COMPANY OPERATIONS MANUAL PART A Flashcards
The Operations Manual is issued under the authority of the Senior Vice President
(Flight Operations). It contains
policies, procedures and guidance on all matters that are the responsibility of Flight operations.
“Caution” is used when an operating procedure, technique, etc. may result in
damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
“Warning” is used when an operating procedure, technique, etc. may result in
personnel injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
The Operations Manual is divided into four parts in accordance with CAR on the
subject and CAP 8100. These are:
Part A: General (Operations Policy Manual)
Part B: Type specific aircraft operating information
Part C: Areas, routes and aerodromes
Part D: Training
TRs must be inserted in the OM on yellow-colored pages for easy identification and
reference.
TRs may be used for two reasons:
a) When there is any change in regulations or operating procedures or there is a
need for implementation of new organizational policies; and publication is
desired before the next planned OM revision; or
b) When immediate amendments or revisions al required in the interest of safety
which have significant operational impact.
ACARS:
Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System
ACMS:
Aircraft Condition Monitoring System
ADD:
Acceptable Deferred Defect
AIMS:
Airline Information Management System
ALAR:
Approach Landing & Accident Reduction
ATIS:
Automatic Terminal Information Service
CDFA:
Continuous Descent Final Approach
CDL:
Configuration Deviation List
CDLB:
Cabin Defect Logbook
CFDS:
Centralized Fault Display System
CIDS:
Cabin Intercommunication Data System
CMP:
Configuration, Maintenance & Procedures
CPDLC:
Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
ECAM:
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
FANS:
Future Air Navigation System
FATA:
Foreign Aircrew Temporary Authorisation
FOQA:
Flight Operations Quality Assurance
IRROPS:
Irregular Operations
IOSA:
IATA Operational Safety Audit
LRU:
Line Replaceable Unit
LOSA:
Line Operations Safety Audit
MABH:
Minimum Approach Break off Height
MTBF:
Mean Time Between Failure
MSN:
Manufacturer’s Serial Number
OEB:
Operations Engineering Bulletin
PAPI:
Precision Approach Path Indicator
PBE:
Protective Breathing Equipment
PCN:
Pavement Classification Number
RCAM:
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix
RESA:
Runway End Safety Area
SAFA:
Safety Assessment of Foreign Aircraft
TAWS:
Terrain Awareness and Warning System
UNM:
Unaccompanied Minor
VREF:
Landing reference speed
Adult: Male and female, is defined as person of an age of ___.
12 years and above
ATS airspaces are classified in ___
AIP India ENR 1.4
Take-off alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.
En-route alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.
Destination alternate: An alternate aerodrome at which
an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
Approach ban point: The point on an approach segment where
the reported weather conditions at the runway must meet the applicable minima, so as to be able to meet regulatory requirements for continuing an instrument approach to a landing.
Aquaplaning (or hydroplaning): is a situation where the tyres of the aircraft are, to a large extent,
separated from the runway surface by a thin fluid film.
Ceiling: The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
6000 m (20 000 ft) covering more than half the sky.
Children: Person who is of an age of
two years and above but who are less than twelve years of age.
Categories of aeroplanes: The categories of typical aeroplanes have been established based on the
indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat) in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass.
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA): A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the
final approach segment (FAS) of an instrument non-precision approach (NPA) procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare maneuver begin for the type of aircraft flown; for the FAS of NPA procedure followed by circling approach, the CDFA techniques applies until circling approach minima (circling OCA/H) or visual flight maneuver altitude/height are reached.
Converted Meteorological Visibility (CMV): A value equivalent to an RVR which is derived from
the reported meteorological visibility, as converted in accordance with the specified requirements
Contaminated runway: A runway is considered to be contaminated when
more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:
- Surface water more than 3 mm (0.125 in) deep, or slush, or loose snow, equivalent to more than 3 mm (0.125 in) of water; or
- Snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or ice, including wet ice.
Contingency fuel: A quantity of fuel carried to compensate for items such as:
- Deviations of an individual airplane from expected fuel consumption data
- Deviations from forecast meteorological conditions
- Deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitude
Crew Resource Management (CRM): A program designed to
improve the safety of flight operations by optimizing the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination.
Critical phases of flight: Those portions of operations involving:
taxiing, take-off, landing and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
Decision altitude/height (DA/DH): A specified altitude or height (A/H) in a 3D instrument approach procedure at which:
a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established
EDTO critical fuel: The fuel quantity necessary to fly to:
an en-route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
Fail-Operational flight control system: A flight control system is fail-operational if,
in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing, can be completed automatically. In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.
Fail-Passive flight control system: A flight control system is fail-passive if,
in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail-passive automatic flight control system the pilot assumes control of the airplane after a failure.
Final reserve fuel: An amount of fuel for all turbine powered airplanes, calculated to fly
30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the alternate or the destination, when no alternate is required.
Infant: A person who has not yet reached his ___ birthday.
second
Low Visibility Operations (LVO): Approach operations in RVRs less than ___ or Low Visibility Take-Off (LVTO) in RVRs less than ___.
550m and/ or with a DH less than 60m (200 ft)
400m
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or Minimum descent height (MDH): A specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
RESA: An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to
reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.
Special VFR: Flights under VFR rules, permitted up to ___ visibility. These are subject to specific authorisation from ATC.
1500M
MAINTENANCE
RELEASE/CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVICE
A CRS is valid till
CRS will be issued after snag rectification, and previous CRS will not be valid. Similarly, after every Check a new CRS is issued and is valid till next maintenance action. If a layover check is carried out, the previous CRS is no more valid and a new CRS is issued. This is the reason after every lay over, check a new CRS is signed off in the Tech Log.
A CRS is not required to be issued after Transit/ Pre-flight inspection.
A document, if missing or requiring replacement; flight crew should inform Centralized Flight Dispatch and fill up the relevant
“Missing Documentation form”, which is kept inside the on board ‘Notice File’. Missing documentation will be replaced at the earliest opportunity.
NOTAC (Notice To Air Crew): Information in a NOTAC is
of more permanent nature and may effect a revision of the Operations Manual.
Technical Notice: Guidance and/or compliance of
technical nature and is related to aircraft systems with information on crew actions in case of ECAM; which will also spell out the distinction on actions BEFORE ECAM or AFTER ECAM.
Operations Notice: Changes in
Standard Operating procedures, Training Procedures, Information, guidance and/or compliance of technical nature and is related to aircraft systems, technical explanations, modification being progressively carried out on airline fleet etc.
Administrative Notice: Administrative issues with regard to
duties and obligations of Flight Operations will be notified in Administrative notices.
C-NOTAM (Company Notice to Airmen) Information and guidance to Crew on various flight operation related aspects that are of
a temporary nature not covered in the Operations Manual will be provided in Company NOTAMs. These can be either Informatory or mandatory in nature.
Flight Operations Brief (FOB): Issues regarding
air traffic management are issued as Flight Operations brief, including any aeronautical information published by state as AIP/ AIP amendments, including AIRAC, not incorporated in route guide/ Jeppesen/ NavBlue.
Any notice that is removed and requires to be retained for general information shall be shifted to
archive folder available on Flight Operations 6E portal.
The Company Mission is dedicated to providing
On-time, Hassle-free, Courteous and Affordable air transport service.
The Air Operator Certificate (AOC) is obtained by the Company from
DGCA after fulfilling all the laid down requirements.
(Note: Requirements and guidance for issue of Air Operator Certificate are given in CAR Section 3, Series C and CAP 3100)
Safety Management & Accident Prevention Activities
The aim of an accident prevention program is:
a) To review safety results and identify significant safety issues
b) To develop and implement safety action plans and review implementation and effectiveness
c) To oversee accident prevention activities of all department involved with the operation of aircraft
d) To review safety impacts of any project (new destination, increase in fleet size, etc.)
Chapter 34 for details of the Safety Management and Accident Prevention program.
Accident Prevention is achieved by
Flight Data Trend analysis, investigation of the causes of occurrences, developing preventive methods, encouraging reporting of occurrence, hazard and incidents with non-punitive programs.
The incidents/ occurrences affecting aircraft design, maintenance and/ or operation, are mandatorily reported upon to the authorities. List of reportable incidents/ occurrences as per DGCA CAR is reproduced in ___.
Chapter 34
Under PIC’s Emergency Authority;
The PIC retains full authority to take any action in an emergency or under unusual circumstances, in order to preserve the safety of the aircraft, its occupants, mail and freight.
Company uses a method of Operations Coordination OCC which engages:
Executive/ Controllers, Maintenance Control, Meteorologists and other services available.
___ is responsible for the flight until the PIC takes the responsibility of the flight.
Airport Manager
PIC can override the suggestions of the Operations controller by use of ___.
Emergency Authority
Any use of Emergency authority by a PIC is to be reported to ___
the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) on termination of the flight.
In addition to setting and maintaining a high standard of self-discipline, the PIC is responsible to ensure that
his/ her crew maintain an equally high standard. He must ensure that correct orders are given and are always promptly obeyed and do his utmost to develop a high level of “Espirit de Corps”.
Espirit de Corps
enthusiastic devotion of members to a group and strong regard for the honor of the group
Period of Command
The designated PIC assumes command the moment he
accepts/ signs the aircraft acceptance (Flight Report Book/ Technical log book) and/or enters the aircraft with the intention of carrying out a flight, whichever is earlier until the termination of his flight duty when he/ she completes all the post flight documentation and leaves the aircraft.
PIC Responsibility
The PIC is responsible for
- the safe execution of the flight and for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, baggage and freight during the flight.
- He is also responsible for discipline on board and orderly conduct of the flight.
- overall responsibility for the flight execution; be the representative of the company when dealing with other crew members during flight duty time and at layovers
- promote an atmosphere for optimum crew co-operation
- flight preparation and execution in compliance with legal and company regulations;
- whether handling the controls or not is responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with Rules of the Air except that he may depart from these rules in circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interest of safety.
- The PIC is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are fully briefed on safety procedures and that all emergency exits are kept clear during flight.
- The primary responsibility of the PIC is that he must not commence a flight when in his judgment the aircraft is not in a satisfactory condition and to conduct the flight in a safe manner in order to maintain a high level of safety.
- In the absence of Company Ground Personnel, the PIC during his period of command is also responsible for the safety of the aircraft passengers, crew and their comfort while on the ground.
PIC Authority
PIC has the authority to take such measures as necessary for the safety of the flight and in this connection he may take such reasonable measures as are necessary for
order and discipline on board. These measures may include the restriction of freedom of one or more occupants until they are delivered to the competent authorities.
The term ‘flight as used in the law may in general be assumed to represent the period between
‘doors closed’ and ‘door open’.
Pilot in Command’s Emergency Authority
Take any action in an emergency or under unusual circumstances, in order to preserve the safety of the aircraft, its occupants, mail and freight.
No contact period
Lead Cabin Crew, No calls will be made from
commencement of take-off roll till the retraction of landing gear.
&
extension of landing gear till the end of landing roll.
VIP Passengers Handling
The Lead will check with the PIC if he would like to greet/ pay his compliments to the VIP passenger/s before departure. Time and duties permitting, it is expected that
PIC will personally meet the VIP passenger/s and welcome him/ her before doors close. If this is not possible, the PIC must ask the Lead to do so on his behalf.
On Time Performance
___ has a major role to ensure that the controllable reasons of delays are kept effectively under check.
Flight Operations
Pilots are ‘NOT’ repeat ‘NOT’ to insist that passenger boarding is
delayed or interrupted except for reasons affecting safety of aircraft operations.
Crew reporting late is an avoidable reason of delay. Crew must contact OCC ASAP and advise of the situation. Reporting Sick at last minute causes irreparable damage to
‘On Time Performance’.
Crew Scheduling is responsible to ensure that operating crew has minimum ___ total cockpit experience on type wherein PIC hours are considered from release on type and Co-pilot hours are considered after endorsement on type”.
500 hrs
All Operational Flight Plan (OFP) will be retained in the Flight Planning System for a period of
forty-eight (48) hours.
Copies of flight release signed by PIC are sent by respective airports to central flight dispatch and saved for a period of
three (03) months.
Post-flight documents for flights are collected and stored at CFD on daily basis for a period of
current plus six (06) months.
All flight documents for a flight involved in an accident or in an incident are retained until the termination of the accident or incident investigation. These documents thereafter are retained for a period of
an additional six (06) months.
EZFW based on booked load & assumed cargo are automatically updated in the Flight Planning Software through
Reservation system (Navitaire)
To achieve minimal variations in ZFW prior departure, Computerized Flight Plan (CFP) is auto generated for any variation in ZFW by
+/500 Kg
ONLY, If the increase in ZFW is greater than ___ for A320/ 321, a fresh OFP will be computed and issued.
three (03) tons
The following conditions will render a Flight Release automatically void, and will require that a New Flight Release be issued by company Flight Dispatch:
a) Whenever a revised OFP is issued
b) When a flight is delayed beyond a release void time specified in the remarks section of that release.
c) When an operational condition set forth in that release cannot be met.
d) Invoking of MEL having a performance impact etc.
e) Any time there is a change of a PIC/ Tail No.
f) A Flight release should be issued for multiple legs. New FRC is required to be issued when CFP of any leg is beyond validity time mentioned on the CFP.
Hand Amendment for the PIC name on an unsigned FRC is
valid and does not require issue of new Flight Release.
When for the reasons other than flight safety, there arises a disagreement between PIC and Flight Dispatcher; ___ shall provide necessary resolution.
Chief Pilot (Line)
If no reply is received from aircraft for ___, it will be considered as an abnormal situation.
15 minutes
Acclimatised means a state in which a crew member’s circadian biological clock is synchronised to the time zone where the crew member is. A crew member is considered to be acclimatised to a ___ wide time zone surrounding the local time at the point of departure. When the local time
3-hour
When the local time at the place where a flight duty commences (departure time zone) differs by more than 3 hours from the local time at the place where the next duty starts, the crew member shall be considered acclimatized to the local time where the crew member starts his/her next duty after:
48 hours
Local Night
A period of 8 hours falling between ___ local time on the A320/A321
0000hrs to 0800hrs
Night Duty
Any Duty Period encroaching upon any portion of the time period between ___ in the time zone to which the crew is acclimatized.
0000 hrs and 0500 hrs
Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)
WOCL means a period between ___ in the time zone to which a crew member is acclimatized.
0200h and 0600h
When the FDP starts in the WOCL, the maximum FDP shall be reduced by
100% of its encroachment up to a maximum of 2 hours.
When the FDP ends in or fully encompasses the WOCL, the maximum FDP stated shall be reduced by
50% of its encroachment.
When a crew has undertaken flights in consecutive nights, then for transition to flights beyond period 0000 to 0500 hrs, he/ she should not be scheduled for a flight which is
commencing prior to, at least 24 hrs including one local night from arrival of the flight and prior to Company local night plus 2 hrs.
Crew scheduling shall ensure there is a period of ___ between two instances of consecutive nights.
168 hours
Flight Time, ‘Flight Duty Period’ and “landing” may be extended due to unforeseen operational circumstances as follows:
a) Flight Time by maximum of 1½ hours.
b) FDP by maximum of 3 hours.
c) Only one extra landing may be carried out in the event of a diversion to complete the flight, including a consecutive night for completion of the flight.
RNAV is defined as
“a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.”
RNAV removes the restriction imposed on conventional routes and procedures where the aircraft must
over fly referenced navigation aids, thereby permitting operational flexibility and efficiency.
RNAV allows “point-to-point” navigation, the aircraft position being determined by the on-board navigation systems using the information from several navigation aids such as
VOR/DME, DME/DME or GNSS (GPS).
An RNP system is an RNAV system whose functionalities support
on-board performance monitoring and alerting.
The three main errors in the context of on-board performance monitoring and alerting are
Path Definition Error (PDE), Flight Technical Error (FTE), and Navigation System Error (NSE).
Navigation data is updated once every ___ as per notified AIRAC cycles.
28 days
The Flight Planning function performs the creation and assembly of the lateral and vertical flight plan used by the guidance function. A key aspect of the flight plan is the specification of flight plan waypoints using
latitude and longitude, without reference to the location of any ground navigation aids.
ILS localizer coverage sector extends from the localizer antenna to distances of
25 NM within 10° of the front course and 17 NM within 35° of the front course.
Crew are to crosscheck navigation accuracy as ‘High’ in terminal areas/ en-route i.e. a comparison of
actual navigation performance to the required navigation performance on FMGS
GPS segments: Space, Control, and User.
The Space Segment consists of ___ operational satellites in six circular orbits 20,200 km (10,900 NM) above the earth. The satellites are spaced in orbit so that at any time a minimum of 6 satellites will be in view to users anywhere in the world.
24
Airplane using GPS systems, active monitoring by the flight crew is only required when
the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost.
Airplane navigating the GPS is considered to be ___. Therefore, the appropriate equipment suffix must be included in the ATC flight plan.
RNAV aircraft
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPERATION MINIMUM (RVSM) airspace where, a reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 1000 ft) is applied between
FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPERATION MINIMUM (RVSM)
Providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight level. The threshold for the alert shall not exceed
-/+ 90 m (300 ft);
An RVSM approval is valid ___ on the understanding that any operating procedures specific to a given region will be stated in the operations manual or appropriate crew guidance.
globally
EDTO (Extended diversion time operations) are Operations by turbine engine aeroplanes to fly beyond ___, approved by the Regulator (DGCA).
a threshold time, and up to a maximum diversion time
Aeroplanes with two engines, to fly beyond one hour of flight time (approved threshold time by DGCA) at a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in ___ using the actual take-off mass, and up to a maximum diversion time, approved by DGCA.
ISA and still-air conditions
DGCA has granted operational approval for extended diversion time operations to operate beyond threshold time of 60 minutes and up to a maximum diversion time of
90 and 120 minutes.
En-route alternate aerodromes may also be the
take-off and/or destination aerodromes.
EDTO ALTERNATE AERODROME VALIDITY PERIOD/TIME WINDOW
The validity period is the time window during which a designated EDTO alternate aerodrome should be assessed for EDTO dispatch purposes to have the necessary conditions to allow
a safe approach and landing in the event of an en-route EDTO diversion.
EDTO ALTERNATE AERODROME VALIDITY PERIOD/TIME WINDOW
The validity period for a given EDTO alternate aerodrome is typically determined based on
a diversion from the first and last EDTO ETPs for this alternate.
EDTO CRITICAL FUEL
The fuel quantity necessary to fly to
an en-route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
EDTO ENTRY POINT
The first point on the route of an EDTO flight; determined using a one-engine inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air that is
more than the threshold from an en-route alternate airport.
EDTO EXIT POINT
The last point on an EDTO flight, under standard conditions in still air, that is
beyond the DGCA established threshold time from an Enroute alternate aerodrome.
ISOLATED AERODROME
A destination aerodrome for which there is
no destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
Maximum diversion time =
Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome.
Point of no return =
The last possible geographic point at which an aeroplane can proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight.
Threshold time =
The range, expressed in time, to an enroute alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires an EDTO approval.
The operation is considered to be an extended diversion time operation (EDTO) when,
the diversion time exceeds the threshold time
The maximum diversion time should not exceed the value of the EDTO significant system limitations), for extended diversion time operations reduced with an operational safety margin, commonly ___, specified by the
DGCA.
15 minutes
EDTO SIGNIFICANT SYSTEMS
Cargo Fire & Suppression Variant Time Limit
A320-232 205 MIN
A320-271 205 MIN
A320-251 205 MIN
A321-271 135/150 MIN
A321-251/252 150 MIN
In flight ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE performance data can be calculated using
EFB-FLYSMART-INFLIGHT MODULE.
EDTO Speed Schedule
DESCENT MCT/VMO
CRUISE MCT/VMO
DESCENT TO LDG M.78/300KT , 250KT
Distance covered during authorized maximum diversion time of 90 and 120 minutes:
A320 P&W - 600 to 631 NM (90 min)
A320 LEAP - 789 to 795 NM (120 min)
A321 LEAP - 768 to 778 NM (120 min)
EDTO area of operation is determined in ___, considering the relevant aircraft performance with one engine inoperative, the remaining engine being on MCT or less.
still air and ISA conditions
EDTO area of operation is determined once and does not need to be reassessed for each flight (considering the en-route weather forecast or the aircraft performance depending on the T/O weight) unless
one or more suitable diversion airports happen to be unsuitable.
EDTO EN-ROUTE ALTERNATE AIRPORT
It has to be noted that for an EDTO en-route alternate aerodrome, a published Rescue and Fire Fighting services (RFFS) category equivalent to ___ is mandatory.
ICAO category 5
THE EARLIEST ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL
The earliest estimated time of arrival at the nominated EDTO en-route alternate airport(s) is computed considering a two-engine diversion from
the first Equal Time Point (ETP) along the outbound route associated with the considered en-route alternate, at the normally planned cruise altitude and speed (i.e. assuming a diversion for any reason other than an engine or pressurization failure).
THE LATEST ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL
The latest estimated time of arrival is computed considering a two-engine diversion from
the second Equal Time Point (ETP) associated with the considered en-route alternate, at FL100 or at the MORA and at the LRC speed (i.e. considering a pressurization failure only).
To perform an EDTO flight the aircraft must carry a sufficient quantity of fuel and oil: To comply with the standard fuel policy, and
To perform a diversion from any point along the EDTO segment of the planned route (between the EDTO Entry Point and the EDTO Exit Point) to a nominated EDTO en-route alternate airport taking account of the EDTO fuel requirements.
The Critical Point is usually, but not necessarily,
the last ETP within the EDTO segment.
The critical point (CP) is the point along the EDTO segment for which the difference between the standard fuel quantity expected to be on board (fuel to continue) and the fuel quantity required to perform an EDTO diversion (EDTO fuel scenario) is minimum or negative.
If this difference of quantities of fuel is negative, the EDTO fuel policy requires the carriage of additional EDTO fuel reserves.
The EDTO fuel policy applied at the flight preparation stage to determine the minimum quantity of fuel required to plan a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport must consider the following 3 scenario:
Scenario 1:
A rapid decompression followed by descent to 10,000 ft or a higher altitude if sufficient oxygen is provided in accordance with the applicable operational requirements.
Scenario 2:
Fly at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed assuming a rapid decompression and a simultaneous engine failure followed by descent to 10,000 ft or a higher altitude if sufficient oxygen is provided in accordance with the applicable operational requirements.
Scenario 3:
Fly at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed assuming an engine failure, followed by a descent to the one-engine-inoperative cruise altitude.
THE FINAL RESERVE
The final reserve is the quantity of fuel needed upon reaching the nominated EDTO en-route alternate, to
hold at 1500 ft above field elevation for 15 minutes, and then conduct an instrument approach and landing.
THE WIND FORECAST:
To take account of possible gap between actual wind and forecasted wind, the following correction is applied to the forecasted wind used to determine the air distance in the fuel computation:
Add a 5% wind speed factor (i.e., an increment to headwind or a decrement to tailwind) on the actual forecast wind used to calculate fuel in the greater of the scenarios (1), (2) or (3)
The EDTO icing fuel reserve is always limited by
Fuel quantity consumed for Total Anti-Ice (engine and wing) during the entire time during which icing is forecast
Airbus recommends to includes a contingency fuel provision from departure to Critical Point, when computing
the EDTO critical Fuel Planning. (Fuel consumption of 80kg/h (APU GEN ON, APU BLEED OFF),
EDTO fuel policy is applicable to any point along the EDTO segment. But the fuel required for EDTO diversion is computed only at
each Equal-Time Point (ETP) to determine the critical point. The fuel required at the critical point is used to determine the minimum quantity of fuel that must be carried.
EDTO fuel policy is applicable to any point along the EDTO segment. But the fuel required for EDTO diversion is computed only at
each Equal-Time Point (ETP) to determine the critical point. The fuel required at the critical point is used to determine the minimum quantity of fuel that must be carried.
The EDTO Computerized Flight Plan provides following additional data:
- Fuel & time required to plan a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport considering 3 scenarios.
- The additional EDTO fuel reserve
- The location of the EDTO segment (EEP, EXP) and ETP’s (CP)
- The earliest and latest time of arrival on EDTO en-route alternate airports
MORA values clear all terrain and obstructions:
By 1,000 ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5,000 ft MSL or lower;
By 2,000 ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5,001 ft MSL or higher;
The grids considered by software are 1° latitude by 1° longitude.
On a practical point of view, the single-engine diversion “without pressurization failure” is never fuel limiting. The minimum required block fuel for dispatching an EDTO flight is, therefore, defined as the greater of the following fuel quantities:
- Standard fuel planning
- EDTO fuel planning considering “an engine failure and a pressurization failure” occurring at the critical point
- EDTO fuel planning considering “a pressurization failure only” occurring at the critical point.
Additional EDTO fuel reserves are determined and added to the standard fuel requirements as
“Dispatch Fuel (ETP)”
Re-routed flight with Non-EDTO conditions.
Due to the aircraft technical status the flight dispatcher may need to re-route the flight to a
non-EDTO route.
The EDTO plotting chart indicates the following information:
- EDTO area,
- Planned route/track
- EDTO segment and significant points: EEP, ETP(s), CP, EXP.
EDTO en-route alternate needs to be filled in Item 18 as
RALT/ ICAO four letter indicator(s).
EDTO STATUS
EDTO APPROVED: COMPANY CHECK:
EDTO APPROVED: AIRCRAFT CHECK:
AOP & AFM
The applicable en-route minima at each alternate airport (ceiling & visibility) for route decision are the normal company minima. The EDTO dispatch minima do not apply with
the commencement of flight.
Prior to EDTO entry point, ___ must be evaluated.
forecast weather (WX), aero-plane status, runway surface conditions, LDA, aerodrome services and facilities at en-route alternate
During EDTO cockpit preparation, the flight crew performs:
The EEP, ETPs (the CP) and the EXP are not stringed to the FMS FPLN but are entered as
STORED WAYPOINTS and Wind entries are performed on all the relevant FMS WIND pages.
In the case of a diversion to an EDTO en-route alternate airport and after completion of a safety assessment of the situation, the PIC has the authority to deviate from
the planned one-engine out operating speed, even if the resulting diversion time exceeds the EDTO diversion time granted by the Authority. The most important consideration is to safely conduct the flight to the alternate airport.
EDTO PILOT’S GUIDE
ABV FL 100:
- PASS EEP/ETP/EXP TIMES VIA CO-FREQ (FROM CFP)
- INSERT 15MIN TIME MARKER BEFORE EEP
EDTO PILOT’S GUIDE
BEFORE EEP:
CHECK EDTO ALTERNATES ARE WITHIN AOM OR CREW MINIMA BEFORE EEP (IF NONE OF THE ALTERNATES ARE WITHIN MINIMA THEN REROUTING IS REQUIRED)
EDTO PILOT’S GUIDE
AFTER EEP:
EDTO ALTERNATE BELOW AOM MINIMA IS NOT A
REQUIREMENT TO
DIVERT OR REROUTE
In-Flight APU Reliability Check
APU running in EDTO segment is not mandatory on Company EDTO approved aircraft. To establish APU reliability data on sampling basis, the APU of each EDTO Approved aircraft shall be started in-flight once in ___ months.
03
In-Flight APU Reliability Check
The in-flight starts can be performed on non-EDTO sectors. On EDTO Sector, in-flight start shall be attempted on return leg. To achieve this, APU is to be started just short of descent after adequate cold soak or at such time that will ensure
a two (02) hr cold soak before start attempt and let APU run for 5 min.
VFR Flights within a control zone shall not be conducted if
the ground visibility is less than 5 Km or if the ceiling is less than 1500’ at the aerodrome concerned except when authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
VFR Flights outside controlled airspace shall not be conducted
at a height of less than 1000’ above the ground or water and shall maintain sight of the ground or water.
VFR flights shall not be operated:
- Above FL 150
- more than 100NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace
- between 20 min after sunset and 20 min before sunrise
In India, the minimum flight altitude on the ATS routes as presented in AIP, AIP supplements or NOTAMs have been determined so as to ensure
at least 1000ft vertical clearance above the highest obstacle within 10NM on each side of the centre line of the route.
IFR flight shall not be flown at a level that is below the established minimum flight altitude or where no such minimum flight altitude has been established:
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 2000 Ft above the highest obstacle located within ___ of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Elsewhere than as specified above, at a level which is at least 1000 Ft above the highest obstacle located within ___ of the estimated position of the aircraft.
8KM
A route MORA provides reference point clearance within ___ of the route centreline (regardless of the route width) and end fixes.
10 NM
MORA values clear all reference points by ___ in areas where the highest reference points are 5000 ft MSL, or lower.
1000 ft
MORA values clear all reference points by ___ in areas where the reference points are above 5000 ft MSL.
2000 ft
When a MORA is shown along a route as “unknown” or within a grid as “un-surveyed” a MORA is not shown due to
incomplete or insufficient information.
MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (MOCA)
The lowest altitude, as derived by Jeppesen and depicted on Jeppesen en-route charts, in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airways routes, or route segments, which meets obstacle clearance requirements for
the entire route segment.
MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE (MSA)
Altitude depicted on instrument approach, SID or STAR charts and identified as the minimum altitude which provides a 1000 ft obstacle clearance within a ___ (or other value as stated) radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicated. This altitude does not necessarily guarantee NAVAID reception.
25 NM
Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR flight can be vectored by a radar controller, for
radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR Obstacle clearance criteria, it may however be lower than the published MEA along an airway.
Decision Altitude/ Height (DA/H)
A specified altitude or height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if
the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
Decision Altitude (DA) is referred to Mean Sea Level (MSL) and Decision Height (DH) is referred to the ___ and is used in conjunction with CAT II and CAT III approaches. For CAT I and non-precision approaches term MDA is used on airbus family aircraft.
threshold elevation
The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the Pilot to
assess the airplane position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path.
Minimum Descent Altitude/ Height (MDA/H)
A specified altitude/height in a non-precision approach, CAT ILS (For Airbus aircraft) or circling approach below which
descent may not be made without the required visual reference.
Where the minimum flight altitudes are not determined by Airports Authority of India or the responsible State in which the route to be flown over lies, such minimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than as prescribed below.
a) For IFR flights over high terrain or in mountainous areas and at 7000 feet and above, at a level which is at least ___ above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft in the route.
2000 feet
Where the minimum flight altitudes are not determined by Airports Authority of India or the responsible State in which the route to be flown over lies, such minimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than as prescribed below.
b) For IFR flights elsewhere than as specified in a) above at a level which is at least ___ above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the estimated position of the aircraft in the route.
1500 feet
Whenever, temperature deviates significantly from the standard temperature, the indicated altitude correspondingly deviates from the true altitude, as follows:
Extreme high temperature:
True altitude is higher than the indicated altitude,
Whenever, temperature deviates significantly from the standard temperature, the indicated altitude correspondingly deviates from the true altitude, as follows:
Extreme low temperature:
True altitude is lower than the indicated altitude, thus creating a lower than anticipated terrain separation and a potential obstacle clearance hazard.
Aviation Golden Rule:
Temp/Pressure
High to Low
Look Out Below
The altitudes that typically require temperature correction are:
- MEA, MSA
- Transition routes altitude
- Procedure turn altitude (as applicable)
- FAF altitude
- Missed approach altitude during all approaches.
Aerodrome Operating Minima are established in order to ensure
the desired level of safety in Airplane Operations at an Aerodrome by limiting these operations in specified weather conditions.
In determining the values of aerodrome operating minima, a large number of factors are involved which fall primarily into three groups as follows:
- The ground environment and the design, maintenance and operation of ground equipment,
- The characteristics of the aeroplane and its equipment; Aircraft capability as given in the Airplane Flight Manual defines the lowest minima for which an aircraft has been certified.
- The Company procedures, flight crew training and experience.
DA (DH) or MDA (MDH) depends upon the ___ specified in the Instrument Approach Procedure.
OCA (OCH)
The value of Visibility (RVR) minima depends upon
Decision Height Minimum Descent Height and Approach Lighting System (Nil, Basic, Intermediate or full facilities). Higher the DH/MDH, higher would be the corresponding visibility/
RVR minima.
Minima Classification
The highest of the minima is ___.
The Lowest of the minima is ___.
Crew Minima
Operator’s Minima
RVR is horizontal visual range, not slant visual range. It is based on measurement of distance by a ___ located near the touchdown point, midpoint or roll out end of the instrument runway and is reported in metres. RVR is required to be
transmissometer
RVR is required to be reported when the prevailing visibility or RVR is ___.
less than 1500 meters
Restricted AOM consists of additives of height and visibility to the normal AOM and is to be applied by PICs (For pilots on 1st command or change of aircraft type) till
they have gained command experience of 100 hours on type.
- DA(H) or MDA(H) + 100 ft
- Approved VIS/RVR + 400 meters,
- PIC with restricted minima will not exercise LVTO
All non-precision approaches shall be flown using the Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) technique unless otherwise approved by the authority. When calculating the minima, the applicable minimum RVR is increased by ___ for Category C aeroplanes for approaches not flown using the CDFA technique, provided that the resulting RVR/ CMV value does not exceed 5000 m.
400m
A take-off alternate aerodrome shall be selected and specified in the operational & ATS flight plan if
either the meteorological conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the established aerodrome landing minima for that operation or if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for other reasons.
The take-off alternate aerodrome should be located within the following distances from the aerodrome of departure:
One hour of flight time at a one-engine inoperative cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in ISA and still air conditions using the actual take-off mass
TABLE 1: RVR/VISIBILITY FOR TAKE-OFF (COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT AEROPLANES)
Facilities
Adequate Visual reference (Day only)
RVR/VIS 1
Cat A, B, C & D
500m
TABLE 1: RVR/VISIBILITY FOR TAKE-OFF (COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT AEROPLANES)
Facilities
High intensity Runway edge lights and Runway centre line lights (spacing 15 m or less) and relevant RVR information
RVR/VIS 1
Cat A, B, C & D
125 m
The TDZ RVR/VIS may be assessed by the pilot by counting number of
edge/centre line lights
For night operations at least ___ lights are available.
runway edge lights or centre line lights and runway end lights
The required RVR must be achieved for all relevant RVR reporting points (touchdown, midpoint and stop-end/roll-out). The governing RVR shall be the
lowest of the reported RVRs
- Take-off shall not be conducted with visibility/RVR less than Category I conditions (550m RVR or 800m Visibility when RVR is not reported) unless
low visibility procedures are enforced.
RVR assessment is applicable only at a runway threshold where runway identifying markings and number(s) are visible from the takeoff position (e.g., not applicable to
intersection takeoffs
Pilot assessment of touchdown zone RVR is to be made only when the mid and roll out zone RVR are reported and both these are not less than
200m
RVR is typically assessed at a height of ___ of the runway. The flight crew should take into account Cockpit cut of angle (obscured segment) plus the runway lights ahead of the aircraft (visual segment).
15 ft (Cockpit eye height) above the centre line
*An assessment of TDZ RVR can be done by the pilot based on any of the following visual cues:
- Runway Centerline Lights (15m/ 30m spacing)
- Touchdown Zone Lights Barrettes (30m spacing)
- Runway Edge Lights (60m spacing)
For an RVR assessment of 125m and runway light with 15m spacing.
RVR assessment = Obscured segment + Visual segment
Airbus: 12.5 m (approx.) + 09 centre line lights (8 segments x15) 120 = 132.5 m.
- Pilot’s Eye Level Above Ground?
- Cockpit Cut Of Angle?
- Obscured Segment?
- 15FT
- 20°
- 12.5m / 41ft
Non-precision approach (NPA)
A non-precision approach (NPA) operation is an instrument approach using any of the facilities described in Table 2 (System minima), with a MDH or DH not lower than ___ and an RVR/CMV of not less than ___, unless accepted by
DGCA.
250 ft / 750 m
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA)
A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment (FAS) of an instrument non-precision approach (NPA) procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the
final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare maneuver begin for the type of aircraft flown;
Category I
A Category approach operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS, MLS, GLS (GNSS/GBAS) or PAR with a decision height not lower than ___ and with visibility/rvr not less than ___.
200 ft / 800 m or an RVR not less than 550 m
SYSTEM MINIMA Vs INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH ILS/MLS/GLS CAT I
200 ft
SYSTEM MINIMA VS
INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH
RNAV with Baro-VNAV/ LNAV
250 ft
SYSTEM MINIMA VS
INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURES
Instrument Approach Procedure Lowest DH / MDH
VOR/DME
250 ft
Cat I, APV and non-precision approach
A pilot may not continue an approach below MDA/MDH unless at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
a) elements of the approach light system,
b) the threshold,
c) the threshold markings,
d) the threshold lights,
e) the threshold identification lights,
f) the visual glide slope indicator,
g) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings,
h) the touchdown zone lights,
i) runway edge lights,
APPROACH LIGHTING SYSTEMS
IALS
Intermediate Approach Light System
To qualify for the lowest allowable values of RVR/CMV detailed in Table 4 (applicable to each approach grouping) the instrument approach shall meet at least the following facility requirements and associated conditions:
Instrument approaches with designated vertical profile up to and including 3.77° for Category C; where the facilities are:
i) ILS/MLS/GLS/PAR, or
ii) RNAV, and
where the final approach track is offset by not more than 5° for Category C aeroplanes.
The minimum RVR/CMV/Visibility is governed by the
DH and the approach lighting and runway lighting/marking availability.
Outage of lighting system CAT I, APV and NonPrecision Approach operations
A lighting system is deemed to be on outage when:
a) In the case of a lighting system comprising 6 to 13 lights (e.g. threshold lights) more than 2 lights become unserviceable or 2 adjacent lights become unserviceable.
b) In the case of a lighting system comprising more than 13 lights, more than 15% of the lights become unserviceable, or two adjacent lights become unserviceable.
A Category II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS with:
i) A decision height below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft; and
ii) A runway visual range of not less than 300 m.
Flight crew to follow ___ values for CAT II / CAT III approaches.
“RA”
A pilot may not continue an approach below either the Category II decision height determined in accordance with Para 7.5.1.2 above unless visual reference containing a segment of
at least 3 consecutive lights being the centre line of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a LATERAL ELEMENT OF THE GROUND PATTERN, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.
A CAT III precision instrument approach and landing using ILS with:
i) A Decision Height lower than 100 ft or no decision height; and
ii) A Runway Visual Range less than 300 m or no runway visual range limitations.
For Category III (with DH) operations conducted with fail-passive flight control systems a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height determined in accordance with Para 7.5.2.2. above unless a visual reference containing a segment of
at least 3 consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.
The lowest minima to be used for Category Ill operations depend on the Decision Height and aeroplane systems as shown in Table 7 below:
CAT III (with DH)
CAT III
Decision Height: Less than 100 ft & Roll-out control/ guidance system: Not required : RVR 175 m
Decision Heigh: No DH & Roll-out control/ guidance system: Fail-operational ; RVR : 75 m
RVR Reported and Relevant
Touch-down zone RVR needs to be reported for Cat I operations, touch-down and mid zone RVR for Cat II operations, touch-down, mid and roll-out zone RVR for Cat III operations. In all cases, ___ will always be controlling, however if any other RVR is reported then it becomes relevant
touch-down zone
Minimum RVR of 75m corresponds to ___ limitations.
AFM roll-out guidance system
For A320: Company has been granted operational approval to conduct CAT II & CAT III operations without considering relevance of END (Roll out) RVR for
VECC RWY 01R/ 19L & VIDP RWY 10/ 28.
Low visibility take-off (LVTO). A term used in relation to flight operations referring to a take-off on a runway where the RVR is
less than 400 m and is applicable whenever the reported RVR in any zone (touch-down/mid/roll-out) is below 400 m.
Low visibility take-offs shall not be carried out in less than 400 m RVR unless approved by DGCA. The Company has specific approval for LVTO minima of up to
125 m
7.5.4.2 Low Visibility Operations Minimum Equipment (Aircraft)
Following aircraft systems equipment listed below are critical for Low Visibility Operations shall be fully serviceable, (WWAT)
i) Windshield wipers for both PIC and Co-pilot during actual or forecast precipitation conditions
ii) Window heat system for all heated cockpit windows
iii) Anti-skid system
iv) Thrust reversers for all engines
For a visual approach, higher of the associated nonprecision approach minima or minimum visibility/RVR of ___ for Category C aeroplanes is applicable.
3200 m
7.8.2 ALTERNATE AERODROME PLANNING MINIMA FOR DISPATCH
To ensure that an adequate margin of safety is observed in determining whether or not an approach and landing can be safely carried out at each alternate aerodrome, appropriate incremental values as described in Table 9 for
height of cloud base and visibility should be added to the established aerodrome operating minima.
Alternate aerodrome operating minima is to be used only as a planning tool for dispatch of a flight. After commencement of flight, ___ may be used.
the authorized DA/H or MDA/H for the approach and associated visibility/ RVR
TABLE 9: ALTERNATE (Destination and En-route) AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA FOR DISPATCH
In the context of Table 9, a “different runway is a
runway with a different runway number and can be different ends of the same runway.
Take-off and Landing at aerodrome having no instrument approach procedure
These aerodromes are termed as
VFR aerodromes.
VFR criteria has to be satisfied, i.e. Visibility not below 5 KM and cloud ceiling not below 1500 ft.
7.8.9 Prohibition of landing below minima
All operations below the filed minima are strictly prohibited. No airplane shall commence an approach to landing at an aerodrome if the reported visibility /RVR and ceiling is below minima except as stated in chapter 27. Landing below the minima is only permissible in
an emergency. In such cases a report shall be made to Senior Vice President Flight Operations within 24 hours.
Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR/ CMV
In cases where the RVR is not reported, a pilot may derive RVR/CMV by using a mathematical conversion depending upon
the type of approach lighting and day/night conditions.
It should be ensured that a meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not used:
- For take-off,
- For calculating any other required RVR minimum less than 800m,
- For visual/ circling approaches,
- When reported RVR is available,
- When reported visibility is below 800 m and RVR (instrumented or human observation) is not available.
The minimum length of approach lights for application of CMV is
420m,
CMV is meant to be used by pilots in flight and not as
a planning tool for dispatch of a flight.
If the RVR is reported as being above the maximum value assessed by the aerodrome operator, e.g. “RVR more than 1500 meters”. it is not considered to be
a reported value for the purpose of CMV.
Example for CMV computation:
1 If the AOM is specified as visibility 800m/ RVR 550m for a runway and reported visibility is 700m and RVR is not reported or available, then CMV
cannot be applied against the reported visibility.
Example for CMV computation:
If the AOM is specified as RVR 1600m for a runway with HIALS and reported visibility is 1200m (1200 X1.5=1800) and RVR is not reported or available during daytime, then CMV
can be applied depending on runway lighting conditions.
FAILED OR DOWNGRADED EQUIPMENT Effect on landing minima
OM A Ch 7 Table 11
DESCRIPTION OF FUELING PROCEDURE
A320/ 321: AMM TASK 12-11-28-650-003-A (Pressure Refuel with Automatic Control)
SAFETY PRECAUTIONS DURING REFUELING AND DEFUELING WHEN PASSENGERS ARE EMBARKING, ON BOARD OR DISEMBARKING
At least two step ladders (one each at the front and rear exit) or one aerobridge and one step ladder are available at the doors for A320/ 321. In the absence of a ladder, that door must be closed and disarmed (and manned by a cabin crew).
For departures from major bases, Airport Services must ensure that full complement of Cabin Crew should be on board failing which at least ___ Cabin Crew should be on board before passenger boarding is permitted in the absence of the Pilot in Command. The Cabin crew will man the exits for any emergency evacuation.
two
The flight crew shall inform the Cabin crew about the commencement and completion of fuelling/ refuelling. In addition, ___ signs shall be illuminated as an indication to the Cabin crew that fuelling is in progress while passengers are on board.
“NO PED”/ “NO DEVICES” and ‘EXIT’
If cockpit crew member is on board, he shall be informed by the Engineering staff regarding the commencement of refuelling via Intercom (draw attention through Mech Call, if required) using verbiage “Commencing refuelling”.
If Crew member is to remain in the cockpit, he will respond
“Proceed with refuelling”.
In the case of a fire resulting from fuelling operations or from a large fuel spillage (covered area greater than ___) felling operations will stop.
5 square meters
9.2.1.1 Infants
Children below the age of 2 years are considered Infants as per company policy. Infants are not allocated any seat in the passenger cabin. Infant less than ___ old is not permitted to fly.
02 days
Number of Infants that may be permitted on board (each accompanied by one adult in person) is dependent on
the number of Infant life jackets and additional oxygen masks available on board.
Maximum number of infants on company aircraft is limited to:
A320/ 321: 19 over land (one in each row even no seats on left hand side (A, B, C) and odd no seats on right hand side (D, E, F) limited by oxygen) and 12 over water (can go up to 19 limited by number of infant life jackets). Row no 1, 2, 3, 30 & 31 shall not be used for carriage of infants. In addition, after every three rows there shall be an infant free row.
No passenger carrying an infant shall be seated
near any emergency exit/ row with an emergency exit.
9.2.1.2 Carriage of Expectant mothers
The company policy on travel of expectant mothers is as follows:
Single uncomplicated Pregnancy
Multiple uncomplicated Pregnancy
A Person with Reduced Mobility (PRM): Any person whose mobility when using transport is reduced due to
any physical disability (sensory or locomotor; permanent or temporary), intellectual disability or impairment, or any other cause of disability, or age, and whose situation needs appropriate attention and the adaptation to his or her particular needs of the service made available to all passengers.
Passengers who are elderly and request the use of a wheelchair because of their age or inability to walk quickly are not to be considered as ___.
immobile
The PIC should satisfy himself that the carriage of persons with reduced mobility (PRM) will not cause
inconvenience/ discomfort to other passengers and that emergency evacuation and safety during the flight will be guaranteed.
9.2.1.3.6 Carriage of persons with reduced mobility (PRM)
The restrictions on PRM:
Ambulatory passengers:
Non ambulatory passengers:
Exemption regarding the maximum total number of PRM may be obtained from Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) when
wheelchair sport teams, special schools, etc. are travelling. On these flights, the number of PRM must never exceed the number of escorts.
Two copies of the Braille Safety Instruction are placed in
the stowage area above row 1 along with the Cabin Defect Logbook.
A trained guide dog may be carried in the cabin if it accompanies a passenger who is dependent upon it and if it is properly harnessed. The passenger and the guide dog will normally be seated at
a bulkhead seat, where there is sufficient floor space for the dog in A320/ 321 aircraft.
If the passengers prefer to use their own wheelchair within the airport, they shall
be permitted to use it up to the aircraft, whereupon it may be stowed at an appropriate place in the aircraft.
9.2.1.3.9 Stretcher Patients Policy
a) A320/ 321
A maximum of ___ passengers on a stretcher maybe carried and the PIC will be informed of the carriage.
01
The stretcher passenger will be classified as an escorted non ambulatory passenger.
The AME will ensure that the stretcher is placed and secured at:
A320 LHS aft rows 28, 29 and 30 AB.
A321 LHS aft rows 35, 36 and 37 AB
The patient will be secured by an adequate harness to the stretcher. Approval of carriage to be obtained from the Company Medical Officer (CMO) ___ prior to departure.
48 hours
The Company does not accept ___ carried by passengers who have the potential need for it throughout the course of flight.
supplemental oxygen
The company does not insist on ___ from persons with disability who wish to travel without escort and require assistance at an airport and a reasonable accommodation in flight.
medical certificates/ special forms
___ is a standardised form for medical clearance and handling. This information is used by Company Doctor to decide whether a medical transport can be accepted or not.
The Medical Information Form (MEDIF)
Layover Bags are not permitted in the cockpit. In D, H and K series stow the bags in
overhead bins other than row 1,2 & 3.
9.2.3.4 Maximum number of passengers
It is airline policy that no passenger or crew member shall travel unless he has been provided a seat with a safety belt. Present seat configuration as authorised by the DGCA, the passenger carrying capacity of company aircraft is:
A321 222/ 232
A320 180/ 186
The seat near the exit row should not be allotted to:
- Persons who are invalid/disabled.
- Persons below 15 years of age.
- Persons who are not able to read and understand instructions related to emergency evacuation provided in printed, handwritten or graphic form or do not have the ability to understand oral crew commands.
If the PIC suspects that an airplane is not loaded in accordance with the laid down procedure and limitation, he may order
weighing of all Commercial load. If the airplane is found overloaded, it shall be re-loaded as per the PIC’s instructions. In such cases the PIC shall file a report to the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations).
Engineering spares are sometimes required to be carried on company flights. Some of these spares may be classified under Dangerous Goods. The company will carry all types of Engineering Spares including those which are classified as Dangerous Goods as ___.
COMAT
A ___ shall be provided to crew along with the Load & Trim sheet which will indicate the location and UN Number of the DG COMAT.
Special Load Notification (SLN)
9.2.4.3 Off Loading Priority
The following is the guideline for off-loading to meet load and trim requirements.
15 items
i) Company Stores/ mail
ii) Free Passengers
iii) Ordinary Cargo
iv) Excess baggage
v) Short shipped cargo
vi) Valuable Cargo
vii) Perishable Cargo
viii) Newspapers
ix) Post Office Mail
x) Staff on Duty except crew required for operation of flight/ training
xi) Dead Bodies
xii) AOG spares
xiii) Paying passengers and their baggage
xiv) PRM/ Incapacitated Passengers and their escorts
xv) Diplomatic Mail
Dead bodies may only be carried as freight in ___ in accordance with conditions laid down by the DGCA.
the baggage holds
9.2.5.6 Carriage of animals in passenger compartments A320/ 321
Not more than ___ containers of pets are carried at a time.
two
The Company aircraft do not have provision for ___ in cargo holds. Carriage of live cargo in the hold is not permissible.
temperature regulation
Note: While the company does not accept live animals as cargo (A320/321 and ATR 72), few live shipments which do not fall under category of live animals and do not require temperature control are permitted to be carried as Cargo. Example:
live fish seeds, shrimps, baby fish, live/ fresh fish, crabs, etc.
In case of severe brake overheat, ___ should result in tyres deflating and should prevent tyres burst.
fuse plugs melting
If a tyre is inflated, do not go near the area around the wheel for ___.
about one hour /
the front or rear and not from the side of the wheel.
Do not apply the extinguishing agent directly into the heat pack of the brake or into the wheel. This can cause ___ to the stressed parts. Especially, do not use CO2 as this has a strong cooling effect which is not the same in all areas. It can cause an explosion in the stressed parts.
thermal shock
In case cargo compartment smoke warning occurs with cargo door closed, the ground crew should be informed not to
open the door of the affected cargo compartment unless passengers have disembarked and fire-fighting services are present.
If the smoke warning is displayed on ground with cargo compartment door open, the aircraft extinguishing agent should
not be discharged. Ground crew should be requested to investigate and to fight the smoke source.
Engine tailpipe fire being an internal engine fire, does not require discharge of the engine fire-extinguishing agent. The agent has an effect on the nacelle fire only. ___ by the flight crew is the normal and most effective action.
Engine motoring
9.2.8.2.5 ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE
External fire agents can cause severe corrosive damage and therefore should only be considered if fire persists after flight crew procedure application or if no bleed air source is available to motor the engine. In such a case, ___ should be sprayed in engine exhaust nozzle.
Halon or CO2
9.2,10 Servicing of Airplanes Guidance on this is available in:
i) Aircraft Handling Manual
ii) Maintenance Manual
Cockpit crew must be in possession of the following mandatory documents prior to the flight:
4 items
i) Passenger manifest (with lead Cabin Crew)
ii) Crew Manifest
ili) Load and Trim Sheet
iv) NOTOC
Special Load notification
DGR notification (if carried)
The PIC shall give a written request to the Chief Aerodrome Security Officer (or any
other authorized Officer of Aviation Security Group) to disembark any person from
the aircraft on grounds of
risk to safety and security of the passengers and the crew.
9.3.2 Refusal of embarkation: En-route off loading
The PIC can refuse to carry or to off-load at any aerodrome any person if, in his opinion, the conduct, status, age or mental or physical condition of the person is such as to:
- render him incapable of caring for himself without special assistance of
Cabin Crew. - cause discomfort or make himself objectionable to other passengers.
- involve any hazard or risk to himself or to other persons, to property or to the aircraft.
- he fails to observe instructions of the crew.
Passenger after boarding the aircraft; does not want to continue with the journey and intends to disembark at the point of origin or at transit station due to unforeseen circumstances. a) Permissible reasons:
i) When passenger or his companion has extreme medical condition; the doctor available at the station will be called on-board to examine the passenger.
ii) When the passenger has been informed of a sudden demise or an emergency involving immediate/ close family member.
9.4 SELF-DISEMBARKATION: PASSENGERS
After Doors closed: The decision to disembark a passenger who
needs immediate medical attention or in deep distress due to a family situation at home, rests with the PIC in consultation with the crew (and available doctor on board, if any).
9.4 SELF-DISEMBARKATION: PASSENGERS
This policy shall not be applicable in case of any inordinate delay due reasons such as
IROPS or diversion, where criteria for permitting self-disembarkation of a passenger would depend on the situation existing and extent of delay.
9.6 ILLNESS/ INJURY/ MEDICAL EMERGENCY IN FLIGHT/ GROUND
It is the PIC’s responsibility to decide if
an immediate diversion and landing is required. Such a situation can be considered as an “Emergency”.
In case, a passenger decides not to continue his journey, PIC will ensure that Airport Services have off loaded his checked-in baggage and cabin baggage. A revised ___ may be considered to ascertain that all necessary actions have been completed.
security release certificate
9.6.3 RESPONSE TO A MEDICAL SITUATION
If the cabin crew are given sufficient time to evaluate the situation at hand; a fair number of unnecessary turn backs/ Diversions can be avoided. It is obligatory on part of the PIC to
gather complete information before deciding to turn back/ divert.
RESPONSE TO A MEDICAL SITUATION
Air/ Ground turn back/ diversion should be considered only when
the condition poses a danger to the life of the passenger.
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate when someone is unwell during taxi (or during any other stage of the flight)
“A passenger seated on ___ is unwell, please standby I shall revert post investigation.”
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate positive departure of aircraft when situation is under control (during taxi)
“Ready for takeoff.”
Suggested communication between the PIC and Cabin Crew:
To indicate return when sick passenger requires hospitalization or urgent ground medical attention (during any stage of the flight)
“The passenger requires urgent ground medical assistance.”
A passenger can be declared dead on board the aircraft only by a ___. If a medical practitioner is not on board and passenger is suspected to be dead, must be treated as a medical emergency and the Cabin Crew is to commence and continue CPR until a doctor declares that the passenger is dead.
certified medical practitioner
9.7 DEATH IN-FLIGHT/ GROUND
PIC shall send a message to the OCC and station of intended landing by any available means. The PIC, other crew and passengers, if required, witnessing the death will furnish necessary information regarding
the time, circumstances of death, etc.
9.7 DEATH IN-FLIGHT/ GROUND
The PIC must complete a report in a specified form ___ which records the name of the deceased person, nationality, the time of the death, location and registration of the aircraft. One copy of this report is to be given to ground authorities at destination and another to Chief of Flight Safety through Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) at the earliest.
(FSF 006)
9.7.1 Disinfesting the aircraft
In case of a Death on-board the Aircraft, getting the Aircraft Disinfested is mandatory prior to operating the next flight.
To avoid the AOG situation or delay, the aircraft can be disinfested by using ___ in the aircraft.
Bacillol 25 spray (Ready to use Surface & Equipment Disinfectant)
9.8 NOTIFICATION OF SUSPECTED COMMUNICABLE DISEASE
The PIC of an aircraft must promptly report a suspected communicable disease to ATC to facilitate provision of medical equipment and personnel for the management of public health risk on arrival of aircraft. Transmission to ATC must contain the following information but not limited to:
The aircraft’s call sign, aerodrome of departure, destination aerodrome, estimated time of arrival, number of persons affected, number of persons on board, nature of public health if known and the words “communicable disease”.
___ are e-cigarettes, personal vaporizers, vape pens, e-cigars, e-hookah, or vaping devices etc. that produce an aerosolized mixture containing flavoured liquids and nicotine that is inhaled by the user.
Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS)
PIC will be given the Flight delay information (Previous sector) (for all the previous legs the aircraft has flown) along with ___ before the flight.
METAR
The reasons for late arrival from previous station shall be conveyed by the flight crew through an announcement in the aircraft during pre-flight preparation, wherein:
a) The accumulated delay could be due to multiple reasons.
b) If there are multiple reasons, only two most significant ones are to be quoted for the delay.
c) If the delay duration is significant, PIC may include the duration of delay
9.12 LIVE HUMAN ORGAN TRANSPORTATION
Process to be followed by Pilot-in-Command
Basis advance information / NOTOC request ATC for ___ to expedite the process.
priority start-up and landing
Rescue aircraft belonging to permanent Search and Rescue Units use the call sign ___. If more than one aircraft is engaged on Search and Rescue duties, a serial number is added to the basic call sign.
ZIGZAG
11.1.5.1 Minimum Cockpit Experience (Domestic)
The operating crew shall have minimum ___ hrs total cockpit experience on type wherein PIC hours are considered from RELEASE on type and Co-pilot hours are considered after ENDORSEMENT on type.
500
11.1.5.1 Minimum Cockpit Experience (International)
The operating crew shall have additional experience on type before being planned for international flights as under:
PIC 100 hours as PIC
Co-Pilot Line Release
11.1.6.2 One way Command
The pilot whose name appears on ___ as PIC shall only log the flight time as PIC.
FRC
11.2.1 Succession in command
The following shall be the immediate succession in command in the event of incapacitation/ death of the PIC until instructions are received from Senior Vice President (Flight Operations):
i) Co-Pilot
ii) Safety Pilot (In case of a training flight) if available
iii) ACM Examiner/ Instructor/ LTC
iv) ACM Line Captain rated on aircraft, if available
- Safety Pilot, if available, shall take over the command.
- ACM First Officer, if available, shall assist the Co-Pilot.
- A pilot with a current command endorsement on type, if on board, may be instructed to assume Command. Alternatively, the Senior Vice President (Flight Operations) may instruct any senior pilot on board to assume command.
- Any Pilot who so assumes Command shall not handle the controls if he does not hold a current endorsement on type.
A pilot can fly with CA 35 for a maximum of ___ months from the date of issue.
03
The pre-flight breath test will be carried out by ___ type breath analyzer equipment at a designated preflight room. Preflight/ Post flight medical test is to be done only in the “Auto” mode.
ALCO-SENSOR
