnosing a faulty laptop and finds that the memory has likely gone bad, so the technician opens the case to try and replace it. However, the tech gets sidetracked when noticing that the SSD is provisioned in an adapter card form factor. What format is this most likely in? A. SAN B. eSATA C. M.2 D. SATA

Answer 172

C. A technician can provision a SSD in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. As well, an M.2 port orients horizontally

Question 173

A gamer wants to build a new desktop completely from scratch, and the standard regular case has just came in. Which type of motherboard should the gamer order? A. RAID B. ATX C. ITX D. mATX

Answer 173

B. The ATX spec is the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboard and case. Full size ATX boards are 12 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep (305 mm x 244 mm)

Question 174

A helpdesk tech checks a computer for a developer who complains that the computer is running relatively slow and needs a faster computer. Which of the following will help the tech see if the system is a multi-socket? A. Task manager B. Programs & features C. UEFI D. File explorer

Answer 174

A. The CPU page in Task Manager shows whether the system is multi-socket and the number of cores and logical processors (HyperThreading), plus whether virtualization is enabled

Question 175

A server admin researches various chipsets for the organizations's physical servers, which use x64 chipsets. Who are the main companies that make chipsets? (Select all that apply) A. Samsung B. Qualcomm C. AMD D. Intel

Answer 175

C & D. The x86 instruction set is extended for 64 bit operation as the x64 instruction set, developed initially by AMD as AMD64 or x86-64

Question 176

A server admin often downloads large files onto the desktop provisioned as virtual machines. The admin often waits for hours, even though there is a physical connection to the internet. The company's internet should be able to handle significantly faster downloads. What component should the admin upgrade to increase their download? A. NIC B. Hard drive C. Memory D. Capture card

Answer 176

A. A dedicated NIC may also provide multiple ports. The admin can bond these into a single higher bandwidth link

Question 177

A PC technician is helping out a non profit organization who has older laptops. They want to implement data at rest encryption, but the laptops are older and do not support a TPM. What should the tech use? A. PGA B. HSM C. Boot password D. UEFI

Answer 177

B. A secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material can be a HSM, which is useful if the computer does not support TPM

Question 178

What are the benefits to a HDD SMART feature? (Select all that apply) A. Check data recovery options B. Check performance issues C. Check for physical damage D. Check for RAID failure

Answer 178

B & C. SMART can alert the OS when detecting a failure as well as run advanced diagnostics tests to check on performance issues

Question 179

A medium sized organization expands operations and grows the admin team to keep up with increased business. As part of expanding admin capabilities for record keeping, they have purchased an impact printer for its versatility in usefulness. Which of the following types of paper can the org use? (Select all that apply) A. Plain B. Carbon C. Tractor fed D. Thermal

Answer 179

A, B, & C. Plain, tractor fed & carbon

Question 180

An engineer is deploying a client side virtualization workstation. What resource requirements should the engineer consider? (Select all that apply) A. CPU and virtualization extensions B. Networking C. Host security D. Guest OS security

Answer 180

A & B. Most virtualization software requires a CPU with virtualization support enabled. A hypervisor will create a virtual network environment through which all the VMs can communicate and has a network shared by the host and by VMs on the same host and other hosts

Question 181

A cyber team is developing a client side virtualization environment for 3rd party contracted employees. What action does the team complete using a VM and guest OS hypervisor to ensure the environment is functioning properly? A. Testing and development B. Cross platform virtualization C. Sandbox D. Legacy software/OS

Answer 181

A. Testing and developement typically use a virtual desktop platform with a guest OS hypervisor. This ensures it is working as expected

Question 182

When planning to deploy a client side virtualization solution for malware analysis where no network connectivity is needed, what are some of the issues that a tech must consider? (Select all that apply) A. The resource requirements B. The security requirements C. A cloud storage solution D. A wireless access point solution

Answer 182

A & B. When planning a virtualization solution, the resource requirements, such as the CPU, memory, storage & security should be addressed to ensure no constraints exist

Question 183

A tech is troubleshooting a computer with a user's complaint that the device has no power. To isolate the cause for the issue, what tests can the tech conduct on the computer? (Select all that apply) A. Attempt to detect any burning smells from the computer B. Check that other equipment in the area is working C. Disconnect extra devices D. Plug in a known-good basic electrical, such as a lamp into the wall socket

Answer 183

B, C & D

Question 184

A helpdesk tech evaluates a ticketed computer and, during the troubleshooting protocols, identifies an issue around disk/file corruption problems. Based on the disk/file corruption problems, what issue is occurring? A. Capacitor swelling B. App crash C. Inaccurate system date/time D. No power

Answer 184

B. App crashes are difficult to diagnose with a specific cause, especially if the tech is not able to witness events directly. Some most likely causes are software, disk/file corruption problems, or malware issues

Question 184

A stand alone app closes abruptly while the user remains logged on to the Windows desktop computer. What sort of internal issue would cause this app to crash? A. Loss of power B. Power supply fan grinding C. Not enough memory capacity D. Wrong system time

Answer 184

C. Apps need a certain amount of memory space to run properly. If there is not enough memory, the app may crash since it can no longer function

Question 185

What beep codes would a computer tech hear if a legacy IBM desktop computer is experiencing a motherboard issue? (Select all that apply) A. No beep B. Repeating short beeps C. Three long beeps D. One long, three short beeps

Answer 185

A & B. No beep or repeating short beep may indicate a faulty power supply or motherboard issue

Question 186

Which printer uses lasers to draw an image on an electrically charged, photosensitive drum that rotates at the same rate as the paper moving through. The toner that adheres to the drum is transferred onto the paper as it moves through the device. If errors occurs in the image, such as ghost images, they are likely due to a drum fault? A. Laser printer B. 3-D printer C. Impact printer D. Thermal

Answer 186

A.

Question 186

Hearing 3 long beeps when powering on a legacy IBM desktop computer will indicate which of the following issues is occurring on the computer? A. Keyboard issue B. Motherboard issue C. POST error D. Normal post

Answer 186

A. Three long beeps would indicate a keyboard issue. First, check that a key is not depressed. Then, tap on every key or re-insert the keyboard USB into the computer to resolve

Question 187

What type of printer uses an extruder to draw a filament through to a nozzle which melts the filament and layers it onto an object? A. Laser printer B. 3-D printer C. Impact printer D. Thermal printer

Answer 187

B.

Question 188

When using a legacy IBM desktop computer, hearing two short beeps would indicate the computer is experiencing what sort of issue? A. No error B. Video adapter error C. System memory error D. POST error

Answer 188

D. A POST error occurs when a tech hears two short beeps. The monitor would present an error code to troubleshoot further

Question 189

A stand alone app closes abruptly while the user remains logged on to the Windows desktop computer. What sort if internal issue would cause the app to crash? A. Power supply fan grinding B. Loss of power C. Not enough memory capacity D. Wrong system time

Answer 189

C. Apps need a certain amount of memory space to run properly. If there is not enough memory, the app may crash since it can no longer function

Question 190

A user is reporting a loss of audio on his desktop PC. The PC uses wired speakers with a 3.5mm jack. Prescribe steps for diagnosing the audio issues. (Select all that apply) A. Ensure the computer is using HDMI B. Check the power and volume on the speakers C. Check the volume in the OS D. Check the 3.5mm cable connection

Answer 190

B, C, & D.

Question 191

A user submits a support ticket stating there's a lack of audio signal to the display. The user's computer has a display with built-in audio and a DVI cable connected to a fully-updated Windows PC. Diagnose the lack of audio. A. Using an incorrect cable type B. Outdated audio drivers C. Failing monitor circuitry D. Output resolution does not match device's native resolution

Answer 191

A. Since the DVI does not provide sound, the tech must link the speakers to the computer's audio interfaces through 3.5mm connectors

Question 192

A digital art studio has requested support in calibrating the displays of their new graphics workstations. Describe how the support tech can perform this calibration in Windows 10. A. Editing Windows registry entries with regedit.exe B. Driver settings in device manager C. The monitor's OSD D. Color management applet in control panel

Answer 192

D. The tech should set up color settings using a color profile. The control panel's color management applet can establish a color profile and ensure that the display matches it

Question 193

Which display issue can a computer tech often fix by using a software utility to cycle through extreme color gradients? A. Dead pixels B. Stuck pixels C. Fuzzy image D. Flashing screen

Answer 193

B. A digital display panel may have stuck pixels. There are software programs available that can cycle the pixel through a variety of rather severe color states to revive it

Question 194

An office user tries to display a Power Point presentation using a DLP projector and a laptop, but no video is displayed. Next, the user attempts to connect the DLP projector to a desktop workstation with the same result. In both cases, the user connected the projector with a HDMI cable. How would a tech troubleshoot the display issues in both of these cases? (Select all that apply) A. Check for dead pixels on the screen B. Check if the bulb is working C. Check if the data source is selected correctly D. Check that the HDMI cable is working with other displays

Answer 194

B, C, & D.

Question 195

Select the types of video cable that are capable of delivering a combined video and audio signal. (Select all that apply) A. VGA B. DVI C. DisplayPort D. HDMI

Answer 195

C & D.

Question 196

Which of the following signs would indicate an overworked HDD due to insufficient system RAM? A. Constant LED activity B. Missing drive in the OS C. Bad sectors D. Clicking sounds

Answer 196

A. Constant activity, often referred to as disk thrashing, can signify that there is not enough system RAM so that paging (virtual memory) is continually using the disk

Question 197

A Windows admin had to troubleshoot a virtual and physical server due to issues during boot. The resolution was to repair the MBR on one server and repair the EFI bootloader on the other server. What clues did the admin notice that resulted in these previously mentioned actions? (Select all that apply) A. The computer monitor stated, "OS not found" B. The desktop showed the BSOD C. The SMART is off D. The VM console displayed "Boot device not found"

Answer 197

A & D. Boot device not found is referring to the first sector of the first partition of a disk. If the EFI bootloader is corrupted it'll show "No OS found error"

Question 198

______ , developed for server-class hardware, comes in 8-pin + 12V connections. You can identify the connector by the four pairs of yellow and black wires and the 8 pins A. P1 B. SATA C. Molex D. Molex KK E. EPS 12V

Answer 198

E. EPS 12V

Question 199

_______ , attaches internal drives to the motherboard in a desktop personal computer. There are two types: one for data, which you can identify by the red flat cable, and one for power which you can identify by the multi-colored cables. Some of them do have a fifth orange wire to supply +3.3V in addition to +5V & 12V A. P1 B. SATA C. Molex D. Molex KK E. EPS 12V

Answer 199

B. SATA

Question 200

____ , commonly used to connect the fan to the motherboard and can supply +5V or +12V. This connector has 3 circular pins, and you can identify it by its wiring order of black, yellow and red A. P1 B. SATA C. Molex D. Molex KK E. EPS 12V

Answer 200

D. Molex KK

Question 201

________ , is the primary connector for power from the PSU to the motherboard. This is a long, two-pin-wide, 24-pin (20 + 4 pin) connector identified by the black, yellow, orange, and red wires that feed the pins. The black wires are for grounding; the yellow wires supply +12V; the red wires supply +5V; and the orange wires supply +3.3V A. P1 B. SATA C. Molex D. Molex KK E. EPS 12V

Answer 201

A. P1

Question 202

You can identify the ________ by its white color and 4 pins coupled with red, yellow, and black wires. ______ is an older connector that supplies power to peripheral devices housed inside the system's case, such as optical or disk drives. A ______ rates for +5V or +12V A. P1 B. SATA C. Molex D. Molex KK E. EPS 12V

Answer 202

C. Molex

Question 203

The desktop computer cannot find a bootable disk. What may be wrong with the HDD? (Select all that apply) A. File corruption B. System memory fault C. Low IOPS D. Faulty disk

Answer 203

A & D. If the desktop computer fails to boot from the fixed disk, the disk may be faulty or file corruption may be on the drive

Question 204

The enterprise monitoring software for desktop computers in the office reported a "pre-failure" disk alert and high read times for a specific office computer. What symptoms could the desktop user describe to confirm the monitoring alerts? (Select all that apply) A. There is a SMART alert notification B. Desktop monitor shows "No OS found" C. The OS loads very slowly D. DISK LED lights are not flashing

Answer 204

A & C. High read times on a disk can cause the OS on the disk to load very slowly. SMART can alert the OS when detecting a failure or pre-failure on a disk. A pre-failure alert means the disk is about to fail soon

Question 205

A 5 year old office workstation slowly loads the Windows OS. The computer user had mentioned waiting 10 minutes in one case before the desktop screen was viewable. Suspecting an issue is with the HDD, what symptoms would explain the type of behavior the user is witnessing in the workstation? (Select all that apply) A. LED lights are not flashing on the drive B. HDD is taking too long to read data C. SMART has detected a failure D. Computer cannot find a boot disk

Answer 205

B & C.

Question 206

The desktop tech could not use an entry-level RAID controller within a brand-new office workstation to improve data protection due to it not supporting which of the following RAID types (Select all that apply) A. RAID 1 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 10

Answer 206

B & D.

Question 207

The IP scale indicates the ratings for protection against solids and lipids for a given device or the device's case. What level or protection does a rating of IP67 indicate? A. Dust protected, unrated liquid protection B. Dust proof, protected from immersion up to 1m C. Dust protected, protected from immersion beyond 1m D. Dust protection unrated, protected from immersion up to 1m

Answer 207

B. A case or device will have a label with two digits, such as IP67. A 5 or 6 rating for repelling solids indicates that the equipment is dust resistant. The second number is for liquids, with a 7 protecting against immersion up to 1m

Question 208

A customer brings a mobile device to a support tech since the device powers on only when connected directly to a power outlet. What are the first two things the tech should check? (Select all that apply) A. Check to see if an app is putting excessive strain on the battery B. Check if the customer is using an approved charger and cable C. Check that the battery contacts are clean D. Check that the battery is properly seated in its compartment

Answer 208

C & D. If a mobile device will not power on when disconnected from a buildings power, check that the battery is seated and the battery connectors are free of debris

Question 209

A support technician is connecting a current stand EIDE cable to a PC's motherboard and knows that pin 1 on the cable must match up with pin 1 on the port. How can the tech know where pin 1 is on the cable? A. Pin 1 has a blue stripe B. Pin 1 has a black stripe C. Pin 1 has a red stripe D. Pin 1 has a grey stripe

Answer 209

C. On the cable, pin 1 has a red stripe. Manufacturers also key the connectors to prevent techs from inserting them the wrong way around

Question 210

A support tech manages digital displays but has some older computers with video cards that can support both analog and digital monitors. What type of video interface do older computers have? A. HDMI B. DVI C. VGA D. DisplayPort

Answer 210

B. The older computers have a DVI that supports both analog and digital outputs. DVI is no longer in active development and is only on the older display devices and video cards

Question 211

Which of the following statements regarding modern connectors and ports is untrue? A. They use edge contacts B. They use internal connection points C. They sometimes use keying D. They can be reversible

Answer 211

B. I/O ports are the external connection port for a particular type of bus interface and the connector is the part of a peripheral cable that inserts into a port with the same shape

Question 212

A support tech plugged a monitor with a USB C cable connector into a USB C port on the computer, but the monitor would not function. Why would the monitor not work? A. It was not an HDMI cable B. It was not a DisplayPort C. It was not a Lightning cable D. It was not a Thunderbolt version 3 cable

Answer 212

D. USB-C may not work for display purposes without a Thunderbolt-capable cable. Thunderbolt version 3 uses the same connectors as a USB-C cable

Question 213

A support tech needs to connect the USB port on a portable monitor to an HDMI port on a laptop to extend the laptop's display. What kind of cable will the tech use to accomplish this? A. SCSI B. Adapter C. EIDE D. DVI

Answer 213

B. The tech will use an adapter cable to connect the HDMI port on the laptop with a USB port on the monitor. An adapter cable has connectors for two different cable types at each end

Question 214

A support tech is working on a motherboard that is 12'' x 9.6'' and has 7 expansion slots. Which form factor is the tech working with? A. ATX B. mATX C. SFF D. Mini-ITX

Answer 214

The ATX spec is the standard form factor for most desktop PC motherboards and is 12'' wide by 9.6'' deep and can contain up to 7 expansion slots