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z:2017 - Biosci 107 2/2 > Composition and features of blood > Flashcards

Composition and features of blood Flashcards

1
Q

How much blood does the average person have?

A

5L

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2
Q

How much blood circulates through your heart every 24hrs?

A

14,000L

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3
Q

What is the relative blood volume and flow rate of large and small vessels?

A

Large = high volume, low flow Small = low volume high flow

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4
Q

What is the relative pressure of blood in capillaries?

A

Quite high

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5
Q

What is the major pump of the body?

A

The heart

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6
Q

What is the heart doing when the systolic blood pressure is being measured?

A

It is contracting its hardest

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7
Q

What are arteries made of? What does this allow them to do?

A

Smooth muscle Allows them to contract and expand

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8
Q

What does blood pressure ensure? What are the properties of the blood pressure flowing through the capillaries?

A

Even and efficient flow through the small capillaries Low enough to prevent capillary leakage (e.g. spilling content out of cell) but high enough to prevent coagulation (e.g. turning into a thick semi-solid substance)

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9
Q

What strutures in arteries controls blood flow direction?

A

Valves

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10
Q

Which chamber of the heart is the largest? What does this chamber do?

A

Left ventricle Pumps oxygenated blood through the aorta

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11
Q

What are the relative pressures of the arteries and veins? What is the purpose of this?

A

Arteries have a much higher blood pressure This ensures that the blood is always moving in one direction

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12
Q

What makes up the blood?

A

Cells, proteins, lipids, electrolytes, vitamins/hormones and glucose

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13
Q

What kind of cells are part of the blood?

A

erythroid, myeloid and lymphoid

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14
Q

What are the three major proteins of the blood?

A

Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen

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15
Q

What are erythroid cells? What do they do?

A

Red blood cells pick up and transport O2 to blood cells

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16
Q

What are myeloid cells?

A

White blood cells provide innate immunity

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17
Q

What is the function of the lymphoid cells?

A

Provide the adaptable aspects of the immune system

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18
Q

What is the most common type of protein in blood? What percent?

A

Albumin 40-50%

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19
Q

Where is haemoglobin found?

A

In erythroid cells

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20
Q

What is the function of fibrinogen?

A

Coagulation by forming a fibrin clot

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21
Q

What do immunoglobulins do? What kind of major protein is this?

A

Make up your adaptive humoral (body fluids) immune response

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22
Q

How are lipids found in the blood?

A

They are bound to lipoproteins

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23
Q

What are the types of lipoproteins?

A

High density lipoprotein (HDL), low density lipoprotein (LDL) and very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)

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24
Q

What are the functions of electrolytes in the blood?

A

Provide pH buffering and maintain osmolarity

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25
Q

What are the important electrolytes in the blood?

A

HCO3-, Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, creatine and creatinine

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26
Q

What are the functions of HCO3-, creatine and creatinine in the blood?

A

Provide buffers to prevent large changes in pH of the blood

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27
Q

What are the functions of Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, Mg2+ and K+ in the blood?

A

Maintain osmolarity in the blood

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28
Q

What are the two major components of whole blood? What are their relative percentages of whole blood?

A

Plasma = 55%, formed elements = 45%

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29
Q

Where is albumin made? What is its function in the blood?

A

Liver Maintains osmotic pressure to prevent too much water moving in and out of vessels, binds and transports many small molecules/hormones

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30
Q

How much does fibrinogen make up the blood? What is its structures? What is its function and how does it do it?

A

7% three chain of fibre nodules When the three chains are cleaved they form the fibre clot

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31
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma that has fibrinogen removed

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32
Q

What is the colour of serum? What happens to the colour once you’ve eaten a fatty meal? What causes this change?

A

Straw coloured/yellow liquid Goes murkier and whiter There are more lipoproteins that have picked up lipids form the gut and solubilised them

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33
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

A method used to measure the percentages of serum proteins

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34
Q

How does electrophoresis work?

A

Exposes serum proteins to an electric field which causes each protein to move differently due to their unique charges on them

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35
Q

What are the different types of globulin?

A

α1, α2, ß and γ

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36
Q

What important protein is found in the γ globulins?

A

Immunoglobulins

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37
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A form of leukaemia where a malignant lymphocyte produce monoclonal (e.g.cloning itself) immunoglobulins

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38
Q

What is a major difference in the electrophoresis graph of a normal patient and someone with multiple myeloma? What does this indicate?

A

Multiple myeloma will have a very large spike of γ globulins Shows there is excess production of immunoglobulins

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39
Q

What are the 6 key (includes major FYI) blood components that are in the blood?

A

Albumin, fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, complements, coagulation factors and electrolytes

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40
Q

What produces immunoglobulins? What are they?

A

B lymphocytes Antigen binding proteins

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41
Q

What is you innate immune response?

A

The immediate immune response signifying that infections need to be tracked and removed

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42
Q

What do complements do?

A

Coat bacteria targeting them for phagocytosis

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43
Q

How many types of complements are there?

A

9 protein types

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44
Q

What are coagulation factors? How many types are there?

A

from fibre from fibrinogen resulting in coagulation of the blood 13

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45
Q

What condition arises from a lack of coagulation? What if deficient in a person suffering from this?

A

Haemophilia Factor VIII deficient is most common

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46
Q

What is the function of electrolytes?

A

Maintain isotonicity and pH

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47
Q

What pH is the blood maintained at?

A

pH = 7.4

48
Q

What is the most tightly regulated ion in the body? What percent does it vary by the most?

A

Potassium, 2-3%

49
Q

What are and what is the concentration and what are the functions of the three main cells in the blood?

A

Erthyocytes = 5-6 million cells per ml, oxygen transport Leukocytes = 10,000/ml, immune defence Platelets = 400,000/ml, coagulation and tissue repair

50
Q

Label the tree diagram stating the origins of the blood cells and also the location of them if there is a red box next to them. Which of these cells are involved in innate immunity? Which are involved in the adaptive immunity?

A

Hematopoiesis diagram

51
Q

What produces platelets?

A

Megakaryocyte

52
Q

What is the condition called when the number of leukocytes drops? What is this usually caused by?

A

Leukopenic Infection

53
Q

If you are severely Leukopenic what does that make a patient prone to?

A

Infections

54
Q

What is the origin for all blood cells?

A

Multipotential hematopoietic stem cell

55
Q

How are multipotential hematopoietic stem cell’s characterised?

A

By CD34, (cd = cluster differentiation FYI)

56
Q

What are cluster differentiation markers used for? How many are there?

A

Used to identify all the various markers on the blood cells At least 250

57
Q

Where do multipotential hematopoietic stem cells reside mostly?

A

In the bone marrow

58
Q

When and where are the concentration of multipotential hematopoietic stem cells highest?

A

During embryo development in the placental cord blood

59
Q

What is the main function of the megakaryocyte?

A

Produces the platelets of the body (Thrombocytes)

60
Q

What are mast cells apart of?

A

Part of your innate adaptive immune system

61
Q

What kind of myeloblasts are white blood cells in the blood most commonly?

A

Neutrophil and monocytes

62
Q

What are the identify characteristic of the cells produced by myeloblasts?

A

Neutrophil = multiple lobed nucleus Eosinophil = bilabial nucleus with bright red nucleus Basophil = dark stained nucleus Monocytes = single large nucleus (~60% of cell volume)

63
Q

What do monocytes differentiate into when there is infection? What does this cell do?

A

Macrophages Phagocytic response + presentation of antigen to adaptive immune response

64
Q

What do plasma cells do?

A

Produce antibodies

65
Q

What kind of treatment is used on patients with leukaemia that have not been successful with other chemotherapies?

A

Autologous Human stem cell transplant

66
Q

What does Autologous human stem cell transplant do?

A

Anti-CD34 antibodies are used to select, concentrate and extract Hematopoietic stem cells are then extracted from the bone marrow and stored. Tissue is radio-ablated destroying malignant cells and the stem cells are then reinserted back into the bone marrow

67
Q

What is a risk while the patient is receiving autologous human stem cell transplant? Why is this so?

A

The patient will develop an infection Removing the CD34 from the bone marrow means no new white blood cells are produced removing patients immune defence

68
Q

How many hematopoietic stem cells are there per 10,000 white blood cells?

A

1 per 10,000

69
Q

What is haematopoiesis?

A

The formation of blood cell components

70
Q

What are three important factors that drive haematopoiesis

A

Granulocytes macrophage colony-stimulation factor (GM-CSF), Erythropoietin (EPO) and granulocyte colony-stimulation factor (G-CSF)

71
Q

What are GM-CSF produced by?

A

Macrophages, T cells, endothelial cells and fibroblasts

72
Q

What does GM-CSF stimulate the production of? What are all these cells produced apart of?

A

Stimulates the produces of neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and monocytes (collectively known as granulocytes FYI) Apart of the innate immune response

73
Q

What cells are G-CSF produced by?

A

Produced by lots of different cells, no one main cell

74
Q

What does G-CSF do?

A

Stimulates the production of granulocytes and also matures neutrophils

75
Q

How are GM-CSF and G-CSF used during Autologous Human stem cell transplant?

A

Used to rapidly re-populate white blood cell count following radio-abalation

76
Q

What does EPO do?

A

Boosts red blood cell count

77
Q

What is a natural way to increase EPO?

A

Live in high altitude where there is lower pressure of O2

78
Q

How can EPO be dangerous?

A

Too many red blood cells can thicken the blood too much resulting in co-agulation

79
Q

What is the first condition experienced by someone with a lung infection?

A

Tiredness

80
Q

What molecule regulates oxygen transport?

A

Heme

81
Q

How many heme molecules are there in a single haemoglobin molecule?

A

4

82
Q

What is the primary atom/ion is used to bind oxygen?

A

Ferris, Fe2+

83
Q

What regulates the disassociation of O2 from the Fe2+ in heme?

A

The partial pressure of oxygen

84
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen and CO2 in air, lung alveoli, arterial blood and venous blood?

A

Air: pO2 = 160mmHg, pCO2 = 0.3 Lung: 100, 35 Arterial blood: 80-100, 40 Venous blood: 20-40, 50

85
Q

Under what conditions of the partial pressure of O2 does O2 associate and disassociate from heme? Where are these locations of dis/association

A

Associates in high pO2, e.g. lungs Disassociates in low pO2, e.g. tissue

86
Q

What is the function of O2 in respiration?

A

It is the main source of electrons in the electron transfer chain

87
Q

What are two molecules that inhibit the ability for heme to bind O2? What does it do to impact association with O2?

A

carbon monoxide (CO) and cyanide (CN) Bind to iron displacing O2

88
Q

What heme contain proteins are affected by CO and CN?

A

CO binds to the Fe2+ in heme in: haemoglobin CN bind to the Fe2+ in heme in: Cytochrome-C oxidase (an enzyme in ECM cascade in mitochondria FYI)

89
Q

What are the immediate impacts of CN if ingested/inhaled?

A

Stops the heart muscles from contracting (no O2 = no ATP)

90
Q

What are the ways which white blood cells are activated?

A

Classical, lectin and alternative activation

91
Q

What is classical activation mediated by? What does it activate?

A

By antibodies Macrophages and neutrophils

92
Q

How does classical activation work? What receptors on the neutrophil bind activatd C3 onto ______?

A

1 - Antibody binds to an antigen on the surface of the microbe recruiting the first component of complement, C1, binding to back end of the antibody

2 - C1 activates C4 and C2 which are cleaved (small part removed FYI), forming convertase, this binds covalently to surface of bacteria recruiting C3

3 - C3 then generates more of itself so more covalent bonds accumulates on surface of bacteria called convertases

4 - From here two things happen:

4i: anaphylatoxins are released attracting neutrophils (neutrophils have receptors which detect anaphylatoxins and move along the chemical gradient pathway to the bacteria)
4ii: C3 forms opsonin making them more susceptive to phagocytosis

5 - C3 then activate the end stage protein C5, which generates C5b which coalesces with C6, 7, 8, 9 forming a pore in the surface of the bacteria membrane allowing lysis, this is called a membrane attack complex

CR1, CR2, CR3 bind activated C3 onto the surface of the bacteria <– essentail for phagocytosis

93
Q

What are C# in the classical activation pathway?

A

complement proteins

94
Q

What are anaphylatoxins? What are the types that are used?

A

Small fragments that are cleaved off the C3, C4 and C5 during activation of the complement system

95
Q

When is the complement system activated?

A

To respond to an immune response

96
Q

What is the term used to describe the opsonin binding to the surface of the bacteria? What does this do?

A

buttering of microbe, essential for attracting phagocytic cells for phagocytosis

97
Q

The numbering of the complement proteins is not in cascade order, what is the method or numbering?

A

Numbered based on order of discovery

98
Q

What is lysis?

A

The rupturing of the cell membrane

99
Q

Are the bonds which are formed between the complements and microbe membrane permanent or reversible? Why is this? What is this bonding called?

A

Permanent because they are covalent Microbes become opsonised

100
Q

What part of the complements is protected? What happens when it is not protected?

A

The thioester Binds to hydroxyl nucleophiles groups on the membrane of the microbe

101
Q

How does the thioester become unprotected? Which complements is this protected on?

A

It is cleaved C3 and C4

102
Q

What on the thioester gives it its reactive properties?

A

A reactive carbonyl group

103
Q

What are the two ways which the coagulation pathway is activated?

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

104
Q

How is the intrinsic pathway activated?

A

When blood comes into contact with something

105
Q

How is the extrinsic pathway activated?

A

When tissued becomes inflamed (e.g. damaged)

106
Q

What are the protein factors involved in the intrinsic pathway?

A

Factors: VIII, IX, XI and XII

107
Q

What are the protein factors involved in the extrinsic pathway?

A

Factors: Tissue factor, V and VII

108
Q

What factor do both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway activate?

A

Factor X

109
Q

What does factor X do?

A

It become activated into Xa and Xa then cleaves prothrombin into thrombin

110
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

It cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin

111
Q

What does fibrin do once formed?

A

Forms covalent bonds and cross links between each other clotting blood

112
Q

What are the two types of clots?

A

Soft clots and hard clots

113
Q

What is a soft clot?

A

A clot that is destabilised and becomes a hard clot over time

114
Q

What does an anti-coagulator do? Give an example of an anti-coagulator and where it comes from

A

Inhibits the thrombin enzyme Hirudin from leech or Heparin from mosquito

115
Q

What enzyme can be used to dissolve a clot? What is it converted from?

A

Plasmin Plasminogen (is a zymogen FYI [inactive unit activated by an enzyme FYI])

z:2017 - Biosci 107 2/2 (16 decks)

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