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Company Officer > Company Officer (2 of 2) > Flashcards

Company Officer (2 of 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Photovoltaic system components may remain ____ after regular power service has been shut off. Pg 268

A

energized

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2
Q

horizontal member between trusses that support the roof. Pg 268

A

Purlin

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3
Q

____ is the first step to completing a successful recent survey. Pg 269

A

Building the relationship between the company officer and the business owner/occupant

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4
Q

Architectural drawings showing the overall project layout of building areas, driveways, fences, fire hydrant, and landscape features for a given plot of land; view is from directly above. Pg 269

A

Plot plan

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5
Q

In regards to pre-incident surveys: the priorities are normally based on____. Pg 271

A

life safety risk (including the risk to Firefighters), property values at risk, and potential frequency and severity of fires or other emergencies occurring.

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6
Q

Pre-incident surveys should be conducted using a ____ approach, divided between the exterior and interior of the structure. Pg 272

A

systematic and logical

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7
Q

I feel that sketches should be made of the structure or facilities, showing its ____. Pg 272

A

size, location, and components.

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8
Q

____ is a rough drawing of a building that is prepared during the facility survey. Pg 273

A

A field sketch

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9
Q

A field sketch drawing should show general information such as ____. Pg 273

A

dimensions, fire hydrants, streets, water tanks, and distances to nearby exposures.

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10
Q

The exterior facility survey focuses on obtaining information to create a plot plan or compare observations to an ____. Pg 274

A

Existing plot plan

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11
Q

Company personnel me move to either the building top floor (or roof if it is accessible) or lowest floor (basement, subbasement, or ground floor) to begin the ____. Most people prefer to start on top floor or roof. Pg 275

A

interior survey

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12
Q

____ and similar items should not be included on floorplans because their locations are not fixed. Pg 275;

A

Furniture

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13
Q

Life safety information is collected into ___ basic topic areas:____ and ____. Pg 275

A

protection and evacuation of occupants and protection of firefighters.

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14
Q

What are all the hazmat placard ratings? Pg 276

A

Flammability 4- flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials 3- ignites at ambient temp 2- ignites when moderately heated 1- must be preheated 0- will not burn
Health 4- severe hazards 3- serious hazards 2- moderate hazards 1- slight hazards 0- minimal hazards
Instability 4- capable of detonation or explosive decompostion at ambient conditions 3- Capable of detonation or explosive decompostion with strong initiating source 2- violent chemical change possible at elevated temps and pressure 1- normally stable, but becomes unatable if heated 0- normally stable

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15
Q

The term a ___ represents the bulk of fuel available to burn and generally refers to a building contents. Pg 277

A

fuel load

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16
Q

The major fuel sources are ___. Pg 277

A

furnishings and other building contents

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17
Q

Some ____ can be used during emergency operations to remove contaminated atmospheres from a structure if the system itself and natural ventilations is not helping. Pg 277

A

HVAC systems

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18
Q

Some structures are equipped with built in ventilation devices that are designed to ____. Pg 277

A

limit the spread of Fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres.

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19
Q

Roof and wall vents and curtain boards are most common in ____. Pg 277

A

large buildings having wide, unbroken expenses of floor space

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20
Q

Noncombustible barriers or dividers hung from the ceiling in large open areas that are designed to minimize the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke and impede the flow of heat. Pg 277

A

Draft curtains (curtain boards)

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21
Q

Release heat and smoke to the outside through vents that work automatically and are ____ to limit the spread of Fire within a building. Pg 278

A

Automatic roof and wall vents, placed at the highest point of a roof or wall

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22
Q

Release heat and smoke from atriums (large, vertical openings in the center of structures) to the outside. Equipped with automatic vents. Pg 278

A

Atrium vents

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23
Q

Release heat in smoke to the outside from square or rectangle or structures that penetrate a buildings roof.

A

Monitors

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24
Q

Monitors with solid walls should have ___ opposite sides, hinged at the bottom and held closed at the top with a fusible link that allows gravity to open them in case of a fire.

A

At least two

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25
Q

If the monitor made of glass does not break by the fire, firefighters ____. Pg 278

A

Will have to remove it

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26
Q

____ with thermoplastic panels or ordinary window glass act as automatic vents when a fire’s heat melts the plastic or breaks the glass. Skylights without thermoplastic panels or automatic venting will have to be removed or glass planes will have to be broken. Pg 278

A

Skylights

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27
Q

Fire resistive half walls (also known as ____) extend down from the underside of a roof to limit the horizontal spread of heat and smoke, which confines them to a relatively small area directly over their sources. Pg 278

A

Curtain boards also known as draft curtains

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28
Q

____ also concentrate heat and smoke directly under automatic roof vents (also automatic sprinklers) to accelerate the vents activation. Pg 279

A

Curtain boards

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29
Q

A recent advance in HVAC system, design, introduce thermostatically, controlled air into the space through openings in the floor. Pg 279

A

Underfloor air distribution (UFAD) systems

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30
Q

What are the two life safety risks for UFADs? Pg 279

A
  1. If smoke develops under a floor, it will be distributed into the space at floor level. 2. Water may enter the underfloor area and result in a short circuit that could cause a fire.
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31
Q

____ are not currently required in UFAD distribution systems. Pg 270

A

Smoke detectors

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32
Q

Automatic sprinklers, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, Halon substitute flooding systems, which may reduce the need for interior attack hose lines, but may increase the need for system support. Pg 280

A

Fixed fire extinguishing systems

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33
Q

____ may allow firefighters to carry hose packs into a building rather than lay long attack hoselines from outside. Pg 290

A

Standpipe system

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34
Q

The activation of these assemblies may potentially restrictive movement throughout a structure, and door activation may compromise attack lines. Pg 280

A

Smoke, heat, or alarm activated doors

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35
Q

____ can provide information regarding the sizes and locations of water mains as well as pressures that can be anticipated serving the occupancy based on the municipality’s water atlas, a map book or online database of all waterlines in the jurisdiction. Pg 281

A

The public works department

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36
Q

Pre-incident planning may involve a collective effort of ____ of the organization. Pg 281

A

all levels

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37
Q

What are the two general school of thought about what should be included in a printer that plan? Pg 282

A
  1. Assume that all interior structure fires behave in generally the same way and this behavior is predictable unless there’s something in the fire environment to cause it to behave differently. 2. Much more involved and structured because the volume of information gathered on each structure and occupancy surveyed is extensive. Pg 282
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38
Q

What are the three general types of drawings used to show building information? Pg 282

A
  1. Plot plans (show relation to other buildings) 2. Floor plans 3. Elevations (show side views of structures)
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39
Q

Written report must be ____. Pg 283

A

Clear and concise

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40
Q

The three major tasks with any preincident plan involve ____? Pg 284

A

Gathering the data, entering the data into databases, and keeping the data current

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41
Q

The emergency services delivered to a community include but are not limited to ____? Pg 291

A

Fire suppression, rescue, hazardous materials response, and emergency medical care

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42
Q

What are the new series of approaches to improve firefighters survivability? Pg 292

A

Recognizing rapid fire development occupant survivability profiling, crew resource management, and new recommended rules of engagement

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43
Q

The environment within a structural fire can exceed ___ within ____ with the potential for flashover to occur within ___. The upper human survivability limit is ____ according to the ____. Pg 292

A

500°F, 3-4 mins, 5 mins, 212°F, NFPA

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44
Q

Approximately 1110°F (599°C) is ___? Pg 292

A

Flashover

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45
Q

____ is a type of size up that should be employed to evaluate the potential of an occupant being alive within a structure fire environment. Pg 292

A

Occupant survivability profiling

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46
Q

Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature, and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space. Pg 292

A

Flashover

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47
Q

____ saves firefighters. ____ saves occupants. Pg 292

A

Survivable space, searchable space

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48
Q

____ is a system to optimize the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures, and equipment in order to promote safety and improve operational efficiency. Pg 293

A

CRM (crew resource management)

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49
Q

Using ___ assist personnel and identifying the first indicator of errors occurring; the discrepancy between what __ happening and what ___ happening. Pg 293

A

CRM, is, should be

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50
Q

In ___, the safety, health, and survival section of the international associates a Fire Chiefs (IAFC) released its initial draft of ____. Pg 293

A

2010, rules of engagement for structural firefighting – increasing firefighter survival.

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51
Q

What are the 11 rules of engagement for fire fighter survival? Pg 294

A
  1. Size up your tactical area of operation. 2. Determine the occupants survival profile. 3. Do not risk your life for lives or property that cannot be saved. 4. Extend limited risk to protect savable property. 5. Extend vigilant and measured risk to protect and rescue savable lives. 6. Go in together, stay together, come out together. 7. Maintain a continuous awareness of your air supply, situation, location, and fire conditions 8. Constantly monitor fireground communications for critical radio reports. 9. You are required to report unsafe practices or conditions that can harm you. Stop, evaluate, and decide. 10. You are required to abandon your position and retreat before deteriorating conditions can harm you. 11. Declare a mayday as soon as you think you are in danger.
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52
Q

What are the 14 rules of engagement for incident commander? Pg 294

A
  1. Rapidly conduct, or obtain, a 360° size of of the incident. 2. Determine the occupant survival profile. 3. Conduct an initial risk assessment and implement a safe action plan. 4. If you do not have the resources to safely support and protect firefighters – seriously, consider a defensive strategy. 5. Do not Rick Firefighter lives for life. Our property that cannot be saved – seriously consider a defensive strategy. 6. Extend limited risk to protect savable property. 7. Extend vigilant in measured risk to protect and rescue savable lives. 8. Act upon reported, unsafe, practices and conditions that can harm firefighters. Stop, evaluate, and decide. 9. Maintain frequent two-way communications and keep interior crews informed of changing conditions. 10. Obtain frequent progress reports and revise the action plan. 11. Ensure accurate accountability of all Firefighter locations and status. 12. If, after completing the primary search, little or no progress towards fire control has been achieved – seriously consider a defensive strategy. 13. Always have a rapid intervention team in place at all working fires. 14. Always have Firefighter rehab services in place at all working fires.
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53
Q

Incident scene management applies to ____ from single resource situations to multijurisdictional in multiagency disasters requiring many resources? Pg 295

A

all types of emergency responses and all levels of resource commitment

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54
Q

As a result of ____, the national incident management system (NIMS) is required to be used. Pg 295

A

presidential directive 5

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55
Q

The first arriving emergency services personnel establish the____. Pg 295

A

NIMS-ICS, make decisions, and take actions that will influence the rest of the operation

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56
Q

Essential to all emergency incident scene management is the management of emergency response resources: ____. Pg 296

A

apparatus, personnel, equipment, and materials

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57
Q

What are the levels included with NIMS-ICS? Pg 296

A

Independent EMS providers, law-enforcement agencies, and public works

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58
Q

Act of directing, ordering, and/or controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or a delegated authority. Pg 296

A

Command

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59
Q

Incident management personnel who report directly to the incident commander. This includes public information, officer, safety officer, and liaison officer. Pg 296

A

Command staff

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60
Q

Written, or unwritten plan, for the position of an incident; contains the strategic goal, task, objective, and support requirements for a given operational. During an incident.

A

Incident action plan (IAP)

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61
Q

Period of time scheduled for execution of a specify, that set of operational goals and objectives as identified in the incident action plan (IAP). And operational. May be 12 hours, 24 hours, or any other arbitrary in my time. A new IAP is created for each operationaL period. Pg 296

A

Operational period

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62
Q

Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizational Lee located between section in division, our group. Identified by Roman numeral or functional area (command, operations) Pg 298

A

Branch

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63
Q

Organizational level having responsibility for operations with a defined geographic area. Pg 297

A

Division

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64
Q

Organizational level, equal to division, having responsibility for a specific function assignment. (without regard for a specific geographic area.) pg 297

A

Group

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65
Q

Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation units within the planning section. Pg 297

A

Unit

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66
Q

Specified number of personnel assembled for an assignment. Operate under the direct supervision of a crew leader. Pg 297

A

Crew

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67
Q

Individual pieces of apparatus. Pg 297

A

Single resources

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68
Q

Any combination of resources assembled for a specific mission or operational assignment. Once tactical objective has been met, the force is disbanded. Pg 297

A

Task force

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69
Q

Set number of resources of the same kind and type. Remain together and function as a team throughout an incident. Pg 297

A

Strike team

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70
Q

A _____ is necessary when an incident involves or threatens to involve more than one jurisdiction our agency. Pg 297

A

Unified command structure

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71
Q

A ____ may also be appropriate within a single jurisdiction is multiple agencies are affected. ie: a hostage situation, house fire containing a meth lab. Pg 298

A

Unified command

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72
Q

____ requires the fire officer I to be able to develop an initial action plan. Pg 299

A

NFPA 1021

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73
Q

____ use the term plan of operation to describe the same concept. Pg 299

A

Lloyd Layman

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74
Q

____ establishes the overall strategic decisions and assigns a tactical objectives for an incident. (NFPA 1561) Pg 299

A

Initial action plan (IAP)

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75
Q

A ____ will be required for long duration events. Pg 299

A

formal written IAP

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76
Q

____ is the number of direct subordinates that one supervisor can effectively manage. An effective span of control ranges from ____ subordinates per supervisor, depending upon the number of variables, with___ consider the optimum number. Pg 299

A

Span of control, 3-7, 5

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77
Q

The first arriving company officer as the incident commander should implement the ____ soon after arrival on the scene. Pg 300

A

organizations accountability system

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78
Q

What are the size up priorities? Pg 300

A
  1. Life safety 2. Incident stabilization 3. Property conservation
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79
Q

A company officer begins to actively size up the emergency when ___. Pg 300

A

the alarm sound an emergency notification is received

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80
Q

Amount of time to request and obtain additional resources. Pg 301

A

The lead/reflex time.

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81
Q

Who wrote fire fighting tactics? Pg 301

A

Lloyd Layman

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82
Q

What are the five principles for analyzing any emergency situation according to Lloyd Layman/ fire fighting tactics? Pg 301

A
  1. Facts 2. Probabilities 3. Own situation 4. Decision 5. Plan of operation
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83
Q

Information gathered in the size up process serves as a basis for making decisions about how to manage the incident. Pg 303

A

Plan of operation

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84
Q

Large, complex incidence require a ___, often with numerous annexes. An IAP normally covers a ___. Pg 303

A

written IAP, single operational period

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85
Q

____ means controlling the environment in which responders must work and bystanders or victims may find themselves. Pg 303

A

Scene Control

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86
Q

Scene control begins with the ___? Pg 303

A

First arriving company officer establishing command

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87
Q

Controlling the movement of non-emergency personnel near a high hazard area contributes to ____. Pg 303

A

Life safety on the scene

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88
Q

Establishing ____ is the most common an effective way to control the perimeter of an incident scene. Pg 304

A

three operating control zones (commonly labeled, hot, warm, and cold)

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89
Q

Area where resolving the problem takes place. Only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed. Pg 304

A

Hot zone

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90
Q

Area immediately outside the hot zone for personnel who are directly supporting the work being performed by those in the hot zone. ie: hydraulic tools power plant emergency lighting and fire protection. Ready to enter the hot zone. Normally where the decontamination station is assembled. Also called safe haven. Pg 304

A

Warm zone

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91
Q

Area immediately surrounding the hot and warm zones. ie: ICP, RIC, PIO, rehab, and staging area for personnel and portable equipment. The outer boundary of this area would be the control line for the general public. Pg 304

A

Cold zone

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92
Q

The greater the temperature differences between the objects, the ___ the transfer rate. Pg 307

A

more rapid

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93
Q

Heat is transferred from one object to another by ____. Pg 307

A

conduction, convection, and radiation.

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94
Q

Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted, through solid and fluid media by conduction, convection, and radiation. Pg 307

A

Heat

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95
Q

Physical flow, or transfer of heat energy from one body to another through direct contact or an intervening medium. Pg 307

A

Conduction

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96
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction. Pg 307

A

Convection

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97
Q

Transmission or transfer of heat energy from one body to another body at a lower temperature through intervening space by electromagnetic waves, such as infrared thermal waves, radio waves, or x-rays. Pg 307

A

Radiation

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98
Q

A room or space within a building or structure that is enclosed on all sides, at the top and bottom. Pg 307

A

Compartment

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99
Q

Thermal are chemical decomposition of fuel (matter) because of heat, generally resulting in the lower the ignition temperature of the material. Pg 308

A

Pyrolysis

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100
Q

The preignition, combustion phase of burning during which heat energy is absorbed by the fuel, in turn giving off flammable, tars, pitches, and gases. Pyrolysis of wood releases combustible gases and leaves a charred surface. Pg 308

A

Pyrolysis process or sublimation

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101
Q

When sufficient oxygen is available, fire development is controlled by the fuels characteristics and configurations. Under these conditions, the fire is said to be ____. Pg 308

A

fuel controlled

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102
Q

As a fire develops within a compartment, it reaches a point where further development is limited by the available oxygen supply and the fire is said to be ____? Pg 308

A

Ventilation controlled

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103
Q

____ of gases (also called ____) is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature. Pg 308

A

Thermal layering, heat stratification

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104
Q

As the volume and temperature of the hot gas layer increases, ____. Pg 308

A

So does the pressure

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105
Q

Higher pressure in this hot layer causes it to ____? Pg 308

A

Push down and out, increasing the pressure in the compartment.

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106
Q

The pressure is ____ at the point where these two layers meet as the hot gases exit through an opening. Pg 309

A

Neutral

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107
Q

The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as the ____. Pg 309

A

Neutral plane

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108
Q

Moment when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat (ignition) source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction. Pg 309

A

Piloted ignition

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109
Q

Minimum temperature to which a (other than a liquid) in the air must be heated in order to start self sustained combustion; no external ignition source is required. Pg 309

A

Autoignition temperature

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110
Q

Various fire events result in rapid fire development. These include ____? Pg 309

A
  1. Flashover 2. Backdraft 3. Smoke explosion.
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111
Q

____ occurs when all exposed combustible surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to the ignition temperature and ignite almost simultaneously. Pg 309

A

Flashover

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112
Q

What are the two factors that determine whether a compartment fire will progress to flashover? Pg 310

A
  1. The fuel must generate enough heat energy to develop a flashover condition. 2. Ventilation
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113
Q

Most fires that grow beyond the incipient stage become ____? Pg 310

A

Ventilation controlled

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114
Q

____ buildings do not vent as rapidly as older buildings. Pg 310

A

Modern, well sealed, energy-efficient

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115
Q

____ describes a condition in which the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer or across the ceiling. Sign of impeding flashover. Growth stage. Pg 311

A

Rollover

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116
Q

Rollover may occur during the ____? Pg 311

A

Growth stage

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117
Q

A ____ can produce a large volume of flammable smoke other gases due to incomplete combustion. Needs oxygen. Pg 311

A

ventilation controlled compartment fire

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118
Q

Instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of superheated gases that occur when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen depleted confined space. The stalled combustion resumes with explosive force. May occur because of inadequate or improper ventilation procedures. Decay state. Pg 311

A

Backdraft

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119
Q

Backdraft occurs in the ____? Pg 311

A

Decay stage

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120
Q

An increase in low level ventilation (such as opening a door or window) prior to upper level ventilation can result in an explosive rapid combustion of the flammable gases, called ____. Pg 311

A

Backdraft

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121
Q

A Backdraft can occur with the creation of a ____. Pg 311

A

Horizontal or vertical opening

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122
Q

It is often ____ assumed that a Backdraft will always occur immediately after making an opening into the building or involved compartment. Pg 312

A

Incorrectly

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123
Q

In regards to Backdraft, the more confined, the ___ it will be. Pg 312

A

More violent

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124
Q

A ____ may occur before or after the decay stage. Pg 312

A

Smoke explosion

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125
Q

___ occurs when unburned fuel gases come in contact with an ignition source. Needs heat. Pg 312

A

Smoke explosion

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126
Q

Smoke explosions are violent because they involve ____? Pg 312

A

Premixed fuel and oxygen

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127
Q

The key difference between a smoke explosion in Backdraft is that with the Backdraft, the mixture of smoke and air is extremely ____ (generally greater than ____). However, a smoke explosion requires ____. Pg 312,

A

Fuel rich, 10% total hydrocarbons, fuel and air within its flammable range.

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128
Q

The only indication of potential for a smoke explosion is the ____ ? Generally, in an area away from the fire or after fire. Pg 312

A

Presence of smoke

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129
Q

Common, prevailing, and uncontrolled atmospheric weather conditions. Pg 313

A

Ambient conditions

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130
Q

____ type of fuels are the most common types of fuels found in structures. Pg 313

A

Class A or cellulose

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131
Q

_____ are much more easily ignited, and will burn more quickly than the same substance with less surface area. Pg 313

A

Class A fuel combustible materials with high surface to mass ratios

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132
Q

A liquid fuel spill will increase that liquids surface to volume ratio, and will generate more flammable vapors than that same liquid in ____. Pg 313

A

an open container

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133
Q

Black smoke is often present in fires involving materials like ____? Pg 313

A

Foam, synthetics, and plastics

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134
Q

____, such as wood paneling, can be a significant factor influencing fire spread. Pg 314

A

Combustible interior finishes

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135
Q

____ are often the most readily available fuel source and significantly influence fire development in a compartment fire. Pg 314

A

A Structures contents

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136
Q

Fires in a large compartment generally develop more ___ than one in a small compartment. This slower fire development is due to the greater volume of air and the increased distance radiated heat must travel from the fire to contents that must be heated. Pg 314

A

slowly

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137
Q

_____ may mask the extent of fire. Pg 315

A

High ceilings

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138
Q

Pre-existing ventilation is the actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on ____. Pg 315

A

structural openings, construction type, and building ventilation systems.

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139
Q

_____ the available air supply determines the speed and extent of fire development and the direction of fire travel. Pg 315

A

When a fire becomes a ventilation control

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140
Q

Fire will always grow towards ____ as it seeks fresh air. Pg 315

A

ventilation openings

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141
Q

Contains heat within the compartment. Pg 315

A

Insulation

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142
Q

Increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources. Pg 315

A

Heat reflectivity

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143
Q

Slowly absorbs and releases large amounts of heat to maintain temperature pg 315

A

Retention

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144
Q

ambient conditions, such as___ and___, Can slow the natural movement of smoke. Pg 315

A

High humidity, cold temperatures

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145
Q

____ can also cause smoke to remain close to the ground, obscuring visibility during size up. Pg 316

A

Atmospheric air pressure

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146
Q

The total quantity of combustible contents of a building, space, or fire area is referred to as the____? Pg 316

A

Fuel load. Also called fire load

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147
Q

Fuel load includes all __ and structural components of the structure. Pg 316

A

Furnishings, merchandise, interior finish

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148
Q

____ can calculate a fairly accurate estimate of the Fuel load of any structure. Pg 316

A

Fire safety engineers

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149
Q

The purpose of this study was to evaluate the structure performance of wood “I” beams and 2 x 4” wood trusses (lightweight wood construction) under fire conditions in comparison to older, legacy construction techniques using 2 x 10” floor joist and 2 x 6 roof supporters. A total of __ fire test were conducted, with __ test on floor ceiling assemblies and __ on the roof ceiling assemblies. Pg 317

A

9, 7, 2.

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150
Q

Modern trusses are generally spaced __ apart. Which contribute to __ and ___. Pg 317

A

24”, roof failure, firefighters fall through

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151
Q

Firefighters should not attack a basement from the ____. Pg 318

A

Stairway

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152
Q

Temperatures at the bottom of basement stairs were often ___ then those encountered at the top of the stairs. Pg 318

A

Higher

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153
Q

Ventilating a basement fire requires ___. Pg 318

A

Coordinated ventilation

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154
Q

This study compared legacy (older) residential construction to more contemporary residential construction. Two houses were constructed inside ___. A total of___ ventilation experiments were conducted. Pg 319

A

UL’s large fire facility, 15. Legacy: 1 story 1200 ft.², 3 bed, 1 bath, 4 other rooms. Contemporary: two-story, 3200 ft.², four bed, 2 1/2 bath, six other rooms,

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155
Q

Firefighters need to understand that ___ is a form of ventilation. Pg 219;

A

forcible entry

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156
Q
  1. Activities of significant risk shall be limited when there is potential to save endangered lives. 2. Activities routinely employed shall be recognized as inherent risk and actions shall be taken to avoid risks. 3. No risk to members shall be acceptable when no possibility to save lives or property.
A

The IFSTA principles of risk management

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157
Q

__ basic decision making processes should be used in coordinating with one another which are ___. Pg 321

A
  1. Incident priorities LIP, Lloyd Layman’s, RECEO – VS
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158
Q

Rescue of animals ___ meet the criteria for taking great risk. Pg 321

A

Does not

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159
Q

Fire chief Lloyd Layman created his RECEO – VS decision making model in the ___. Pg 322

A

mid-20th century

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160
Q

What does the acronym RECEO – VS stand for? Pg 322

A

Rescue. Exposures. Confinement. Extinguishment. Overhaul. Ventilation. Salvage.

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161
Q

All personnel must conform to ____ , standard on fire department occupational safety and health program, and occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) requirements for ____ and____ procedures. Pg 322

A

NFPA 1500, 2 in/2 out, initial rapid intervention crew (IRIC)

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162
Q

That you. S. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) established the ____ as part of the ____? Pg 323

A

2 in/2 out rule, 29 CFR 1910.134

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163
Q

In response to the Americans with disability act (ADA), many new buildings and those that have undergone major renovations include what are called ___. Pg 324

A

areas of rescue assistance.

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164
Q

____ is the term Layman used to describe the need to prevent extension of incident effects to uninvolved areas? Pg 324

A

Confinement

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165
Q

Limiting the problem to the area of origin, or property of origin, means taking actions in order to save adjacent structures that are uninvolved are only slightly involved. Pg 324

A

Exposures

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166
Q

to migrating a Fire. Pg 325

A

Extinguishment

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167
Q

To make an incident scene secure from rekindle our other hazards associated with the incident. Pg 325

A

Overhaul

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168
Q

Ventilation must not be started to lay in a fire progression are the full effect or ____. Pg 326

A

proper ventilation will not be experienced

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169
Q

The methods and operating procedures used to save property and reduce further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure during or immediately after a fire. Pg 326

A

Salvage

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170
Q

___ was initially developed for the US Coast Guard oil spill field operations guide, and has evolved for all risk, all hazard responses. Pg 327

A

The operational planning “P”

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171
Q

The first 5 steps of NIMS – ICS planning process: pg 327

A
  1. Understand the situation (size up) 2. Establishes incident objectives and strategies 3. Develop the plan of action (IAP) 4. Prepare and disseminate the plan (make assignments) 5. Evaluate and revise the plan
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172
Q

The size-up process actually begins ____? Pg 328

A

before an incident is reported and continues throughout the incident.

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173
Q

As company officers in the personal travel to work, they should___? Pg 328

A

Begin a general size of the day’s situation. Observant road, maintenance, construction areas, and designated detours, weather forecast.

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174
Q

The size-up process for probably ____ when the unit arrives at emergency incident scene. Pg 329

A

intensify

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175
Q

The risk assessment may influence the ___. Pg 330

A

incident goals and priorities

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176
Q

During this phase, the situation either improves or worsens. Pg 330

A

Between arrival and problem resolution

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177
Q

If the situation gradually improves but will take a long time to resolve, the IC may need to plan for ___. Pg 331

A

responder rehabilitation and relief and other logistical needs

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178
Q

___ are the overall plans for controlling an incident. They are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved. Pg 331

A

Strategic goals

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179
Q

___ are specific statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving tactical objectives leads to the completion of strategical goals. Pg 331

A

Tactical objectives

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180
Q

The establishment of a ___ should be a top priority if a chief officer, member, or unit without tactical capabilities initiates command. Pg 331

A

command post

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181
Q

Situations that require immediate action to stabilize the incident mandate the ___ to carry out the critical operation. Pg 332

A

company officer’s assistance

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182
Q

The fast attack options to not last more than a few minutes within the immediately dangerous of life and health (IDLH) atmosphere, and will end up with one of the following.

A
  1. The situation is stabilized 2. The situation is not stabilized or transfer of Command has not taken place. Company officer should withdrawal and establish a command post. 3. Command is transferred to another officer.
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183
Q

Interior crews should consist of a minimum of ___. Pg 332

A

two persons

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184
Q

The company officer will initially assume an ___ and maintain that position until a higher ranking officer relieves him or her. Pg 332

A

exterior, safe, and effective command position

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185
Q

The officer may elect to assign the ___ to perform staff functions to assist command. Pg 333

A

crew members

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186
Q

Should the IC decide the risk is worth the benefits, the next thing that must be determined is ___. Pg 333

A

how long firefighters can be expected to sustain an interior attack

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187
Q

___ may mean that the risk outweighs the benefit. Pg 333

A

Not enough resources or available water

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188
Q

Although it may be the hardest decision incident commanders are ever asked to make, there are times when attempting to make a rescue or an interior attack may be ___. Pg 333

A

too great a risk to the safety of the firefighters.

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189
Q

Failure to do a ____ is the ultimate example of not being responsible for the safety of the personnel. Pg 333

A

risk/benefit evaluation

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190
Q

____ means that carrying on an aggressive interior attack is worth the risk and that sufficient resources are available to meet the incident demands. Pg 334

A

Offensive mode

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191
Q

The probability of saving lives is highly unlikely in the risk to firefighters in attempting to save property outweighs the gain. Pg 334

A

Defensive mode

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192
Q

Protecting the exposed buildings from for the loss and confining the fire to the structure(s) involved is considered a ____. Pg 334

A

Defensive mode

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193
Q

Any time decision is ___, particular attention should be given to make sure the switch is communicated to all personnel at the incident, and that confirmation of a change is received. Pg 334

A

made to switch from one operational mode to another

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194
Q

When calling for additional resources, these resources may be ____. Pg 334

A

held in reserve, used to relieve first arriving units, or assigned a tactical objectives on the incident

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195
Q

Once an emergency incident has been terminated, the company officer may still participate in two important activities ____? Pg 335

A

Determine the cause of the incident and prepare a postincident analysis (a PIA or after action report)

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196
Q

A secure perimeter must be established and only those responsible for emergency cause determination should be allowed to enter the area. This is the same perimeter used to define the ____. Perimeter may be larger in require the use of ____ to secure it. Pg 335

A

hot zone. apparatus, road barriers, or law-enforcement or military personnel

197
Q

Until he can be properly investigated, evidence may need to be protected with a ___. Pg 336

A

Salvage cover or cardboard box

198
Q

Failure to secure the scene may impair are ruined an investigation if ____? Pg 336

A

The evidence chain of custody is broken

199
Q

The term chain of custody (chain of evidence) is a legal term that refers to ____? Pg 336

A

The handling and integrity of real evidence (physical materials).

200
Q

To be acceptable in a court of law, the chain of custody must authenticate the location of evidence ____ and who had access to it. Pg 336

A

At all times

201
Q

In most fire, incidents, fire and emergency services organizations have the authority to deny access to any building during Firefighting operations and for as ___. Pg 336

A

long afterwards as deemed reasonably necessary

202
Q

A ____ should be used to protect the scene and any evidence. Pg 336

A

Single entry control point

203
Q

_____ is essential for evidence to be of any value in court. Pg 337

A

Maintaining the chain of custody

204
Q

____ are the first persons in the chain of custody. Pg 337

A

Company officers and their personnel

205
Q

____ are the greatest threat to the recovery of evidence are any physical indications of the cause of the incident? Pg 337

A

The overhaul or accessory actions that emergency service personnel perform

206
Q

Water application and debris movement should be ____? Pg 337

A

Minimized to protect such evidence

207
Q

____ focuses on the activities of the responders without placing blame or finding fault. Pg 338

A

A postincident analysis (PIA)

208
Q

The PIA and post instant critique are intended to determine whether an emergency and said it was conducted in the ____? Pg 338

A

Safest and most efficient manner

209
Q

Those participating in the critique of me include the responding units as well as ____. Pg 338

A

Staff officers, branch and division, supervisors, and off-duty personnel who were called to the scene.

210
Q

Two primary areas of analysis are the ____ of the operational strategy and tactics and personal safety. Generally, with an incident is large and complex, ____ are assigned to these topic areas. Pg 338

A

Application and effectiveness. Two members of the NIMS-ICS command staff

211
Q

The incident commander will sign an officer to write the post incident analysis dealing with _____? Pg 338

A

Strategy and tactics

212
Q

The responsibility for collecting safety related information for a post incident analysis assigned it to the ____. Pg 339

A

Incident safety officer (ISO)

213
Q

They postincident critique is a meeting that generally involves ___? Pg 339

A

All participating units and agencies.

214
Q

The goal of the critique is to ____ and ___ that were evident in the analysis. Pg 339

A

Acknowledge any weaknesses, applaud strengths

215
Q

____ once all necessary information has been gathered and reviewed. The critique should occur ___ of the incident. This time in ensures that the events are fresh in the mind of the participants in that needed corrections are not delayed. Pg 339

A

A formal critic should be held. Within a week.

216
Q

When the analysis and critique are complete, any weaknesses in skills must be corrected ___. Pg 340

A

Through additional training

217
Q

Each authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) establishes the criteria for selecting and evaluating candidates for company officers. These often include a combination of ____? Pg 350

A

Written testing, interviews, and skills evaluation

218
Q

According to ____, a level two fire officer must conduct a ____, seem to include analyzing, all available information in determining the point of origin cause of the fire. Pg 351

A

NFPA 1021, preliminary investigation of a fire

219
Q

Oral communication skills are necessary for ____? Pg 351

A

presenting, training, meetings, and at emergency scenes.

220
Q

Written skills are vital, and the company after two may be required to develop: ___? Pg 351

A

Written reports, press releases, memos, policies, procedures

221
Q

Most citizens have more direct contact with local government departments and divisions to include fire and emergency services then with any other level. Citizens attend ___?Pg 352

A

Fire board meetings, provide guidance for pre-incident surveys, obtain burn permits, tour fire stations, receive EMS and Firefighting services, and attend the fire and life safety presentations.

222
Q

NFPA ____, requires company officers, to understand how local governments enact laws. Pg 353

A

NFPA 1021

223
Q

Company officers may interact with ___? Pg 353

A

Law enforcement, building safety, water supply agencies, public transportation, social services, municipal/county courts, zoning boards, public works, disaster preparedness

224
Q

State and similarly territorial governments are generally modeled after the federal government with three functional branches: ___? Pg 354

A

Legislative, executive, and judicial

225
Q

The term ____ is also used to describe four states (____) and one of the territories (____). A state in which the government functions with a common consent of the people. Pg 354

A

Commonwealth, Kentucky, Massachusetts, Pennsylvania, and Virginia, Puerto Rico.

226
Q

Canada is divided into ___ and ____? Pg 354

A

10 provinces and 3 territories

227
Q

Provincial governments have ___ that include a ____ Pg 354

A

3 branches, unicameral legislative assembly (or national assembly in Quebec) an executive branch that a premier directs, and a court system.

228
Q

Each province also has a ____ that Canada’s governor general appoints; however, the position is largely honorary in carries no real legal authority. Pg 354

A

Lieutenant governor

229
Q

The Yukon Territory’s political head is the leader of the majority party and carries the title of ___? Pg 354

A

Government leader

230
Q

All three Canadian territories provide ____? Pg 354

A

fire protection and EMS services.

231
Q

Tribal governments have structures similar to the federal government, although the leader is called the ___? 355

A

Chief

232
Q

In the US, the ___ is the primary agency responsible for Management of the aboriginal peoples of North America land and resources. Pg 355

A

bureau of Indian affairs.

233
Q

The most apparent differences between the US and Canadian federal governments exist in the ___? Pg 356

A

Executive branch

234
Q

The true chief executive of the Canadian government is the ____, who is assisted by a cabinet of ministers for various governmental functional areas. Pg 356

A

Prime Minister

235
Q

A ____ may be a simple function of the local government and not require a written document to verify it, although a document may aid in establishing command and control detail. Pg 357

A

Internal aid agreement

236
Q

A procedure to be put into effect should an emergency occur within a given region our area. Pg 358

A

Area contingency plan (ACP)

237
Q

____ was created to integrate federal government prevention, preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation plans into one all discipline, all hazard approach to domestic incident management. Pg 359

A

The US national response plan (NRP)

238
Q

The ____ provide the framework and processes to integrate all the capabilities and resources of the jurisdictions, disciplines, and levels of government and the private sector into a cohesive, unified, and coordinated approach to domestic incident management. Pg 359

A

The NRP and NIMS

239
Q

Ongoing, repeated assessments conducted overtime to evaluate and employees performance against an organization’s standards. Pg 359

A

Formative evaluation

240
Q

An assessment of an employees performance against an organizations standards that are conducted at the end of a given period of time such as a probationary period, annually, as part of a performance review, or for performance improvement or disciplinary purposes. Pg 359

A

Summative evaluation

241
Q

It is likely that the company officer will be the individual who implements change at the ___? Pg 361

A

Operational level

242
Q

Change can originate from two forces: ___? Pg 361

A
  1. Internal 2. External
243
Q

____ originate within the unit/organization, and include changes that are created by the delegation of responsibility, periodic performance reviews, organizational restructuring, and realignment of duties and tasks to meet the changes that external forces drive. Pg 361

A

Internal forces

244
Q

____ originate from political decisions, economic trends, community service demands, changes in technology, and changes in the demographics of the community, among others. Pg 361

A

External forces

245
Q

What are the 4 change process stages?

A
  1. Denial - people refuse to believe that the change will affect them. 2. Resistance - when the threat of change becomes real, people start to resist it. 3. Exploration - people get a better understanding of the potential change through training. 4. Commitment - increased understanding in the third stage leads to an increase commitment.
246
Q

Support for change must come from the ____ in order for it to be successful. Pg 361

A

Top down

247
Q

What are the reasons to resist change? Pg 362

A

Uncertainty, loss of control or power, fear of loss, self interest, learning anxiety, lack of trust, lack of shared vision.

248
Q

What are the 7 steps to overcome the resistance to change? Pg 361

A
  1. Create a climate for change 2. Plan for change 3. Communicate the advantages and effects of change 4. Meet the needs of both the organization and employees 5. Involve employees in the change process 6. Provide support for employees during the change 7. Seek the input and support of “opinion leaders” in the organization
249
Q

What are the 5, steps for model of change? Pg 364

A
  1. Recognize the need for change 2. Identify resistance and address it 3. Plan the change intervention 4. Implement the change 5. Control the change
250
Q

The follow up program becomes part of the annual performance evaluation for personnel in the ____? Pg 364

A

periodic review programs, operations, or policies

251
Q

The ____ is the feedback that takes the results and loops them back to the first portion of the process, becoming the current level of performance. Pg 364

A

follow up

252
Q

____, an organizational researcher, determined in the ____ that there are __ reasons that change processes fail. Pg 364

A

John Kotter, 1990s, 8

253
Q

What are the eight reasons that change processes fail? Pg 365

A
  1. The change process is to complex 2. The change process lacks universal support 3. Lack of a clear vision and not understanding the importance of having one 4. The failure to communicate the vision to the organization 5. Allowing barriers to be placed in the way of the vision and change process 6. Not planning for and recognizing the short term results 7. Declaring completion of the change process prematurely 8. Failure to make the change a permanent part of the organizations culture
254
Q

The key actors are influential members, such as, ___? 365

A

The chief of the department, president of the labor organization, branch/division heads, members of the governing board, or heads of other departments.

255
Q

Understanding group dynamics is vital for a company officers because there is a direct connection between ___. Pg 372

A

informal group support and formal group success or failure of the unit.

256
Q

A group is often defined as a collection of people who: pg 372

A

Share certain traits, interact with one another, except rights and obligations as members of the group, and share a common identity

257
Q

A group is defined as? Pg 372

A

Two or more persons with common goals that may or may not be explicitly stated.

258
Q

Formal groups usually define common goals in ___. Pg 372

A

a written document

259
Q

A friendship is an ____ of two persons who interact with the common goal of mutual respect and interests. Pg 372

A

Informal group

260
Q

Informal subgroups commonly form in exist within ____. Pg 372

A

Formal groups

261
Q

_____ may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group more than any other factor. Pg 372

A

Informal subgroups

262
Q

____ determine the company officers ability to deal effectively with the informal group. Pg 372

A

Group dynamics

263
Q

What are the five essential characteristics a group may exhibit? These elements are what make up group dynamics. Pg 372

A

Common binding interest, group image/identity, since of continuity, shared values, roles within the group

264
Q

What are some common binding interest? Pg 374

A

Common hobby, organizational memberships, or religious affiliations.

265
Q

Loss of ___ can be a factor in the loss of personnel and support of the united and the organization. Pg 374

A

Group cohesion

266
Q

____ is one of the greatest influence is on the success of the group. Pg 374

A

Group image

267
Q

The values of the organization usually are reflected in the ____? Pg 375

A

Attitudes and actions of individuals and groups within the organization.

268
Q

___, the leader is usually either assigned or elected. Pg 375

A

Formal groups

269
Q

____, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used. Pg 375

A

Informal groups

270
Q

Control over the group will result from a more ____ to leadership than a more authoritarian approach. Pg 376

A

Democratic approach

271
Q

The five stages of development are: pg 376

A

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

272
Q

____ as relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop and the members begin to see themselves as a part of the group. Pg 376

A

Forming

273
Q

___ conflicts may result as members jockey from informal leadership or try to exert their own influence over the group. Company officers can reduce the time spent in the ____ phase by actively listening to members and explaining the decisions. Pg 377

A

Storming

274
Q

___ the group establishes its own set of norms and values. Pg 377

A

Norming

275
Q

___ the supervisor maintains team spirit as a group accomplishes it’s objectives. Pg 377

A

Performing

276
Q

___ the final stage is the termination of the group task. It includes acknowledging the group’s accomplishments and the participation of the individual members. It is also an opportunity to debrief and determine if any process changes should be made. Pg 377

A

Adjourning

277
Q

____ is one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Pg 377

A

Behavior management

278
Q

Behavior management begins with ____? Pg 377

A

Prevention of disruptive behavior

279
Q

____ guidance starts with a counseling session between the company officer and a new member of the unit. Pg 377

A

Counseling

280
Q

____ the company officer, or designated subordinate guides the individual through any new activities, reinforces correct behaviors, and redirects incorrect behaviors. Pg 377

A

Coaching

281
Q

____ providing peer assistance may begin with assigning a more experience member to work with the new member. Pg 378

A

Providing peer assistance

282
Q

___ a supervisor or other superior acts as an advisor or guide (mentor) to the member. Pg 378

A

Mentoring

283
Q

____ is a variety of procedures designed to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior. Pg 378

A

Counseling

284
Q

Company officers must not act as a therapist if a subordinate appears to have a psychological/emotional problem. In these cases, the company officer should seek guidance from superior officer and/or the ___. Pg 379

A

Organizations employee assistance program (EAP)

285
Q

If the Department has a labor/management agreement, it may stipulate that the subordinate has the right to have a ____. Pg 380

A

Union representative present during counseling

286
Q

When disciplinary actions becomes necessary,____ will be critical in supporting formal action. Pg 380

A

documentations of the situation

287
Q

CO should remember that the objective of disciplinary action is to___? Pg 380

A

Change inappropriate behavior

288
Q

Coaching is a ____, and it is the process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain improve your performance. Pg 380.

A

Process of directing an individual skills performance. Coaching

289
Q

Coaching can take place in a___. Pg 380

A

Group setting or individually

290
Q

Company officers should strike a balance between ___. Pg 380

A

correcting what is performed wrong and praising what is performed right

291
Q

A process that involves having unit personnel assistant each other in learning teamwork are perfecting new skills. Pg 380

A

Peer assistance

292
Q

The peer assistance approach can be used as a basis for a ____ that pairs an experienced member with a new employee during the probationary. Period. Pg 381

A

Buddy system

293
Q

____ places a subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional, who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator, either formally or informally. Pg 381

A

Mentoring

294
Q

A mentor is usually someone, ____ who guides subordinates actions in real experience on the job. Pg 381

A

Other than the instructor

295
Q

____ must be chosen carefully and selected for the experience, interest, patience, and communication abilities. Pg 381

A

Mentors

296
Q

Company officers should periodically evaluate the person who work for them, commonly on an ___? Pg 381

A

Annual basis

297
Q

Performance feedback may be provided on a ____ to allow an individual to alter our improve performance before an annual evaluation. Pg 382

A

Quarterly or semi annual basis

298
Q

____ can result in loss of motivation, personal resentment, or a tarnishing of an individuals, professional, or a personal reputation. Pg 382

A

Mishandled evaluations

299
Q

____ can be used to describe the employees duties and responsibilities. Pg 383

A

Preestablished job descriptions

300
Q

The company officer and employee should both sign the final evaluation. These signatures indicate that the employee has received the evaluation. It does not mean ___, but indicates the comments that were reviewed with the employee. Pg 383

A

Employee agrees with the content of the evaluation

301
Q

____ must adhere to the guidelines that the a HJ, the state/province, and the federal government provide. Pg 386

A

Personal evaluations

302
Q

The individual cannot be judged on task that____? Pg 386

A

Are not assigned or the person is not trained to perform

303
Q

Evaluations must include ___ based on the quality or quantity of work or on specific performance that are ___. Pg 386

A

Definite identifiable criteria, supported by a documented record

304
Q

Evaluation’s must be objective and not ____. Pg 386

A

based on subjective observations

305
Q

Evaluation supposed be supported by ___? Pg 386

A

Documentation

306
Q

Employees file ____ when they perceive they have been unfairly treated. Pg 386

A

Grievances

307
Q

The grievance procedure it needs to be ____? Pg 386

A

Effective, consistent, and provide an incredible resolution

308
Q

All model grievance procedures contain the same general elements, such as: pg 386

A

Filing, Testimony, witnesses, representation, review steps.

309
Q

Disciplinary actions consist of corrective measures that are used to get employees to ____. Pg 386

A

meet standards and adhere to policies

310
Q

To maintain order through Training and/or the threat of imposition of sanctions; setting and enforcing the limits or boundaries for expected performance.

A

Discipline

311
Q

What are the two basic types of discipline? Pg 387

A

Positive and negative

312
Q

____ results when reasonable rules of conduct are established and are fairly inconsistently applied. Pg 387

A

Positive (constructive) discipline

313
Q

____ involves corrective action when an employee disobeys established rules or performance requirements. Pg 387

A

Negative discipline

314
Q

Company officers must recognize that employees are entitled to the following information and considerations: ___ pg 387

A

Written notice of proposed action, the reasons for the proposed action, copy of the chargers and the material upon which the action is based, the right to respond (either orally or in writing) to the authority initially imposing discipline

315
Q

Progressive discipline usually starts with ___? Pg 387

A

Training and/or education

316
Q

Progressive discipline usually involves the following three levels: ___ pg 387

A

Preventative action (oral reprimand), corrective action (written reprimand), punitive action

317
Q

Preventive action should start with an ___ so that the employee understands which rule was violated in the organizational necessity for the rule. Pg 387

A

individual counseling interview,

318
Q

The second step is applied, when employee repeats a violation, for which preventative action was taken or commits a different violation. also, if employee commits a serious violation as a first offense. Corrective action is always done in writing. Pg 388

A

Corrective action (written reprimand)

319
Q

This step is used when employee continues to exhibit inappropriate behavior despite earlier corrective efforts or commit a very serious violation of organizational rules as a first offense. Pg 388

A

Punitive action

320
Q

Most company officers were only be responsible for the ___, preventative action. Pg 388

A

First step

321
Q

A program in which an individual can learn a particular skill set by following an active practitioner in the field. Pg 389

A

Job shadowing

322
Q

____ programs may be used to help unit personnel experience different positions within an organization. Pg 389

A

Job shadowing

323
Q

___ usually occurs within the framework of personnel counseling. Pg 388

A

Career planning

324
Q

___ must provide guidance to their members in order for the organization to survive. Pg 390

A

Volunteer organizations

325
Q

A career or professional development planner is like a roadmap. It provides people with a visual image that includes their ___. Pg 390

A

Current situation, intermediate objectives, and final goal

326
Q

The answers to a self assessments questions will guide the individual and the company officer in making a list of intermediate objects to reach the final goal. Pg 390

A

Current situation

327
Q

The ____ are the steps needed to attain the final goal. Pg 390

A

Intermediate objectives

328
Q

The list of objectives must lead to the ___ and provide all the necessary knowledge, Training, and skills to attain it. Pg 390

A

Final goal

329
Q

____ objectives, can cause the individual to become distracted or frustrated. Reaching the final goal depends on accomplishing each objective in a reasonable time period. Pg 390

A

Broad or ambiguous

330
Q

What are the levels of capability? Pg 391

A

Competency, proficiency, mastery

331
Q

____ states that the fire officer II must have the ability to identify a problem, determine the appropriate solution, and develop a policy of procedure to rectify the problem. Pg 398

A

NFPA 1021

332
Q

An organizations policies and procedures must be ____ that are continually evaluated for ____. Pg 398

A

Dynamic documents, effectiveness

333
Q

Company officers submit budget request to their supervisor, who then submits an ___. Pg 399

A

official budgetary form to the administration.

334
Q

Budget intended it to fund the day-to-day operations of the departments or agency. Usually includes the cost of salaries and benefits, utility bills, Fuel, and preventative maintenance. Pg 400

A

Operating budget

335
Q

Budget intended to fund large, one time expenditures, such as those for Fire Stations, Fire, apparatus, or major pieces of equipment. Pg 400

A

Capital budget

336
Q

A ____ is usually added to the request that represents the ___. Pg 400

A

Percentage, The rate of inflation based on the federal government cost of living estimate.

337
Q

Purchasing may be the responsibility of a ____. Pg 400

A

supply, apparatus, or logistics chief; a county or city clerk; or a member of the jurisdictions central purchasing department

338
Q

____ should have been completed during the budget process. Pg 401

A

Determining purchase needs

339
Q

Before purchasing from unfamiliar vendors, ___. Pg 402

A

Company officers should conduct basic research

340
Q

The ___ should be delayed until the cause of the fire has been determined and any evidence protected. Pg 407

A

overhaul process

341
Q

A Fire investigation normally ends if it is determined that an ____. Pg 407

A

accident or nature caused the incident, or if there was no loss of life or high content loss.

342
Q

The company officer must request a certified fire investigator to evaluate the scene and conduct a Fire investigation if ____. Pg 407

A

A loss of life or high contents loss has occurred, or if there is an indication that the incident was intentionally or malicious.

343
Q

____ is an individual who has demonstrated the skills and the knowledge necessary to conduct, coordinate, and complete an investigation. Pg 407

A

A fire investigator

344
Q

According to ___ , this level of investigation is focused on determining if arson has occurred, so that law-enforcement action can be taken. Pg 408

A

NFPA 1021

345
Q

The ___ is that area where the ignition source and material first ignited actually came together. Pg 408

A

Area of origin

346
Q

If the area of origin is not readily apparent, company officers should use a methodology that typically involves working from the ___ to the ___. Pg 408

A

Lease damaged area, must damaged area

347
Q

___ are critical to the overall success of investigative process. Pg 408

A

Identifying witnesses, securing the scene, and noting initial scene observations

348
Q

The company officer must evaluate ___ prior to initiating the investigation. Pg 409

A

scene safety (structural conditions, air, monitoring, and presence of other hazards)

349
Q

What are the four basic steps and determine the area origin? Pg 409

A
  1. Examine the exterior of the structure or vehicle in the surrounding area 2. Examine the interior of the structure or vehicle 3. Interview witnesses 4. Analyze the information gathered using the scientific method
350
Q

The examination of a structure fire should ___ with an examination of ___ in order to determine its ___. Pg 409

A

Start, the entire incident scene, size and scope

351
Q

Interior examination should begin, ___. Pg 410

A

working from the area of this damage to the areas of greatest damage

352
Q

Patton found during the interior examination represents the ___. Pg 410

A

History of the fire from ignition to extinguishment

353
Q

The goal of analyzing fire patterns is ___. Pg 410

A

To determine fire spread from the area of origin

354
Q

___ describes the fire patterns as the “visible are miserable, physical effects that remain after a fire” of 410

A

NFPA 921, guide for fire and explosion investigations

355
Q

Fire patterns are formed on interior surfaces (walls, floors, ceilings, and contents) of a structure as a result of ___. Pg 410

A

Direct flame contact or exposure to heat

356
Q

Fire patterns evolve during ___. Pg 411

A

A Fire’s progression

357
Q

On non-combustible surfaces, such as brick, plaster, or metals, the patterns, make a surface ___. Pg 411

A

discoloration, spalling, melting, or distortion.

358
Q

The plume of hot gases rising above an individual fire. Pg 411

A

Plume generated

359
Q

Hot gas layer during a fire before flashover, extinguish before the fire has reached flashover. Pg 411

A

Hot gas layer

360
Q

Created by ventilation introduced to a fire. Pg 411

A

Ventilation generated

361
Q

The way the fire was extinguished during fire suppression efforts. Pg 411

A

Suppression generated

362
Q

Almost all vertical and horizontal services in the compartment will show signs of damage. Pg 411

A

Full room involvement

363
Q

Fire pattern found on non-combustible surfaces, direct contact with our intense, radiant heat on the surface. The direct flame contact burns away any accumulated sit or smoke deposits on the surface, leaving demarcation lines. Pg 411

A

Clean burns

364
Q

Wood studs or trim are exposed to flame, sharp edges of the components are often burned away on the side of the component that faces the heat source. Pg 412

A

Pointers or arrows

365
Q

Pattern with no common shape, the fire followed the path of available fuels. Pg 412

A

Irregular patterns on floors

366
Q

Fire burning downward through the floor surface above the joist. Pg 412

A

Saddle burns

367
Q

Undamaged surface within an otherwise fired damaged area, large objects, such as furniture were position before the fire. Pg 412

A

Protected areas

368
Q

The area of greatest damage may be at or near area of origin. ____. The area of origin is a hypothesis that needs to be tested. Pg 412

A

however, company officers should not assume that the most damaged area indicates the area of origin.

369
Q

Process used to record the history of a piece of evidence. Pg 413

A

Chain of custody

370
Q

The vehicle fire scene can be divided into three areas for examination: ____. Pg 413

A

The scene, the exterior, the interior

371
Q

When, examining the interior of the vehicle areas of the examination can be further divided, into separate compartments; ___? Pg 413

A

Engine compartment, cargo compartment, passenger compartment

372
Q

An initial energy source that can produce enough heat and energy, over a long enough period of time to raise the temperature of a fuel to its ignition temperature. Pg 414

A

Competent ignition source

373
Q

Determining the ____ will assist in understanding the fire patterns. Pg 415

A

Rest angle (such as sideways in a ditch are parked on a hill)

374
Q

Compartments can provide many competent ignition sources, such as ___. Pg 415

A

The battery, electrical harness, ignition system

375
Q

____ show movements on the vehicles and body panels such as____ these fire patterns may appear as ____, extending from a particular compartment as the fire progresses across the vehicle body panels. Pg 416

A

Radial fire patterns. the hood, fenders, doors, roof, and trunk. Ripples.

376
Q

Photographs should be taken of____ on the exterior of the vehicle. Pg 416

A

Panel and wheel

377
Q

An engine compartment fire may spread into the passenger compartment through pre-existing holes in the ____. Pg 416

A

Bulkhead

378
Q

____ indicates directional fire spread from the engine to the passenger compartment. Pg 416

A

Damage to the lower portion of the windshield

379
Q

____ may indicate that the fire spread from the passenger compartment into the engine compartment. Pg 416

A

Damage to the top section of the windshield

380
Q

As the fire plume develops and impacts the combustible head liner, a ____ is formed that will impact the top portion of the windshield. Pg 416

A

a ceiling jet

381
Q

The temperature of ___ may increase substantially for the first few minutes after vehicle has been shut off. Pg 417

A

exhaust system

382
Q

From its point of origin, a wildland fire burns outward in all directions. ____, a fire would burn equally in all directions, and the point of origin that would be in the center of the circular burn pattern. Pg 417

A

On flat ground with a consistent fuel bed and no wind

383
Q

The direction - north, south, east, or west, - in which the slope faces. Pg 417

A

Aspect

384
Q

In reality, ____ affect the fire spread rate and direction of travel. Pg 417

A

Wind, typography, aspect, and fuel variations

385
Q

More unburned materials are left in the____, and the effects of flame on the fuels are considerably less there than at the head. Pg 417

A

Area of origin

386
Q

_____ is a product of more complete combustion, and it appears on the exposed sides of the remaining debris. Pg 418

A

White ash

387
Q

Who, what, when, where, why, and how. These are the ____ that should be asked of every witness. Pg 418

A

Six basic questions.

388
Q

If the subject being interviewed, or about to be interviewed, is suspected of a fire related crime, the company officer should consider having an agency authorized ____. Pg 418

A

fire investigator are a police officer conduct the Miranda rights

389
Q

If the company officer cannot determine the specific cause or if the fire appears to be the result of malicious or negligent act, ____

A

An agency authorized fire investigator should be called

390
Q

Once the origin is identified,____ Pg 419

A

the investigator should look for heat sources that might be a potential source of ignition.

391
Q

A competent ignition source must have the three following qualities: ___? Pg 419

A

Sufficient temperature to ignite the first material, sufficient heat energy transfer to result in the ignition of the first material, sufficient time to transfer the required heat to the first material.

392
Q

Mechanism or initial energy source employed to initiate combustion. Pg 419

A

Ignition source

393
Q

Fuel that is first set on fire by the heat of ignition. Pg 419

A

Material first ignited

394
Q

What are the four acceptable classifications of fire cause? Pg 420

A

Accidental, natural, incendiary, undetermined.

395
Q

This classification may be used as an interim classification as the fire investigation is proceeding, or it may be the final outcome if additional information cannot be obtained that identifies the specific cause. Pg 420

A

Undetermined

396
Q

Fires set because of personal or professional vendettas fall into the largest category of arson fires in account for ___ of the total arson problems. Pg 421

A

50%

397
Q

_____ are usually set by two or more individuals (often juveniles).

A

Vandalism fires

398
Q

Monetary gain is the primary motivator for this type of incendiary fire, and total destruction of property is the ultimate goal. Pg 421

A

Profit (fraud)

399
Q

Firesetters motivated by fraud attempt to cause the ____. Pg 421

A

most possible damage in the least possible amount of time

400
Q

Arson used as a tool to destroy evidence of another crime is most generally associated with burglary, homicide and embezzlement. Pg 421

A

Crime concealment

401
Q

Homicide to concealment fires, however, often involve the use of ___ in an attempt to destroy the body and the evidence of the manner and cause of death. Pg 421

A

ignitable liquids

402
Q

Embezzlement fires are set to erase or destroy a ____. Pg 422

A

Paper trail

403
Q

What are the five pattern developments of excitement (vanity)? Pg 422

A

Dates and the day of the week, what time of day, type of structure, how the fire set, where the fire is set

404
Q

Fires started for the sheer excitement of creating a fire scene provide some people with a feeling of ____? Pg 422

A

Empowerment over society

405
Q

Arsonist who seek recognition or wish to be viewed as heroes may set and ____ fires. Often are ____? Pg 422

A

Discover. security guards, volunteer firefighters, and reserve law enforcement officers

406
Q

These individuals are always ___ at the fire scene, and often attempt to ___? Pg 422

A

Present, assist in firefighting activities

407
Q

___ it’s not a motive because it is a mental state and a recognized psychological disorder. True ____ are rare in number and set fires as a release of tension or to produce a feeling of euphoria. Pg 422

A

Pyromania, pyromaniacs

408
Q

Over a short period of time, this type of individual will regularly set multiple small fires within several blocks of each other. Pg 422

A

Pyromaniacs

409
Q

An individual or group of protesters may target a government, an ethnic or religious group, or a facility that operates in opposition to their cause. Pg 423

A

Extremism (terrorism)

410
Q

Fires and explosions are usually set to the exterior of the building or propelled (such as ___) into the interior through broken windows or doorways. Pg 423

A

Molotov cocktails

411
Q

Most small children under the age of ____ experiment with fire out of curiosity. Pg 423

A

7 years

412
Q

Between the ages of ___, the majority of fires the children set is the result of psychosocial conflicts, such as revenge, anger, or need for attention. Pg 423

A

8-13 years

413
Q

The crisis phase age is between ____ and usually involves the arrest detention of fire setter. Have a long history of playing with fire. Pg 423

A

15-18 years

414
Q

The majority of juvenile fire setters are ____, and many have poor ____. Pg 423

A

Male. Social skills

415
Q

Each company officer II should be trained, at a minimum, to ___ although ___ is recommended. Pg 430

A

ICS level 200, ICS level 300

416
Q

Each incident should only have ____ incident commander, including when a ____. Pg 430

A

One. Unified command is appropriate.

417
Q

____ may be a work sheet or dry erase board and can be used to manage the arriving units. Pg 431

A

Tracking system visual aids

418
Q

The ____ is responsible for the personnel accountability system

A

IC

419
Q

Common types of personnel, accountability systems used at the emergency incident include: ___. Pg 432

A

Tag systems, SCBA tag systems, barcode readers

420
Q

____, standard on the rehabilitation process for members during emergency operation and training exercises, identifies rehabilitation procedures for the demobilizing personnel. Pg 432

A

NFPA 1584

421
Q

Before leaving the scene, the ____ should inspect these units to ensure that they are ready to return to service. Pg 432

A

The compant officer

422
Q

Standard on fire department infection control program. Pg 432

A

NFPA 1581

423
Q

The first IC provides the relieving Officer with a situation status report (incident briefing), ____ pg 432

A

Which is the current incident status

424
Q

That has documented the action taken up to transfer of command. Pg 432

A

ICS Form 201

425
Q

The___ can then be assigned to an operating unit or retained as an aid or a member of the command or general staff. Pg 433

A

The former IC

426
Q

The ____ involves the overall command of the incident. Pg 433

A

strategic level

427
Q

The IC is responsible for the strategic level of the ____? Pg 433

A

Command structure

428
Q

____ assignment comes with the authority to make decisions and assignments within the boundaries of the overall plan and safety conditions. Pg 433

A

Tactical level

429
Q

The cumulative achievements of____ should accomplish the strategy as outlined in the ____. Pg 433

A

tactical objectives. Incident Action plan.

430
Q

____ refers to those activities assigned to specific resources that result in the accomplishment of tactical level requirements. Pg 434

A

Task level

431
Q

The basic structure for an initial response incident involving a small number of units requires only ____ of the command structure. The IC directly handles both ____. Pg 434

A

two levels. Strategic and tactical levels.

432
Q

The terms divisions and groups are ____. Pg 434

A

tactical level management components

433
Q

____ are the organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area. Pg 434

A

Divisions

434
Q

The ____ and ____ is organizationally between single resources, task, forces, or strike teams and the branch. Pg 434

A

Division level and the group level

435
Q

During radio communications, the phonetic destinations of ____ should be used for clarity. Pg 434

A

Alpha, bravo, Charlie, and delta

436
Q

And wildland ICS,___ may be used for division/group supervisors. Pg 434

A

DIV

437
Q

___ are an organizational level responsible for a ____. Pg 434

A

Groups, specific functional assignment.

438
Q

Creating tactical level DGs to manage incident related functions or direct to operations in the specific geographic areas or functions should ____. Pg 435

A

Reduce the span of control

439
Q

Effective span of control ranges from ___ subordinates per supervisor, with____ consider the optimum number. Pg 435

A

3-7. 5

440
Q

In fast moving, complex operations, a span of control of no more than ___ DGs is recommended

A

5

441
Q

When the span of control is exceeded, the IC should establish ___ or an ___. Pg 435

A

Branches. Operations section

442
Q

___ determine strategy and assigns tactical objectives and resources to each DG. ___ is responsible for the tactical development of assigned resources to complete the assigned tactical objectives. Pg 435

A

The IC. Each DG supervisor.

443
Q

When practical, communications with a DG unit should be conducted ___ between ___. Pg 436

A

Face to face. Company officers and the DG supervisor

444
Q

Each DG supervisor must maintain communication with assigned units to ____. Pg 436

A

Control both their location and function

445
Q

____ operational plans (also called incident action plans) are developed during an actual incident after the first operational period. Pg 436

A

NFPA 1021

446
Q

Clearly stated and measurable objectives to be achieved in the specific time interval. Pg 436

A

Incident objectives (ICS 202)

447
Q

Description of the ICS table of organization, including the units and agencies involved. Pg 436

A

Organization assignment list (ICS 203)

448
Q

Specific unit tactical assignments divided by branch, division, and group. Pg 436

A

Assignments list (ICS 204)

449
Q

List the basic radio channel assignments for use during the incident. Pg 436

A

Incident radio communications plan (ICS 205)

450
Q

Provide information on the location and staffing of the incident medical aid station, the types of ambulance resources available, the location of on site ambulances, and the contact information for hospitals that are available to the IC. pg 436

A

Medical plan (ICS 206)

451
Q

Once a size up is complete, the IC determines the____. The IC must also include ___. Pg 437

A

Incident priorities, select an overall strategy, and establishes tactics for meeting that strategy. Safety and any special environmental considerations.

452
Q

____ determines the strengths and weaknesses of the organization’s response to an emergency. Pg 438

A

The post incident analysis (PIA), evaluation (PIE), or review (PIR)

453
Q

The company officer II should realize that the ___ is the foundation for strengthening the emergency response activities of the organization. Pg 438

A

PIA

454
Q

The PIA should be completed for major incidents or those that involve: ___? Pg 438

A

Line of duty injuries and deaths, unusual situations, situations that the IC or staff officers deem necessary

455
Q

The PIA objectives are the following: ____ pg 438

A

Objectively and constructively review operations, identify strength, identify weaknesses.

456
Q

The analysis should focus on ____. Pg 438

A

participant activities, incident elements, and the decisions made it with the intention of controlling the incident

457
Q

Postincident critique can be ____ or ____. This critique usually occurs___ and ____. Pg 441

A

Informal or formal. Immediately after termination of the incident and prior to leaving the incident scene.

458
Q

In _____, the critique can take place at the station after returning from the incident. Pg 441

A

Inclement weather

459
Q

Each agency representative should present a brief report of its participation in the ____? Pg 441

A

Incident order of arrival

460
Q

Each fire and emergency services organization should operate within the parameters of a ____. The ____ is responsible for the development of an organization risk management plan. Pg 448

A

Risk management plan. Organization’s chief executive officer

461
Q

_____ standard on fire department, occupational safety, and health program. Suggests adopting an _____. At a minimum, the plan should include ___? Pg 449

A

NFPA 1500. Official written, risk management plan. Identification, prioritization, evaluation, control techniques, monitoring.

462
Q

To identify the risk,____. The officer should include considerations of the worst possible conditions, or potential events. Pg 450

A

The company officer compiles a list of all organizational emergency and non-emergency operations and duties.

463
Q

OSHA refers to frequency as ____, and addresses the likelihood of occurrence. Pg 450

A

incident rate

464
Q

Incidents of high frequency and high severity should be given the ___ in the risk analysis, while those of low frequency and low severity should received the ___? Pg 451

A

Highest priority. Lowest priority

465
Q

Severity addresses the degree of seriousness of the incident, and can be measured in a variety of ways such as___, ___, ____. Pg 451

A

Lost time away from work, cost of medical treatment, number of personnel injured

466
Q

____ is the most common method used for risk management. Pg 452

A

Control measures (risk reduction)

467
Q

Effective control measures, include the following: ___, ___, ___. Pg 452

A

Safety, health, and wellness programs. Ongoing training and education programs. Administrative controls, such as well defined SOP/SOG)

468
Q

Implementing the risk management plan requires ___, ___, ___. Pg 452

A

Communication, training, and application

469
Q

A risk management plan should be reviewed as a whole at least ____? Pg 452

A

Once annually

470
Q

When applying evaluation techniques of a risk management plan, the ___ or ___ compares the plans desired results to the actual results. Pg 452

A

Company officer or HSO (health and safety officer)

471
Q

The ___ should focus only on those risk that require revision and not the entire plan. Pg 453

A

revision process

472
Q

When a negative trend becomes apparent, __. Pg 453

A

The plan must be revised

473
Q

Accidents may result from: ___, ___, ___? Pg 454

A

Adverse conditions in the environment, equipment/material malfunction, human error

474
Q

To reduce the potential for accidents to occur or to reduce the severity of accidents, each organizations must ____. The policy should define accidents established authority for investigating each type of accident, and establish a procedure for accident investigation. Pg 454

A

Develop and implement an accident investigation policy and procedure

475
Q

According to NFPA 1500, investigations should not be ___ but should also include___. Pg 454

A

Limited to accidents. Job related injuries, illnesses, fatalities, and health exposures

476
Q

Accident investigations should be ___? Pg 454

A

Objective, impartial, and directed toward fact-finding, not fault finding.

477
Q

Workers who fail to control the factors leading to an accident because of ___, ___, ____ reasons will be involved in accidents more often than other workers. Pg 455

A

Mental, psychological, or physical

478
Q

An organization can mitigate negative human factors through ___, ___, ___. Pg 455

A

Motivation, Training, or technical revision

479
Q

What are the three broad categories that human factors often contribute to accidents? Pg 455

A

Improper attitude, lack of knowledge or skill, physically unsuited

480
Q

The first priority, when dealing with any injury, job related illness, or health exposure is to ____. The ___ of the individual takes precedence over investigating the cause. Pg 456

A

Provide medical assistance to the effected individual. The health and safety.

481
Q

While an injury is often obvious when it occurs, job related illnesses or the symptoms of health related exposures may not become evident for ___. Pg 456

A

Hours, days, weeks, or longer

482
Q

Analysis of ____ provides the organization with an opportunity to prevent further accidents, injuries, illnesses, or exposures. Pg 457

A

safety and health reports

483
Q

_____ usually investigate fatalities involving fire and emergency responders. Pg 457

A

The organization’s Chief officer, the jurisdictions, medical examiner, and OSHA, and NIOSH investigators

484
Q

All workplace accidents are the results of ___, ___, ___. Pg 458

A

Unsafe acts, unsafe conditions, or both

485
Q

Unsafe acts may result from the following: ___, ___, ___. Pg 458

A

Inadequate, training and supervision, improper attitudes, well intentioned attempts to save time by cutting corners, careless attitudes that reflect the low morale

486
Q

____ are common at most emergency incident scenes in during emergency responses. _____ also exist during training exercises and daily non-emergency activities. Pg 458

A

Unsafe conditions

487
Q

Making changes in an emergency responder’s personal behavior or changing the organization’s culture will require ____. Pg 458

A

conscious effort on the part of the administration and membership of the organization

488
Q

Statistics verify that ____ and ____ are the leading cause of fire and emergency responders fatalities. Pg 458

A

Cardiac arrest (heart attacks) and strokes

489
Q

_____, ___, ___, ___, ____ will help to reduce this needless loss of life. Pg 459

A

An effective wellness program, including proper nutrition, physical fitness, periodic medical evaluation, ceasing tobacco use, and stress relief and control

Company Officer (2 decks)

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