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ABE Oral Board Review > Complications > Flashcards

Complications Flashcards

1
Q

Introduction of NiTi instruments has ______ the incidence of instrument separation

A

increased

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2
Q

Incidence of stainless steel instrument separation

A

0.25%

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3
Q

Incidence of NiTi rotary instrument separation

A

1.68%

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4
Q

Separation is most likely to occur in the ______ of the canal

A

apical third

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5
Q

______% of separated instruments can be removed

A

87%

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6
Q

_____ should always be obtained before treating a previously initiated RCT

A

New radiographs

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7
Q

Factors affecting perforation repair prognosis (6)

A

Size and location of perforation
time to repair
Provider experience
post placement following repair
ability to seal the defect
prior microbial contamination

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8
Q

_______ has become the gold standard material for perforation repair

A

MTA

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9
Q

Histologic repair when using MTA (3)

A

cementum formation
PDL reformation
normal bony architecture

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10
Q

Success rate of MTA perforation repair

Author

A

86%
Mente

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11
Q

Signs of sodium hypochlorite accident (4)

A

Immediate severe pain
immediate edema of neighboring soft tissue
profuse intracanal bleeding
ecchymosis

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12
Q

Treatment of NaOCl accident

A

Palliative – local anesthestics and analgesics
Cold compress for 24 hours followed by warm compress for circulation
Daily monitoring
Antibiotics in high risk
Corticosteroids controversial

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13
Q

CH extrusion _______ impact prognosis

A

does not
De Moor

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14
Q

Extrusion of CH into the mandibular canal can cause _____

A

parasthesia

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15
Q

Extruded eugenol based sealers will

A

resorb over time

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16
Q

Seltzer demonstrated a ______ reaction can result from extrusion of obturation material

A

foreign body

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17
Q

Correlation of proximity of obturation materials and the mandibular canal with ______

A

parasthesias

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18
Q

Risks of over extension of obturation material in maxillary teeth

A

Aspergillus infection
chronic maxillary sinusitis

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19
Q

Microsurgical treatment of mandibular nerve injuries should occur within ______ from injury

A

48 hours

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20
Q

Root surface temperatures should not increase by ______ to avoid PDL injury

A

10 degrees C
Eriksson

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21
Q

_____ should be used during ultrasonic or highspeed manipulation of bone

A

coolant

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22
Q

________ use of the perforator when performing an IO injection osteotomy to reduce risk of osteonecrosis

A

short-duration

23
Q

Swelling and crepitus indicates

A

air emphysema

24
Q

Differential diagnoses of swelling involving the fascial planes immediately following endodontic treatment (6)

A

Endodontic flare-up
Necrotizing fasciitis
angioedema
allergic reaction
hematoma
air emphysema

25
Q

Types _____ and ______ are the traditional allergic reactions experienced secondary to contacted or ingested allergens

26
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

Immediate
Anaphylaxis

27
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

IgG
Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
Autoimmune-like tissue destruction

28
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

Immune complex formation
Pathology due to systemic deposits

29
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Delayed-type
Cell-mediated immune memory response
Contact Dermatitis

30
Q

If patient has a type IV hypersensitivity to natural rubber latex

A

You do not need to avoid use of GP

31
Q

______ infections are a risk of administering local anesthetics

A

needle tract

32
Q

Parasthesias following local anesthetic injections may be from _____ or _____

A

neurotoxicity
physical trauma

33
Q

_______ fold increase in parasthesia when articaine used for IANB

34
Q

Possible reason for articaine/parasthesia association

A

Increase in concentration (4% vs 2%) has greater potential for neurotoxicity

35
Q

Normal sensation should return following apical surgery in approximately

A

4 weeks
Kim

36
Q

_____% of patients experience some sensory disturbance following mandibular surgery. ____% leads to permanent deficit

A

20%
1%
Wesson and Gale

37
Q

Etiology of flare-up is multifactorial (3 factors)

A

chemical
mechanical
microbial

38
Q

Incidence of flare-up

A

5.8% — Yu
8.4% — Tsesis

39
Q

Most reported risk factors for flare-up

A

pre-op pain
pre-op analgesic use

40
Q

Prophylactic amoxicillin in asymptomatic, necrotic teeth ______ risk of flare-up

Author

A

Does not reduce
Pickenpaugh

41
Q

Occurrence of flare-up on overall prognosis

A

No effect
De Chevigny
Sjogren

42
Q

Persistent infections likely caused by

Author

A

Intraradicular and extraradicular bioflms
Siqueira

43
Q

Secondary infections caused by (3)

A

Introduced during RCT
Coronal leakage
fractures

44
Q

_____% of patients report severe pain following RCT lasting ____ days

A

19%
2 days
Law

45
Q

_____% of patients experience persistent pain lasting more than 6 months following RCT

Author

46
Q

For patients experiencing persistent pain ____% is of non odontogenic origin, and ______% is of odontogenic origin

Author

A

3.4%
1.6%
Nixdorf

47
Q

Most common factor in native valve infective endocarditis

A

Mitral valve prolapse

48
Q

Most common bacteria a/w infective endocarditis

A

Staph aureus
Strep in late infection

49
Q

Classic findings of IE

A

Fever
Heart murmur
Positive blood culture

50
Q

Avoid NSAIDs for longer than ______ If pt is on HTN meds

51
Q

If patient is taking digoxin for cardiac arrhythmia, avoid _____ and ______

A

Epi
Levonodefrin

52
Q

Progression of CHF

A

Left ventricular heart failure
Accumulation of blood in pulmonary vessels
CHF

53
Q

Avoid nitrous oxide in pts with stage _____ COPD or worse

54
Q

Consider using _____ for pts with liver disease due to _____

A

Septocaine
Metabolism by plasma esterases

ABE Oral Board Review (12 decks)

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