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MEP Theory Prep > Complete Collection > Flashcards

Complete Collection Flashcards

1
Q

In a twin engined aircraft with both propellers rotating clockwise, failure of which engine will result in the more critical situation?

A

Left

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2
Q

Feathering stops are designed to

A

Prevent feathering during an engine shut-down

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3
Q

Blue line on the ASI represents:

A

Speed for the best rate of climb when asymmetric

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4
Q

If all factors remain the same, and the height increases, what will happen to VMCA?

A

Decreases.

Increase in PA means less thrust or more correctly less assymetric thrust. The controlling speed reduces as the thrust reduces

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5
Q

Failure of the left engine in a right hand turn will cause the aircraft to

A

Yaw to the left and initially roll gently to the left

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6
Q

In the event of an engine failure in a twin engine aircraft, how much bank towards the live engine is recommended to achieve Vmca

A

5 degrees

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7
Q

The loss of performance due to failed engine with the propeller at maximum rpm is most detrimental

A

If the propeller continues to windmill

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8
Q

The additional yaw which defines the critical engine is caused by

A

Asymmetric blade effect

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9
Q

Prior to starting engines, the manifold gauge will read

A

Ambient atmospheric pressure

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10
Q

Using bank towards the live engine will assist directional control. As bank is increased, what happens to the ball?

A

The ball will move further away from the central position

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11
Q

When the throttle is closed in the flare on asymmetric landing

A

The aircraft will yaw towards the live engine

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12
Q

When weighing an aircraft for its BEW, includes

A

Unusable fuel, full engine oil, movable seats in central position

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13
Q

Why are multi engine aircraft fitted with feathering propellers

A

Feathering stops a propeller windmilling when it has failed, and so reduces drag

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14
Q

When does over-boosting of an engine occur?

A

When the manifold pressure is set too high for the RPM being used

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15
Q

What will increase the critical speed of an asymmetric aircraft?

A

Increasing power on the live engine

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16
Q

Due to gear indication fault an aircraft lands with emergency lowering selected, the indications shown are nose and left main green, and the gear unsafe illuminated.

What is the correct action after landing?

A

Stop the aircraft at the end of the landing run and have the lockdown mechanism inspected before continuing further

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17
Q

How long is an initial MEP class rating valid for?

A

12 months from the date of issue.

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18
Q

How do you revalidate your multi engine piston class rating

A

Proficiency check

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19
Q

The aircraft you are flying has a normal carburetor, variable pitch propeller and CSU, the initial symptoms of carburetor ice are

A

Drop in manifold pressure

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20
Q

Where is the type of oil to be used in the engine is required to be written

A
  • On the oil filler cap or access panel
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21
Q

When starting the engines on a multi engine aircraft, what indications are expected from the dolls eyes on the vacuum gauge

A

The right dolls eye should go out when the right hand engine is started and vice versa

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22
Q

What colour is VMCA on the Airspeed indicator?

A

Red radial line

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23
Q

In an asymmetric climb with 5 deg of bank to the live engine, the balance ball should be

A

Approximately 1/2 ball width towards the live engine

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24
Q

In the multi engine aircraft when crossing a change of surface during taxiing

A

The crossing should be made at a shallow angle as possible, in order to optimise the propeller clearance

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25
Q

You decide to abandon take off due to a sudden turn to the left developing which you cannot correct using rudder, you should

A

Close both engines together and apply brakes as required

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26
Q

In most light twins where do CSU’s obtain their oil from

A

They use the engine gearbox oil supply

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27
Q

If the mass of a loaded aircraft is within limits when do you need to recalculate the CoG

A

Must be calculated, or a standard load manifest be used

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28
Q

You are flying straight and level when a vibration suddenly begins to run through the aircraft, you should

A

Increase power on each engine in turn, feel for any change in amplitude of the vibration

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29
Q

Your aircraft is fitted with turbo charged engines, when shutting down the engines after flight they should

A

Idled at low power for 2-3 min before closing down

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30
Q

What is the recommendation for shutting down an engine for training purposes

A

Should be done above 3000ft above the surface and within the reach of a suitable Aerodrome

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31
Q

A typical twin engine aircraft climbs at 1000fpm, when climbing single engine it will be

A

Anything from a Descent to 300fpm climb

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32
Q

On approach to land you find you can only lower the main wheels, the nose wheel is observed to be up. What should you do?

A

Land on the grass, because the surface is softer

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33
Q

What will happen to VMCA with increasing altitude?

A

It will decrease

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34
Q

Speeds for VA, VMCA, VNE, VLE

A

126kts, 68kts, 194kts, 194kts

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35
Q

How is the propeller coarsened?

A

Spring and counterweights

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36
Q

How is the propeller unfeathered?

A

Nitrogen and oil accumulator

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37
Q

What is the correct operation of the engine fire detection system?

A

Pressing and holding in the test button. Hearing a continuously sounding intermittent audio alert, seeing steady red messages in the PFD annunciation window and a flashing ALERTS soft key

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38
Q

Minimum de-ice fluid level for dispatch

A

22l, three quarters full tank

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39
Q

What is the function of the red BACKUP DISPLAY button on the audio selector panel

A

Displays on both the PFD and MFD the flight instruments and essential system parameters

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40
Q

Where are the Aviation Database effective dates displayed

A

On the MFD power up page

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41
Q

What could happen if the interior instrument lights are put on during the day

A

The gear and flap indicator lights will dim such that they may not be visibility when illuminated

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42
Q

Define icing conditions as per the DA42 Tdi AFM

A

As an OAT of +3C or below in visible moisture

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43
Q

At what speed does the transponder automatically change from GND to ALT during take off roll

A

40 kts

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44
Q

What is the duration of the emergency battery for the standby attitude indicator

A

90 minutes

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45
Q

State the correct method of shutting down, feathering and securing an engine in flight

A

Identify and verify failed engine, select inoperative engine master switch off, inoperative alternator off, inoperative engine fuel off

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46
Q

To unfeather the propeller the engine master must be set to

A
  • On, to permit the associated accumulator pressure to move the propeller blades into a low pitch position
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47
Q

Select the correct speeds, aircraft mass 1785kg, Vy, Vx, Vyse

A

79kts, 79kts, 82kts

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48
Q

Select the correct minimum and maximum oil quantity levels

A

5.0 - 6.0lts

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49
Q

Starter motor limits

A

Do not operate the starter motor for more than 10 secs, after operating the motor let it cool for 20sec.

After 6 attempts allow 30min cooling

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50
Q

When does the landing gear unsafe light illuminate

A

The landing gear is neither in the up or down and locked position

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51
Q

The altitude trend vector on the PFD displays the altitude that will be reached at the correct vertical speed in how many seconds

A

6

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52
Q

In which EU-OPS performance category is the DA42?

A

B

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53
Q

If the variable elevator backstop pre flight check does not work correctly you should

A

Not proceed with the flight

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54
Q

In flight cross feeding of both engines simultaneously is

A

Not permitted

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55
Q

With a failure of the magnetometer the heading indicated on the HSI on the PFD will

A

Fail

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56
Q

After failure of one engine on a twin engined aircraft, excess thrust

A

Reduces to less than half

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57
Q

Zero thrust setting on an engine simulates thrust or drag present with

A

Engine shut down and the propeller feathered

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58
Q

Failure of an engine will result in RPM, manifold pressure and the balance ball

A

Decreasing, increasing, swing towards the the live engine

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59
Q

Vno

A
  • Maximum structural cruising speed
60
Q

The rudder is trimmed for balanced flight with similar power and RPM on both engines, if the power setting on the left engine is increased without re-trimming

A

The aircraft will yaw to the right

61
Q

Following an engine shutdown, an aircraft is trimmed to continue flight with wings level and the ball centered

A

The dead engine will lead the live engine along the line of flight

62
Q

In two engine flight, when recovering from a critical low, but not stalled airspeed situation

A

The throttles should be opened smoothly to ensure that power is produced evenly on both engines to avoid the possibility of spinning the aircraft

63
Q

Moving the center of gravity rearwards will result in

A

A higher Vmc

64
Q

Feathering stops are designed to

A

Prevent feathering during an engine shutdown

65
Q

The term critical engine is used to describe

A

The engine which when failed will lead to the largest yawing moment for any given set of conditions

66
Q

If unable to meet the requirements of screen height by 1.25x TORR within the TORA, the take off may still be possible if which conditions can be met

A

TODR x 1.0 < TORA and TODR x 1.15 < TODA and TODR x 1.3 < ASDA

67
Q

When increasing power, the order should be

A

Mixture, propeller, throttle

68
Q

What effect does a CSU have on engine RPM

A

Maintains RPM between limiting stops

69
Q

An aircraft manufacturer plans six seats in a twin piston engine aircraft, therefore

A

A full mass and balance calculation must be carried out before loading, to ensure that the aircraft is within both weight and cog limits

70
Q

An asymmetric aircraft is at its most critical at

A

High power and low airspeed

71
Q

You have suffered an engine fire, correctly dealt with it and shut down the engine, the fire has gone out, action

A

Land at nearest suitable airport

72
Q

How do you operate propeller ant ice mats

A

Turn them on before entering visible moisture when the temperature is +3C or below

73
Q

Alternate air in a fuel injected engine is

A

An alternate source of induction air

74
Q

Pre flight checks of an aircraft fitted with a variable pitch propeller and CSU should

A

Include a check of the feathering action and exercise the CSU

75
Q

Define VLO

A

Maximum landing gear operation speed

76
Q

VMC

A

Is the minimum single engine control speed

77
Q

When should you calculate the performance when you are flying out of an airfield with an elevation of 13000ft on a hot day

A

Always

78
Q

You close the throttle at the end of an approach and hear a warning horn, you should

A

Smoothly apply full power, prevent further height loss and go around, landing gear up

79
Q

Your aircraft is fitted with de-icing boots along the leading edges of the wings and the tail. When should you operate the de-icing boots

A

Wait until you can see an ice build up of approximately 1/4-1/2 inch

80
Q

Your aircraft has variable pitch propellers with CSUs. after take off climb power you hear a propeller beat, you should

A

Ease back or forward on a propeller control lever until the beats slows down and then disappears

81
Q

What is the advantage of a multi-engine aircraft with contra-rotating engines?

A
  • Has no critical engine
82
Q

The oleo extension of the nose wheel on the ground was designed to be 6 inches, but when the aircraft is correctly loaded it is found to be 2 inches. What has happened?

A

Nitrogen/air pressure is insufficient

83
Q

Which aircraft controls are connected by control rods?

A

Ailerons, elevator, flaps

84
Q

Which aircraft controls re connected by cable?

A

Rudder and trim

85
Q

The cabin heating and ventilation is supplied as follows

A

RH engine for seats and floor, LH engine for canopy. Fresh air from underside right wing

86
Q

How does the anti-ice system manage its operations?

A

System pumps 1 and 2 operate alternately. Each cycling 30 seconds “on” and 90 seconds “off”

87
Q

Why is the emergency battery for the standby Attitude Indicator wire-locked?

A

To indicate that is has not been used since last checked

88
Q

What limitations apply to the engine after start?

A

RPM must remain at idle for 2 minutes and then a maximum of 1400 RPM until the oil temperature is in the green range

89
Q

How is the PFD auto ident function for the NAV radios displayed?

A

Three letter identification shown in green to the right of the active frequency

90
Q

Can the volume of the DME ident be adusted?

A

No.

91
Q

During engine trouble shooting drill following loss of power of an engine, the engine power was restored by selecting ECU B. Which course of action should you take?

A

Land as soon as possible

92
Q

When is the fire detection system warning reset?

A

The engine compartment temperature reduces below a set of temperature of 250C

93
Q

The flaps fail to lower from approach to landing. What is the correct minimum KIAS for the approach?

A

82kts

94
Q

How to use CWS

A
  • Press CWS button and move a/c nose to desired vertical speed and release CWS button
95
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance

A

5USG

96
Q

How is the PFD ident function for the NAV radios displayed as ON?

A

White ID letters to the left of the active frequency

97
Q

Minimum RPM to achieve feathering

A

1300rpm

98
Q

Maximum permitted propeller overspeed limit

A

2500rpm

99
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

FL180

100
Q

Which bus bars are powered with the electric master switch on before engine start?

A

All bus bars except the avionics bus.

101
Q

When reducing power below 25% in flight you notice an increase in RPM, you should:

A

Take no action the engines are functioning normally

102
Q

Manifold pressure is normally varied in flight using which lever?

A

Throttle

103
Q

In the event of an engine failure of one engine on a piston twin above its single engine ceiling, the correct action is to

A

Drift down to an altitude at or below the aircraft’s single engine ceiling

104
Q

After an engine failure, roll towards the failed engine is due to

A

The secondary effect of yaw and loss of lift from the wing

105
Q

Following an engine failure it is important to select the propeller lever to feather before the RPM drops below approximately 1000RPM

A

To prevent the feather stops activating

106
Q

To comply with EU-OPS take-off requirements for Performance Class B from a runway with no stopway or clear way

A

The TODR x 1.25 must be less than or equal to TORA

107
Q

What effect does a wet runway have on take off and landing performance

A

No effect for take off and 15% increase in LDR for landing

108
Q

When decreasing power, the order should be

A

Throttle, power, mixture

109
Q

Why do we run turbo charged engines at the ground idle for 2-3 minutes before shutting them down?

A

Avoids thermal shock.

To ensure that as the turbine slows it is cooled with the engines ram cooling air.

110
Q

Engine failure is experienced in the initial climb. Blue line speed is giving a descent of 30fpm, what is the correct action to take?

A

Maintain blue line speed, accept the Descent and if necessary forced land or ditch

111
Q

You are in the cruise at FL90, the aircraft yaws without warning, you suspect an engine failure. Do you?

A

Complete cause of failure check list and if you can cure the problem, do so. If you can’t, shut the engine down

112
Q

If on engine-driven vacuum pump fails, the effect will be

A

Minimal, the surviving pump can supply all the required systems, with only a momentary drop in suction if the de-ice boots are operated.

113
Q

Why should you crossfeed fuel

A

To keep the fuel laterally in balance and to give access to the failed engines fuel supply following an engine shutdown

114
Q

How long is differences training valid?

A

24 months from completion

115
Q

When is the beta range of a propeller used?

A

When the reverse thrust is employed

116
Q

On the walk around, in moderate rain, you notice the nose wheel tyre appears slightly flat, what effect will this have on the take off run?

A

Increase the takeoff distance required

117
Q

What are the engine oil quantities, and consumption figures?

A

5-6lts, 0.1l per hour.

118
Q

Figures for minimum TOM, MTOM, MZFM and MLM

A

1250kg, 1785 kg, 1650 kg, 1700kg

119
Q

The elevator backstop operates under which of the conditions

A

Both engines exceed 20% power and the flap setting is LAND

120
Q

Describe the Thielert Engines

A

4 cylinders, in line, liquid cooled, turbo charged, common rail direct injection diesel engines

121
Q

Describe the fuel tank arrangement

A
  • 3 aluminum tanks in each wing, 25 usg usable fuel, 2 capacitance type probes in each wing
122
Q

The maximum usable de-ice capacity

A

30 litres

123
Q

What does a WARNING annunciation displayed on the PFD indicate

A

That immediate attention is required

124
Q

What color is used to display the active comm frequency?

A

Green

125
Q

Following a PFD failure, the PFD will auto-revert to the MFD screen and both comm 1 windows will show a Red Cross. Under these circumstances

A

Both pilots will be able to transmit and receive on comm 2

126
Q

When operating under asymmetric power, the AFM limits banking to

A

60 degrees

127
Q

How is a failure of the attitude indicator on the PFD displayed

A

Red X cross across the indicator and a fail caption

128
Q

How is the MFD reset to the default Navigation Map Page from any other page

A

Press and hold CLR key

129
Q

Loss of VOR reception is shown to the pilot on the CDI by

A

The CDI bar disappearing from the HSI

130
Q

What is the procedure for balancing fuel

A

Fuel lever of side with lower fuel content selected to cross feed

131
Q

Select the correct combination limiting speeds for gear and flap selection

A

Vlor 156kts Vfe ldg 111kts

132
Q

The fuel calculated indicated on the MFD, after selecting FUEL, indicates

A

Indicate a value derived from the last fuel quantity set by the pilot and computed fuel flow data

133
Q

The nominated aircraft grounding point for the earth on the aircraft is

A

Metal section if the a/c steps

134
Q

You are performing an ILS approach, what additional heights increments are added to the published decision altitude for pressure error correction?

A

0ft

135
Q

To convert US gallons to kilos, multiply by

A

3.03

136
Q

The maximum fuel unbalance is

A

5 usg

137
Q

When should the emergency switch be tested

A

The switch should not be tested by the flight crew

138
Q

In an emergency gear extension which of the following is true

A

The gear free falls and three greens will indicate that the gear is down

139
Q

Wingspan

A

13.42m

140
Q

Maximum ramp mass

A

1793kg

141
Q

What is the maximum elevator deflection with and without the elevator backstop active?

A

15.5deg, 13deg

142
Q

State the 3 flap position angles

A

Cruise (up) 0deg
Approach (app) 20deg
Landing (ldg) 42deg

143
Q

If both alternators fail, what is the endurance of the battery supply for the ECU’s?

A

30 minutes

144
Q

Minimum radius of turn on the ground

A

6m

145
Q

Maximum nose wheel deflection

A

52 degrees

146
Q

Maximum nose wheel deflection by rudder pedals

A

30 degrees

MEP Theory Prep (2 decks)

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