Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

APA/Foundations 1 > complications > Flashcards

complications Flashcards

1
Q

Top 3 ASA closed claims

A

Death
Nerve Injury
Brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 biggest human errors leading to preventable anesthetic accidents

A

Medication errors**
IV line disconnection (or infiltration)
Anesthesia machine misuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which 3 settings are associated with awareness*

A

major trauma**
obstetrics
cardiac surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

awareness rate

A

0.1-0.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

scopolamine has what kind of effect

A

retrograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common eye injury*

A

corneal abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common cause of post op loss of vision

A

ischemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

A

optic nerve infarction due to decreased oxygen delivery via one or more arterioles supplying the optic nerve
(ischemic optic nerve from hypotension, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ION is commonly reported after which surgeries

A

cardiopulmonary bypass
radical neck dissection
abd and hip procedures
spinal surgeries in prone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

contributing patient factors to ION

A

HTN, DM, CAD, Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 positions that compromise venous outflow

A

prone
head down
compressed abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

onset of ION

A

immediately and through 12 post op day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prevention of ischemic optic neuropathy: enhance venous outflow by positioning the patient

A

head up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common CV event after non cardiac surgery

A

MI*

5% patients > 45 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spinal anesthesia severe complication?

A

cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Spinal anesthesia cardiac arrest c/o associated with

A

high level of block (T4)

fast injection time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Signs and sx prior to cardiac arrest with spinal anesthesia

A
  • gradual ↓ in HR and BP (<20% of baseline)
  • ↓ HR
  • ↓ BP
  • cyanosis

check if can wiggle fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4 types of hypersensitivity reactions

A

type 1 immediate, type 2 cytotoxic, type 3 immune complex, type 4 delayed, cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

anaphylaxis

A

exaggerated response to an allergen that is mediated by a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

anaphylaxis appears within

A

minutes of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prevention of ION - minimize ___ constriction

A

abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

prevention of ION: limit degree and duration of ___

A

deliberate hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

prevention of ION: avoid ___ (think blood)

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cardiac accelerators are

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
3 drugs for CPB arrest after spinal
ephedrine, atropine, epi
26
what causes hearing loss after spinal
CSF leak
27
what do you treat hearing loss due to csf leak with
blood patch
28
what is an allergic reaction
eggaterated immunologic response to antigenic stimulation a previously sensitized individual
29
antigen or allergen is typically
a protein, a polypeptide, or smaller molecule that is covalently bound to a carrier protein
30
first exposure in anaphylactic reaction what happens
antigen - b cell- IgE binds to surface of mast cell
31
second exposure of antigen
causes the cell to release histamine and histamine increases the permeability and distention of the blood capillaries
32
allergic reaction: pt can lose up to 50% of ___ volume into the ____ space
intravascular , extravascular
33
type 1 immediate allergic reaction
atopy, urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis
34
type 2 cytotoxic allergic reaction
hemolytic transfusion reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, heparin induced thrombocytopenia,
35
type 4 delayed, cell-mediated
contact dermatitis
36
latex is type
4
37
graft rejection is type
4
38
RA is type
3
39
blood type incompatibilities is type
2
40
anaphylaxis presents as
acute resp distress and/or circulatory shock
41
incidence of anaphylactic reactions during anesthesia
1:500 to 1:25000
42
mediators of anaphylaxis
histamine, leukotrienes, BK-A, platelet-activating factor
43
CV anaphylaxis
hypotension, tachycardia, arrhythmias
44
anaphylaxis pulmonary
bronchospasm, cough, dyspnea, pulm edema, laryngeal edema, hypoxia
45
dermatologic manifestation of anaphylaxis
uticaria, facial edema, pruritis
46
anaphylactoid reactions
resemble anaphylaxis but doe not depend on IgE antibody interaction with antigen (pt doesnt have to be exposed to the antigen prior)
47
4 risk factors associated w hypersensitivity to anesthetics
female, atopic history, preexisting allergy, previous anesthetic exposure
48
treatment of anaphlaxis - epi dose
0.01-0.5mg IV or IM
49
treatment of anaphlaxis - drugs
diphenhydramine (H1 blocker),Ranitidine (H2 blocker), hydrocortisone or methylpred
50
what are the most common cause of anaphylaxis during anesthesia
muscle relaxants
51
what is the mechanism for allergic reaction to muscle relaxants
anaphylaxis - IgE antibody directed against tertiary or quaternary ion epitope
52
hypotic agent that cause allergic reaction
pentothal propofol
53
ester local anesthetic allergic reaction
IgE mediated, share common antigenicity with PABA
54
amide local anesthetic allergic reaction
paraben or methylparabel
55
second most common cause of anaphylaxis d/t anesthesia
latex
56
foods that cross react with latex
mango, kiwi, chestnut, avocado, passion fruit and banana
57
how do you pre-treat someone for latex allergy
h1 and h2 histamine
58
occurane of MH in bed
1:15,000
59
occurrence of MH in adult
1: 40,000
60
MH causes what acid bace imbalance
metabolic acidosis
61
signs of Mh -jaw
masseter spasm
62
electrolyte imbalance in MH
hyper K, NA, Phos, CK, myoglobinemia, myogloinuria
63
late sign of MH -
core temp rise 1 degree C every 5 min
64
MH hyperkalemia caused by
efflux of K from muscle cells and systemic acidosis
65
drug that trigger MH
halogenated agent and depolarizing muscle relaxant (succs)
66
dantrolene doe
2.5mg/kg
67
max dose of dantrolene
10mg
68
how to treat hyperkalemia
dextrose 25-50g IV, regular insulin 10-20units IV
69
what does insulin do to K
forces it into the cell
70
albuterol in treatment of hyperk
beta 2 agonist, pushes K into the cell
71
bicarb
pushes K back into cell
72
how does dantrolene work
interfere with muscle contraction by binding ryr1, inhibit CA ion release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
73
side effects of dantrolene
muscle weakness, resp insufficiency, risk of aspiration, phlebitis
74
larynogospasm
complete spasmodic closure of the larynx as a consequence of an outside stimulus. closer of the glottis as a result of reflex obstruction of the laryngeal muscles
75
complete larynogospasm
silent paradoxical movement of the chest, tracheal tug, and no ventilation
76
partial larynogospasm
crowing noise
77
laryngospasm treat with
deepen patient, CPAP
78
signs of bronchospasm
prolonged expiration, high inflation pressures, exp wheezes, decreased O2 sat
79
increasing circuit pressure is a sign of
bronchospasm
80
wheezing is a sign of
bronchospasm
81
bronchospasm best tx with
anesthetic gas
82
bronchospasm tx med
epi, albuterol
83
3 things on the fire triangle
heat, fuel, oxygen
84
maximum acceptable trace concentration of N20
<25ppm
85
maximum acceptable trace concentration of N20 and halogenated agent
<25 ppm and 0.5HA
86
maximum acceptable trace concentration of halogenated agent only
~2 ppm
87
inverse square law
amt of radiation changes inversely with the square of the distance.
88
exposure at 4m will be ___ of that at 1m
1/16
89
maximum occupational whole body exposure annually is
5rem/year
90
maximum occupational whole body exposure annually is
5rem/year
91
sensory innervation (afferent) apex
SNL internal
92
motor innervation (efferent)
SLN external + RLN
93
bronchospasm will give you prolonged
expiration
94
bronchospasm will give you high ___ presures
inflatoin
95
STPC
standard color, tall man lettering. technology (scanning), pharmacy (pre-mixed/pre-filled), culture (nonpunative)

APA/Foundations 1 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions