Company Officer (2 of 2) Flashcards
1
Q
Photovoltaic system components may remain ____ after regular power service has been shut off. Pg 268
A
energized
2
Q
horizontal member between trusses that support the roof. Pg 268
A
Purlin
3
Q
____ is the first step to completing a successful recent survey. Pg 269
A
Building the relationship between the company officer and the business owner/occupant
4
Q
Architectural drawings showing the overall project layout of building areas, driveways, fences, fire hydrant, and landscape features for a given plot of land; view is from directly above. Pg 269
A
Plot plan
5
Q
In regards to pre-incident surveys: the priorities are normally based on____. Pg 271
A
life safety risk (including the risk to Firefighters), property values at risk, and potential frequency and severity of fires or other emergencies occurring.
6
Q
Pre-incident surveys should be conducted using a ____ approach, divided between the exterior and interior of the structure. Pg 272
A
systematic and logical
7
Q
I feel that sketches should be made of the structure or facilities, showing its ____. Pg 272
A
size, location, and components.
8
Q
____ is a rough drawing of a building that is prepared during the facility survey. Pg 273
A
A field sketch
9
Q
A field sketch drawing should show general information such as ____. Pg 273
A
dimensions, fire hydrants, streets, water tanks, and distances to nearby exposures.
10
Q
The exterior facility survey focuses on obtaining information to create a plot plan or compare observations to an ____. Pg 274
A
Existing plot plan
11
Q
Company personnel me move to either the building top floor (or roof if it is accessible) or lowest floor (basement, subbasement, or ground floor) to begin the ____. Most people prefer to start on top floor or roof. Pg 275
A
interior survey
12
Q
____ and similar items should not be included on floorplans because their locations are not fixed. Pg 275;
A
Furniture
13
Q
Life safety information is collected into ___ basic topic areas:____ and ____. Pg 275
A
protection and evacuation of occupants and protection of firefighters.
14
Q
What are all the hazmat placard ratings? Pg 276
A
Flammability 4- flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials 3- ignites at ambient temp 2- ignites when moderately heated 1- must be preheated 0- will not burn
Health 4- severe hazards 3- serious hazards 2- moderate hazards 1- slight hazards 0- minimal hazards
Instability 4- capable of detonation or explosive decompostion at ambient conditions 3- Capable of detonation or explosive decompostion with strong initiating source 2- violent chemical change possible at elevated temps and pressure 1- normally stable, but becomes unatable if heated 0- normally stable
15
Q
The term a ___ represents the bulk of fuel available to burn and generally refers to a building contents. Pg 277
A
fuel load
16
Q
The major fuel sources are ___. Pg 277
A
furnishings and other building contents
17
Q
Some ____ can be used during emergency operations to remove contaminated atmospheres from a structure if the system itself and natural ventilations is not helping. Pg 277
A
HVAC systems
18
Q
Some structures are equipped with built in ventilation devices that are designed to ____. Pg 277
A
limit the spread of Fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres.
19
Q
Roof and wall vents and curtain boards are most common in ____. Pg 277
A
large buildings having wide, unbroken expenses of floor space
20
Q
Noncombustible barriers or dividers hung from the ceiling in large open areas that are designed to minimize the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke and impede the flow of heat. Pg 277
A
Draft curtains (curtain boards)
21
Q
Release heat and smoke to the outside through vents that work automatically and are ____ to limit the spread of Fire within a building. Pg 278
A
Automatic roof and wall vents, placed at the highest point of a roof or wall
22
Q
Release heat and smoke from atriums (large, vertical openings in the center of structures) to the outside. Equipped with automatic vents. Pg 278
A
Atrium vents
23
Q
Release heat in smoke to the outside from square or rectangle or structures that penetrate a buildings roof.
A
Monitors
24
Q
Monitors with solid walls should have ___ opposite sides, hinged at the bottom and held closed at the top with a fusible link that allows gravity to open them in case of a fire.
A
At least two
25
If the monitor made of glass does not break by the fire, firefighters ____. Pg 278
Will have to remove it
26
____ with thermoplastic panels or ordinary window glass act as automatic vents when a fire's heat melts the plastic or breaks the glass. Skylights without thermoplastic panels or automatic venting will have to be removed or glass planes will have to be broken. Pg 278
Skylights
27
Fire resistive half walls (also known as ____) extend down from the underside of a roof to limit the horizontal spread of heat and smoke, which confines them to a relatively small area directly over their sources. Pg 278
Curtain boards also known as draft curtains
28
____ also concentrate heat and smoke directly under automatic roof vents (also automatic sprinklers) to accelerate the vents activation. Pg 279
Curtain boards
29
A recent advance in HVAC system, design, introduce thermostatically, controlled air into the space through openings in the floor. Pg 279
Underfloor air distribution (UFAD) systems
30
What are the two life safety risks for UFADs? Pg 279
1. If smoke develops under a floor, it will be distributed into the space at floor level. 2. Water may enter the underfloor area and result in a short circuit that could cause a fire.
31
____ are not currently required in UFAD distribution systems. Pg 270
Smoke detectors
32
Automatic sprinklers, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, Halon substitute flooding systems, which may reduce the need for interior attack hose lines, but may increase the need for system support. Pg 280
Fixed fire extinguishing systems
33
____ may allow firefighters to carry hose packs into a building rather than lay long attack hoselines from outside. Pg 290
Standpipe system
34
The activation of these assemblies may potentially restrictive movement throughout a structure, and door activation may compromise attack lines. Pg 280
Smoke, heat, or alarm activated doors
35
____ can provide information regarding the sizes and locations of water mains as well as pressures that can be anticipated serving the occupancy based on the municipality's water atlas, a map book or online database of all waterlines in the jurisdiction. Pg 281
The public works department
36
Pre-incident planning may involve a collective effort of ____ of the organization. Pg 281
all levels
37
What are the two general school of thought about what should be included in a printer that plan? Pg 282
1. Assume that all interior structure fires behave in generally the same way and this behavior is predictable unless there's something in the fire environment to cause it to behave differently. 2. Much more involved and structured because the volume of information gathered on each structure and occupancy surveyed is extensive. Pg 282
38
What are the three general types of drawings used to show building information? Pg 282
1. Plot plans (show relation to other buildings) 2. Floor plans 3. Elevations (show side views of structures)
39
Written report must be ____. Pg 283
Clear and concise
40
The three major tasks with any preincident plan involve ____? Pg 284
Gathering the data, entering the data into databases, and keeping the data current
41
The emergency services delivered to a community include but are not limited to ____? Pg 291
Fire suppression, rescue, hazardous materials response, and emergency medical care
42
What are the new series of approaches to improve firefighters survivability? Pg 292
Recognizing rapid fire development occupant survivability profiling, crew resource management, and new recommended rules of engagement
43
The environment within a structural fire can exceed ___ within ____ with the potential for flashover to occur within ___. The upper human survivability limit is ____ according to the ____. Pg 292
500°F, 3-4 mins, 5 mins, 212°F, NFPA
44
Approximately 1110°F (599°C) is ___? Pg 292
Flashover
45
____ is a type of size up that should be employed to evaluate the potential of an occupant being alive within a structure fire environment. Pg 292
Occupant survivability profiling
46
Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature, and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space. Pg 292
Flashover
47
____ saves firefighters. ____ saves occupants. Pg 292
Survivable space, searchable space
48
____ is a system to optimize the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures, and equipment in order to promote safety and improve operational efficiency. Pg 293
CRM (crew resource management)
49
Using ___ assist personnel and identifying the first indicator of errors occurring; the discrepancy between what __ happening and what ___ happening. Pg 293
CRM, is, should be
50
In ___, the safety, health, and survival section of the international associates a Fire Chiefs (IAFC) released its initial draft of ____. Pg 293
2010, rules of engagement for structural firefighting – increasing firefighter survival.
51
What are the 11 rules of engagement for fire fighter survival? Pg 294
1. Size up your tactical area of operation. 2. Determine the occupants survival profile. 3. Do not risk your life for lives or property that cannot be saved. 4. Extend limited risk to protect savable property. 5. Extend vigilant and measured risk to protect and rescue savable lives. 6. Go in together, stay together, come out together. 7. Maintain a continuous awareness of your air supply, situation, location, and fire conditions 8. Constantly monitor fireground communications for critical radio reports. 9. You are required to report unsafe practices or conditions that can harm you. Stop, evaluate, and decide. 10. You are required to abandon your position and retreat before deteriorating conditions can harm you. 11. Declare a mayday as soon as you think you are in danger.
52
What are the 14 rules of engagement for incident commander? Pg 294
1. Rapidly conduct, or obtain, a 360° size of of the incident. 2. Determine the occupant survival profile. 3. Conduct an initial risk assessment and implement a safe action plan. 4. If you do not have the resources to safely support and protect firefighters – seriously, consider a defensive strategy. 5. Do not Rick Firefighter lives for life. Our property that cannot be saved – seriously consider a defensive strategy. 6. Extend limited risk to protect savable property. 7. Extend vigilant in measured risk to protect and rescue savable lives. 8. Act upon reported, unsafe, practices and conditions that can harm firefighters. Stop, evaluate, and decide. 9. Maintain frequent two-way communications and keep interior crews informed of changing conditions. 10. Obtain frequent progress reports and revise the action plan. 11. Ensure accurate accountability of all Firefighter locations and status. 12. If, after completing the primary search, little or no progress towards fire control has been achieved – seriously consider a defensive strategy. 13. Always have a rapid intervention team in place at all working fires. 14. Always have Firefighter rehab services in place at all working fires.
53
Incident scene management applies to ____ from single resource situations to multijurisdictional in multiagency disasters requiring many resources? Pg 295
all types of emergency responses and all levels of resource commitment
54
As a result of ____, the national incident management system (NIMS) is required to be used. Pg 295
presidential directive 5
55
The first arriving emergency services personnel establish the____. Pg 295
NIMS-ICS, make decisions, and take actions that will influence the rest of the operation
56
Essential to all emergency incident scene management is the management of emergency response resources: ____. Pg 296
apparatus, personnel, equipment, and materials
57
What are the levels included with NIMS-ICS? Pg 296
Independent EMS providers, law-enforcement agencies, and public works
58
Act of directing, ordering, and/or controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or a delegated authority. Pg 296
Command
59
Incident management personnel who report directly to the incident commander. This includes public information, officer, safety officer, and liaison officer. Pg 296
Command staff
60
Written, or unwritten plan, for the position of an incident; contains the strategic goal, task, objective, and support requirements for a given operational. During an incident.
Incident action plan (IAP)
61
Period of time scheduled for execution of a specify, that set of operational goals and objectives as identified in the incident action plan (IAP). And operational. May be 12 hours, 24 hours, or any other arbitrary in my time. A new IAP is created for each operationaL period. Pg 296
Operational period
62
Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizational Lee located between section in division, our group. Identified by Roman numeral or functional area (command, operations) Pg 298
Branch
63
Organizational level having responsibility for operations with a defined geographic area. Pg 297
Division
64
Organizational level, equal to division, having responsibility for a specific function assignment. (without regard for a specific geographic area.) pg 297
Group
65
Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation units within the planning section. Pg 297
Unit
66
Specified number of personnel assembled for an assignment. Operate under the direct supervision of a crew leader. Pg 297
Crew
67
Individual pieces of apparatus. Pg 297
Single resources
68
Any combination of resources assembled for a specific mission or operational assignment. Once tactical objective has been met, the force is disbanded. Pg 297
Task force
69
Set number of resources of the same kind and type. Remain together and function as a team throughout an incident. Pg 297
Strike team
70
A _____ is necessary when an incident involves or threatens to involve more than one jurisdiction our agency. Pg 297
Unified command structure
71
A ____ may also be appropriate within a single jurisdiction is multiple agencies are affected. ie: a hostage situation, house fire containing a meth lab. Pg 298
Unified command
72
____ requires the fire officer I to be able to develop an initial action plan. Pg 299
NFPA 1021
73
____ use the term plan of operation to describe the same concept. Pg 299
Lloyd Layman
74
____ establishes the overall strategic decisions and assigns a tactical objectives for an incident. (NFPA 1561) Pg 299
Initial action plan (IAP)
75
A ____ will be required for long duration events. Pg 299
formal written IAP
76
____ is the number of direct subordinates that one supervisor can effectively manage. An effective span of control ranges from ____ subordinates per supervisor, depending upon the number of variables, with___ consider the optimum number. Pg 299
Span of control, 3-7, 5
77
The first arriving company officer as the incident commander should implement the ____ soon after arrival on the scene. Pg 300
organizations accountability system
78
What are the size up priorities? Pg 300
1. Life safety 2. Incident stabilization 3. Property conservation
79
A company officer begins to actively size up the emergency when ___. Pg 300
the alarm sound an emergency notification is received
80
Amount of time to request and obtain additional resources. Pg 301
The lead/reflex time.
81
Who wrote fire fighting tactics? Pg 301
Lloyd Layman
82
What are the five principles for analyzing any emergency situation according to Lloyd Layman/ fire fighting tactics? Pg 301
1. Facts 2. Probabilities 3. Own situation 4. Decision 5. Plan of operation
83
Information gathered in the size up process serves as a basis for making decisions about how to manage the incident. Pg 303
Plan of operation
84
Large, complex incidence require a ___, often with numerous annexes. An IAP normally covers a ___. Pg 303
written IAP, single operational period
85
____ means controlling the environment in which responders must work and bystanders or victims may find themselves. Pg 303
Scene Control
86
Scene control begins with the ___? Pg 303
First arriving company officer establishing command
87
Controlling the movement of non-emergency personnel near a high hazard area contributes to ____. Pg 303
Life safety on the scene
88
Establishing ____ is the most common an effective way to control the perimeter of an incident scene. Pg 304
three operating control zones (commonly labeled, hot, warm, and cold)
89
Area where resolving the problem takes place. Only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed. Pg 304
Hot zone
90
Area immediately outside the hot zone for personnel who are directly supporting the work being performed by those in the hot zone. ie: hydraulic tools power plant emergency lighting and fire protection. Ready to enter the hot zone. Normally where the decontamination station is assembled. Also called safe haven. Pg 304
Warm zone
91
Area immediately surrounding the hot and warm zones. ie: ICP, RIC, PIO, rehab, and staging area for personnel and portable equipment. The outer boundary of this area would be the control line for the general public. Pg 304
Cold zone
92
The greater the temperature differences between the objects, the ___ the transfer rate. Pg 307
more rapid
93
Heat is transferred from one object to another by ____. Pg 307
conduction, convection, and radiation.
94
Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted, through solid and fluid media by conduction, convection, and radiation. Pg 307
Heat
95
Physical flow, or transfer of heat energy from one body to another through direct contact or an intervening medium. Pg 307
Conduction
96
Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction. Pg 307
Convection
97
Transmission or transfer of heat energy from one body to another body at a lower temperature through intervening space by electromagnetic waves, such as infrared thermal waves, radio waves, or x-rays. Pg 307
Radiation
98
A room or space within a building or structure that is enclosed on all sides, at the top and bottom. Pg 307
Compartment
99
Thermal are chemical decomposition of fuel (matter) because of heat, generally resulting in the lower the ignition temperature of the material. Pg 308
Pyrolysis
100
The preignition, combustion phase of burning during which heat energy is absorbed by the fuel, in turn giving off flammable, tars, pitches, and gases. Pyrolysis of wood releases combustible gases and leaves a charred surface. Pg 308
Pyrolysis process or sublimation
101
When sufficient oxygen is available, fire development is controlled by the fuels characteristics and configurations. Under these conditions, the fire is said to be ____. Pg 308
fuel controlled
102
As a fire develops within a compartment, it reaches a point where further development is limited by the available oxygen supply and the fire is said to be ____? Pg 308
Ventilation controlled
103
____ of gases (also called ____) is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature. Pg 308
Thermal layering, heat stratification
104
As the volume and temperature of the hot gas layer increases, ____. Pg 308
So does the pressure
105
Higher pressure in this hot layer causes it to ____? Pg 308
Push down and out, increasing the pressure in the compartment.
106
The pressure is ____ at the point where these two layers meet as the hot gases exit through an opening. Pg 309
Neutral
107
The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as the ____. Pg 309
Neutral plane
108
Moment when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat (ignition) source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction. Pg 309
Piloted ignition
109
Minimum temperature to which a (other than a liquid) in the air must be heated in order to start self sustained combustion; no external ignition source is required. Pg 309
Autoignition temperature
110
Various fire events result in rapid fire development. These include ____? Pg 309
1. Flashover 2. Backdraft 3. Smoke explosion.
111
____ occurs when all exposed combustible surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to the ignition temperature and ignite almost simultaneously. Pg 309
Flashover
112
What are the two factors that determine whether a compartment fire will progress to flashover? Pg 310
1. The fuel must generate enough heat energy to develop a flashover condition. 2. Ventilation
113
Most fires that grow beyond the incipient stage become ____? Pg 310
Ventilation controlled
114
____ buildings do not vent as rapidly as older buildings. Pg 310
Modern, well sealed, energy-efficient
115
____ describes a condition in which the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer or across the ceiling. Sign of impeding flashover. Growth stage. Pg 311
Rollover
116
Rollover may occur during the ____? Pg 311
Growth stage
117
A ____ can produce a large volume of flammable smoke other gases due to incomplete combustion. Needs oxygen. Pg 311
ventilation controlled compartment fire
118
Instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of superheated gases that occur when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen depleted confined space. The stalled combustion resumes with explosive force. May occur because of inadequate or improper ventilation procedures. Decay state. Pg 311
Backdraft
119
Backdraft occurs in the ____? Pg 311
Decay stage
120
An increase in low level ventilation (such as opening a door or window) prior to upper level ventilation can result in an explosive rapid combustion of the flammable gases, called ____. Pg 311
Backdraft
121
A Backdraft can occur with the creation of a ____. Pg 311
Horizontal or vertical opening
122
It is often ____ assumed that a Backdraft will always occur immediately after making an opening into the building or involved compartment. Pg 312
Incorrectly
123
In regards to Backdraft, the more confined, the ___ it will be. Pg 312
More violent
124
A ____ may occur before or after the decay stage. Pg 312
Smoke explosion
125
___ occurs when unburned fuel gases come in contact with an ignition source. Needs heat. Pg 312
Smoke explosion
126
Smoke explosions are violent because they involve ____? Pg 312
Premixed fuel and oxygen
127
The key difference between a smoke explosion in Backdraft is that with the Backdraft, the mixture of smoke and air is extremely ____ (generally greater than ____). However, a smoke explosion requires ____. Pg 312,
Fuel rich, 10% total hydrocarbons, fuel and air within its flammable range.
128
The only indication of potential for a smoke explosion is the ____ ? Generally, in an area away from the fire or after fire. Pg 312
Presence of smoke
129
Common, prevailing, and uncontrolled atmospheric weather conditions. Pg 313
Ambient conditions
130
____ type of fuels are the most common types of fuels found in structures. Pg 313
Class A or cellulose
131
_____ are much more easily ignited, and will burn more quickly than the same substance with less surface area. Pg 313
Class A fuel combustible materials with high surface to mass ratios
132
A liquid fuel spill will increase that liquids surface to volume ratio, and will generate more flammable vapors than that same liquid in ____. Pg 313
an open container
133
Black smoke is often present in fires involving materials like ____? Pg 313
Foam, synthetics, and plastics
134
____, such as wood paneling, can be a significant factor influencing fire spread. Pg 314
Combustible interior finishes
135
____ are often the most readily available fuel source and significantly influence fire development in a compartment fire. Pg 314
A Structures contents
136
Fires in a large compartment generally develop more ___ than one in a small compartment. This slower fire development is due to the greater volume of air and the increased distance radiated heat must travel from the fire to contents that must be heated. Pg 314
slowly
137
_____ may mask the extent of fire. Pg 315
High ceilings
138
Pre-existing ventilation is the actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on ____. Pg 315
structural openings, construction type, and building ventilation systems.
139
_____ the available air supply determines the speed and extent of fire development and the direction of fire travel. Pg 315
When a fire becomes a ventilation control
140
Fire will always grow towards ____ as it seeks fresh air. Pg 315
ventilation openings
141
Contains heat within the compartment. Pg 315
Insulation
142
Increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources. Pg 315
Heat reflectivity
143
Slowly absorbs and releases large amounts of heat to maintain temperature pg 315
Retention
144
ambient conditions, such as___ and___, Can slow the natural movement of smoke. Pg 315
High humidity, cold temperatures
145
____ can also cause smoke to remain close to the ground, obscuring visibility during size up. Pg 316
Atmospheric air pressure
146
The total quantity of combustible contents of a building, space, or fire area is referred to as the____? Pg 316
Fuel load. Also called fire load
147
Fuel load includes all __ and structural components of the structure. Pg 316
Furnishings, merchandise, interior finish
148
____ can calculate a fairly accurate estimate of the Fuel load of any structure. Pg 316
Fire safety engineers
149
The purpose of this study was to evaluate the structure performance of wood "I" beams and 2 x 4" wood trusses (lightweight wood construction) under fire conditions in comparison to older, legacy construction techniques using 2 x 10" floor joist and 2 x 6 roof supporters. A total of __ fire test were conducted, with __ test on floor ceiling assemblies and __ on the roof ceiling assemblies. Pg 317
9, 7, 2.
150
Modern trusses are generally spaced __ apart. Which contribute to __ and ___. Pg 317
24", roof failure, firefighters fall through
151
Firefighters should not attack a basement from the ____. Pg 318
Stairway
152
Temperatures at the bottom of basement stairs were often ___ then those encountered at the top of the stairs. Pg 318
Higher
153
Ventilating a basement fire requires ___. Pg 318
Coordinated ventilation
154
This study compared legacy (older) residential construction to more contemporary residential construction. Two houses were constructed inside ___. A total of___ ventilation experiments were conducted. Pg 319
UL's large fire facility, 15. Legacy: 1 story 1200 ft.², 3 bed, 1 bath, 4 other rooms. Contemporary: two-story, 3200 ft.², four bed, 2 1/2 bath, six other rooms,
155
Firefighters need to understand that ___ is a form of ventilation. Pg 219;
forcible entry
156
1. Activities of significant risk shall be limited when there is potential to save endangered lives. 2. Activities routinely employed shall be recognized as inherent risk and actions shall be taken to avoid risks. 3. No risk to members shall be acceptable when no possibility to save lives or property.
The IFSTA principles of risk management
157
__ basic decision making processes should be used in coordinating with one another which are ___. Pg 321
2. Incident priorities LIP, Lloyd Layman's, RECEO – VS
158
Rescue of animals ___ meet the criteria for taking great risk. Pg 321
Does not
159
Fire chief Lloyd Layman created his RECEO – VS decision making model in the ___. Pg 322
mid-20th century
160
What does the acronym RECEO – VS stand for? Pg 322
Rescue. Exposures. Confinement. Extinguishment. Overhaul. Ventilation. Salvage.
161
All personnel must conform to ____ , standard on fire department occupational safety and health program, and occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) requirements for ____ and____ procedures. Pg 322
NFPA 1500, 2 in/2 out, initial rapid intervention crew (IRIC)
162
That you. S. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) established the ____ as part of the ____? Pg 323
2 in/2 out rule, 29 CFR 1910.134
163
In response to the Americans with disability act (ADA), many new buildings and those that have undergone major renovations include what are called ___. Pg 324
areas of rescue assistance.
164
____ is the term Layman used to describe the need to prevent extension of incident effects to uninvolved areas? Pg 324
Confinement
165
Limiting the problem to the area of origin, or property of origin, means taking actions in order to save adjacent structures that are uninvolved are only slightly involved. Pg 324
Exposures
166
to migrating a Fire. Pg 325
Extinguishment
167
To make an incident scene secure from rekindle our other hazards associated with the incident. Pg 325
Overhaul
168
Ventilation must not be started to lay in a fire progression are the full effect or ____. Pg 326
proper ventilation will not be experienced
169
The methods and operating procedures used to save property and reduce further damage from water, smoke, heat, and exposure during or immediately after a fire. Pg 326
Salvage
170
___ was initially developed for the US Coast Guard oil spill field operations guide, and has evolved for all risk, all hazard responses. Pg 327
The operational planning "P"
171
The first 5 steps of NIMS – ICS planning process: pg 327
1. Understand the situation (size up) 2. Establishes incident objectives and strategies 3. Develop the plan of action (IAP) 4. Prepare and disseminate the plan (make assignments) 5. Evaluate and revise the plan
172
The size-up process actually begins ____? Pg 328
before an incident is reported and continues throughout the incident.
173
As company officers in the personal travel to work, they should___? Pg 328
Begin a general size of the day's situation. Observant road, maintenance, construction areas, and designated detours, weather forecast.
174
The size-up process for probably ____ when the unit arrives at emergency incident scene. Pg 329
intensify
175
The risk assessment may influence the ___. Pg 330
incident goals and priorities
176
During this phase, the situation either improves or worsens. Pg 330
Between arrival and problem resolution
177
If the situation gradually improves but will take a long time to resolve, the IC may need to plan for ___. Pg 331
responder rehabilitation and relief and other logistical needs
178
___ are the overall plans for controlling an incident. They are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved. Pg 331
Strategic goals
179
___ are specific statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving tactical objectives leads to the completion of strategical goals. Pg 331
Tactical objectives
180
The establishment of a ___ should be a top priority if a chief officer, member, or unit without tactical capabilities initiates command. Pg 331
command post
181
Situations that require immediate action to stabilize the incident mandate the ___ to carry out the critical operation. Pg 332
company officer's assistance
182
The fast attack options to not last more than a few minutes within the immediately dangerous of life and health (IDLH) atmosphere, and will end up with one of the following.
1. The situation is stabilized 2. The situation is not stabilized or transfer of Command has not taken place. Company officer should withdrawal and establish a command post. 3. Command is transferred to another officer.
183
Interior crews should consist of a minimum of ___. Pg 332
two persons
184
The company officer will initially assume an ___ and maintain that position until a higher ranking officer relieves him or her. Pg 332
exterior, safe, and effective command position
185
The officer may elect to assign the ___ to perform staff functions to assist command. Pg 333
crew members
186
Should the IC decide the risk is worth the benefits, the next thing that must be determined is ___. Pg 333
how long firefighters can be expected to sustain an interior attack
187
___ may mean that the risk outweighs the benefit. Pg 333
Not enough resources or available water
188
Although it may be the hardest decision incident commanders are ever asked to make, there are times when attempting to make a rescue or an interior attack may be ___. Pg 333
too great a risk to the safety of the firefighters.
189
Failure to do a ____ is the ultimate example of not being responsible for the safety of the personnel. Pg 333
risk/benefit evaluation
190
____ means that carrying on an aggressive interior attack is worth the risk and that sufficient resources are available to meet the incident demands. Pg 334
Offensive mode
191
The probability of saving lives is highly unlikely in the risk to firefighters in attempting to save property outweighs the gain. Pg 334
Defensive mode
192
Protecting the exposed buildings from for the loss and confining the fire to the structure(s) involved is considered a ____. Pg 334
Defensive mode
193
Any time decision is ___, particular attention should be given to make sure the switch is communicated to all personnel at the incident, and that confirmation of a change is received. Pg 334
made to switch from one operational mode to another
194
When calling for additional resources, these resources may be ____. Pg 334
held in reserve, used to relieve first arriving units, or assigned a tactical objectives on the incident
195
Once an emergency incident has been terminated, the company officer may still participate in two important activities ____? Pg 335
Determine the cause of the incident and prepare a postincident analysis (a PIA or after action report)
196
A secure perimeter must be established and only those responsible for emergency cause determination should be allowed to enter the area. This is the same perimeter used to define the ____. Perimeter may be larger in require the use of ____ to secure it. Pg 335
hot zone. apparatus, road barriers, or law-enforcement or military personnel
197
Until he can be properly investigated, evidence may need to be protected with a ___. Pg 336
Salvage cover or cardboard box
198
Failure to secure the scene may impair are ruined an investigation if ____? Pg 336
The evidence chain of custody is broken
199
The term chain of custody (chain of evidence) is a legal term that refers to ____? Pg 336
The handling and integrity of real evidence (physical materials).
200
To be acceptable in a court of law, the chain of custody must authenticate the location of evidence ____ and who had access to it. Pg 336
At all times
201
In most fire, incidents, fire and emergency services organizations have the authority to deny access to any building during Firefighting operations and for as ___. Pg 336
long afterwards as deemed reasonably necessary
202
A ____ should be used to protect the scene and any evidence. Pg 336
Single entry control point
203
_____ is essential for evidence to be of any value in court. Pg 337
Maintaining the chain of custody
204
____ are the first persons in the chain of custody. Pg 337
Company officers and their personnel
205
____ are the greatest threat to the recovery of evidence are any physical indications of the cause of the incident? Pg 337
The overhaul or accessory actions that emergency service personnel perform
206
Water application and debris movement should be ____? Pg 337
Minimized to protect such evidence
207
____ focuses on the activities of the responders without placing blame or finding fault. Pg 338
A postincident analysis (PIA)
208
The PIA and post instant critique are intended to determine whether an emergency and said it was conducted in the ____? Pg 338
Safest and most efficient manner
209
Those participating in the critique of me include the responding units as well as ____. Pg 338
Staff officers, branch and division, supervisors, and off-duty personnel who were called to the scene.
210
Two primary areas of analysis are the ____ of the operational strategy and tactics and personal safety. Generally, with an incident is large and complex, ____ are assigned to these topic areas. Pg 338
Application and effectiveness. Two members of the NIMS-ICS command staff
211
The incident commander will sign an officer to write the post incident analysis dealing with _____? Pg 338
Strategy and tactics
212
The responsibility for collecting safety related information for a post incident analysis assigned it to the ____. Pg 339
Incident safety officer (ISO)
213
They postincident critique is a meeting that generally involves ___? Pg 339
All participating units and agencies.
214
The goal of the critique is to ____ and ___ that were evident in the analysis. Pg 339
Acknowledge any weaknesses, applaud strengths
215
____ once all necessary information has been gathered and reviewed. The critique should occur ___ of the incident. This time in ensures that the events are fresh in the mind of the participants in that needed corrections are not delayed. Pg 339
A formal critic should be held. Within a week.
216
When the analysis and critique are complete, any weaknesses in skills must be corrected ___. Pg 340
Through additional training
217
Each authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) establishes the criteria for selecting and evaluating candidates for company officers. These often include a combination of ____? Pg 350
Written testing, interviews, and skills evaluation
218
According to ____, a level two fire officer must conduct a ____, seem to include analyzing, all available information in determining the point of origin cause of the fire. Pg 351
NFPA 1021, preliminary investigation of a fire
219
Oral communication skills are necessary for ____? Pg 351
presenting, training, meetings, and at emergency scenes.
220
Written skills are vital, and the company after two may be required to develop: ___? Pg 351
Written reports, press releases, memos, policies, procedures
221
Most citizens have more direct contact with local government departments and divisions to include fire and emergency services then with any other level. Citizens attend ___?Pg 352
Fire board meetings, provide guidance for pre-incident surveys, obtain burn permits, tour fire stations, receive EMS and Firefighting services, and attend the fire and life safety presentations.
222
NFPA ____, requires company officers, to understand how local governments enact laws. Pg 353
NFPA 1021
223
Company officers may interact with ___? Pg 353
Law enforcement, building safety, water supply agencies, public transportation, social services, municipal/county courts, zoning boards, public works, disaster preparedness
224
State and similarly territorial governments are generally modeled after the federal government with three functional branches: ___? Pg 354
Legislative, executive, and judicial
225
The term ____ is also used to describe four states (____) and one of the territories (____). A state in which the government functions with a common consent of the people. Pg 354
Commonwealth, Kentucky, Massachusetts, Pennsylvania, and Virginia, Puerto Rico.
226
Canada is divided into ___ and ____? Pg 354
10 provinces and 3 territories
227
Provincial governments have ___ that include a ____ Pg 354
3 branches, unicameral legislative assembly (or national assembly in Quebec) an executive branch that a premier directs, and a court system.
228
Each province also has a ____ that Canada's governor general appoints; however, the position is largely honorary in carries no real legal authority. Pg 354
Lieutenant governor
229
The Yukon Territory's political head is the leader of the majority party and carries the title of ___? Pg 354
Government leader
230
All three Canadian territories provide ____? Pg 354
fire protection and EMS services.
231
Tribal governments have structures similar to the federal government, although the leader is called the ___? 355
Chief
232
In the US, the ___ is the primary agency responsible for Management of the aboriginal peoples of North America land and resources. Pg 355
bureau of Indian affairs.
233
The most apparent differences between the US and Canadian federal governments exist in the ___? Pg 356
Executive branch
234
The true chief executive of the Canadian government is the ____, who is assisted by a cabinet of ministers for various governmental functional areas. Pg 356
Prime Minister
235
A ____ may be a simple function of the local government and not require a written document to verify it, although a document may aid in establishing command and control detail. Pg 357
Internal aid agreement
236
A procedure to be put into effect should an emergency occur within a given region our area. Pg 358
Area contingency plan (ACP)
237
____ was created to integrate federal government prevention, preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation plans into one all discipline, all hazard approach to domestic incident management. Pg 359
The US national response plan (NRP)
238
The ____ provide the framework and processes to integrate all the capabilities and resources of the jurisdictions, disciplines, and levels of government and the private sector into a cohesive, unified, and coordinated approach to domestic incident management. Pg 359
The NRP and NIMS
239
Ongoing, repeated assessments conducted overtime to evaluate and employees performance against an organization's standards. Pg 359
Formative evaluation
240
An assessment of an employees performance against an organizations standards that are conducted at the end of a given period of time such as a probationary period, annually, as part of a performance review, or for performance improvement or disciplinary purposes. Pg 359
Summative evaluation
241
It is likely that the company officer will be the individual who implements change at the ___? Pg 361
Operational level
242
Change can originate from two forces: ___? Pg 361
1. Internal 2. External
243
____ originate within the unit/organization, and include changes that are created by the delegation of responsibility, periodic performance reviews, organizational restructuring, and realignment of duties and tasks to meet the changes that external forces drive. Pg 361
Internal forces
244
____ originate from political decisions, economic trends, community service demands, changes in technology, and changes in the demographics of the community, among others. Pg 361
External forces
245
What are the 4 change process stages?
1. Denial - people refuse to believe that the change will affect them. 2. Resistance - when the threat of change becomes real, people start to resist it. 3. Exploration - people get a better understanding of the potential change through training. 4. Commitment - increased understanding in the third stage leads to an increase commitment.
246
Support for change must come from the ____ in order for it to be successful. Pg 361
Top down
247
What are the reasons to resist change? Pg 362
Uncertainty, loss of control or power, fear of loss, self interest, learning anxiety, lack of trust, lack of shared vision.
248
What are the 7 steps to overcome the resistance to change? Pg 361
1. Create a climate for change 2. Plan for change 3. Communicate the advantages and effects of change 4. Meet the needs of both the organization and employees 5. Involve employees in the change process 6. Provide support for employees during the change 7. Seek the input and support of "opinion leaders" in the organization
249
What are the 5, steps for model of change? Pg 364
1. Recognize the need for change 2. Identify resistance and address it 3. Plan the change intervention 4. Implement the change 5. Control the change
250
The follow up program becomes part of the annual performance evaluation for personnel in the ____? Pg 364
periodic review programs, operations, or policies
251
The ____ is the feedback that takes the results and loops them back to the first portion of the process, becoming the current level of performance. Pg 364
follow up
252
____, an organizational researcher, determined in the ____ that there are __ reasons that change processes fail. Pg 364
John Kotter, 1990s, 8
253
What are the eight reasons that change processes fail? Pg 365
1. The change process is to complex 2. The change process lacks universal support 3. Lack of a clear vision and not understanding the importance of having one 4. The failure to communicate the vision to the organization 5. Allowing barriers to be placed in the way of the vision and change process 6. Not planning for and recognizing the short term results 7. Declaring completion of the change process prematurely 8. Failure to make the change a permanent part of the organizations culture
254
The key actors are influential members, such as, ___? 365
The chief of the department, president of the labor organization, branch/division heads, members of the governing board, or heads of other departments.
255
Understanding group dynamics is vital for a company officers because there is a direct connection between ___. Pg 372
informal group support and formal group success or failure of the unit.
256
A group is often defined as a collection of people who: pg 372
Share certain traits, interact with one another, except rights and obligations as members of the group, and share a common identity
257
A group is defined as? Pg 372
Two or more persons with common goals that may or may not be explicitly stated.
258
Formal groups usually define common goals in ___. Pg 372
a written document
259
A friendship is an ____ of two persons who interact with the common goal of mutual respect and interests. Pg 372
Informal group
260
Informal subgroups commonly form in exist within ____. Pg 372
Formal groups
261
_____ may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group more than any other factor. Pg 372
Informal subgroups
262
____ determine the company officers ability to deal effectively with the informal group. Pg 372
Group dynamics
263
What are the five essential characteristics a group may exhibit? These elements are what make up group dynamics. Pg 372
Common binding interest, group image/identity, since of continuity, shared values, roles within the group
264
What are some common binding interest? Pg 374
Common hobby, organizational memberships, or religious affiliations.
265
Loss of ___ can be a factor in the loss of personnel and support of the united and the organization. Pg 374
Group cohesion
266
____ is one of the greatest influence is on the success of the group. Pg 374
Group image
267
The values of the organization usually are reflected in the ____? Pg 375
Attitudes and actions of individuals and groups within the organization.
268
___, the leader is usually either assigned or elected. Pg 375
Formal groups
269
____, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used. Pg 375
Informal groups
270
Control over the group will result from a more ____ to leadership than a more authoritarian approach. Pg 376
Democratic approach
271
The five stages of development are: pg 376
Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
272
____ as relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop and the members begin to see themselves as a part of the group. Pg 376
Forming
273
___ conflicts may result as members jockey from informal leadership or try to exert their own influence over the group. Company officers can reduce the time spent in the ____ phase by actively listening to members and explaining the decisions. Pg 377
Storming
274
___ the group establishes its own set of norms and values. Pg 377
Norming
275
___ the supervisor maintains team spirit as a group accomplishes it's objectives. Pg 377
Performing
276
___ the final stage is the termination of the group task. It includes acknowledging the group's accomplishments and the participation of the individual members. It is also an opportunity to debrief and determine if any process changes should be made. Pg 377
Adjourning
277
____ is one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Pg 377
Behavior management
278
Behavior management begins with ____? Pg 377
Prevention of disruptive behavior
279
____ guidance starts with a counseling session between the company officer and a new member of the unit. Pg 377
Counseling
280
____ the company officer, or designated subordinate guides the individual through any new activities, reinforces correct behaviors, and redirects incorrect behaviors. Pg 377
Coaching
281
____ providing peer assistance may begin with assigning a more experience member to work with the new member. Pg 378
Providing peer assistance
282
___ a supervisor or other superior acts as an advisor or guide (mentor) to the member. Pg 378
Mentoring
283
____ is a variety of procedures designed to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior. Pg 378
Counseling
284
Company officers must not act as a therapist if a subordinate appears to have a psychological/emotional problem. In these cases, the company officer should seek guidance from superior officer and/or the ___. Pg 379
Organizations employee assistance program (EAP)
285
If the Department has a labor/management agreement, it may stipulate that the subordinate has the right to have a ____. Pg 380
Union representative present during counseling
286
When disciplinary actions becomes necessary,____ will be critical in supporting formal action. Pg 380
documentations of the situation
287
CO should remember that the objective of disciplinary action is to___? Pg 380
Change inappropriate behavior
288
Coaching is a ____, and it is the process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain improve your performance. Pg 380.
Process of directing an individual skills performance. Coaching
289
Coaching can take place in a___. Pg 380
Group setting or individually
290
Company officers should strike a balance between ___. Pg 380
correcting what is performed wrong and praising what is performed right
291
A process that involves having unit personnel assistant each other in learning teamwork are perfecting new skills. Pg 380
Peer assistance
292
The peer assistance approach can be used as a basis for a ____ that pairs an experienced member with a new employee during the probationary. Period. Pg 381
Buddy system
293
____ places a subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional, who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator, either formally or informally. Pg 381
Mentoring
294
A mentor is usually someone, ____ who guides subordinates actions in real experience on the job. Pg 381
Other than the instructor
295
____ must be chosen carefully and selected for the experience, interest, patience, and communication abilities. Pg 381
Mentors
296
Company officers should periodically evaluate the person who work for them, commonly on an ___? Pg 381
Annual basis
297
Performance feedback may be provided on a ____ to allow an individual to alter our improve performance before an annual evaluation. Pg 382
Quarterly or semi annual basis
298
____ can result in loss of motivation, personal resentment, or a tarnishing of an individuals, professional, or a personal reputation. Pg 382
Mishandled evaluations
299
____ can be used to describe the employees duties and responsibilities. Pg 383
Preestablished job descriptions
300
The company officer and employee should both sign the final evaluation. These signatures indicate that the employee has received the evaluation. It does not mean ___, but indicates the comments that were reviewed with the employee. Pg 383
Employee agrees with the content of the evaluation
301
____ must adhere to the guidelines that the a HJ, the state/province, and the federal government provide. Pg 386
Personal evaluations
302
The individual cannot be judged on task that____? Pg 386
Are not assigned or the person is not trained to perform
303
Evaluations must include ___ based on the quality or quantity of work or on specific performance that are ___. Pg 386
Definite identifiable criteria, supported by a documented record
304
Evaluation's must be objective and not ____. Pg 386
based on subjective observations
305
Evaluation supposed be supported by ___? Pg 386
Documentation
306
Employees file ____ when they perceive they have been unfairly treated. Pg 386
Grievances
307
The grievance procedure it needs to be ____? Pg 386
Effective, consistent, and provide an incredible resolution
308
All model grievance procedures contain the same general elements, such as: pg 386
Filing, Testimony, witnesses, representation, review steps.
309
Disciplinary actions consist of corrective measures that are used to get employees to ____. Pg 386
meet standards and adhere to policies
310
To maintain order through Training and/or the threat of imposition of sanctions; setting and enforcing the limits or boundaries for expected performance.
Discipline
311
What are the two basic types of discipline? Pg 387
Positive and negative
312
____ results when reasonable rules of conduct are established and are fairly inconsistently applied. Pg 387
Positive (constructive) discipline
313
____ involves corrective action when an employee disobeys established rules or performance requirements. Pg 387
Negative discipline
314
Company officers must recognize that employees are entitled to the following information and considerations: ___ pg 387
Written notice of proposed action, the reasons for the proposed action, copy of the chargers and the material upon which the action is based, the right to respond (either orally or in writing) to the authority initially imposing discipline
315
Progressive discipline usually starts with ___? Pg 387
Training and/or education
316
Progressive discipline usually involves the following three levels: ___ pg 387
Preventative action (oral reprimand), corrective action (written reprimand), punitive action
317
Preventive action should start with an ___ so that the employee understands which rule was violated in the organizational necessity for the rule. Pg 387
individual counseling interview,
318
The second step is applied, when employee repeats a violation, for which preventative action was taken or commits a different violation. also, if employee commits a serious violation as a first offense. Corrective action is always done in writing. Pg 388
Corrective action (written reprimand)
319
This step is used when employee continues to exhibit inappropriate behavior despite earlier corrective efforts or commit a very serious violation of organizational rules as a first offense. Pg 388
Punitive action
320
Most company officers were only be responsible for the ___, preventative action. Pg 388
First step
321
A program in which an individual can learn a particular skill set by following an active practitioner in the field. Pg 389
Job shadowing
322
____ programs may be used to help unit personnel experience different positions within an organization. Pg 389
Job shadowing
323
___ usually occurs within the framework of personnel counseling. Pg 388
Career planning
324
___ must provide guidance to their members in order for the organization to survive. Pg 390
Volunteer organizations
325
A career or professional development planner is like a roadmap. It provides people with a visual image that includes their ___. Pg 390
Current situation, intermediate objectives, and final goal
326
The answers to a self assessments questions will guide the individual and the company officer in making a list of intermediate objects to reach the final goal. Pg 390
Current situation
327
The ____ are the steps needed to attain the final goal. Pg 390
Intermediate objectives
328
The list of objectives must lead to the ___ and provide all the necessary knowledge, Training, and skills to attain it. Pg 390
Final goal
329
____ objectives, can cause the individual to become distracted or frustrated. Reaching the final goal depends on accomplishing each objective in a reasonable time period. Pg 390
Broad or ambiguous
330
What are the levels of capability? Pg 391
Competency, proficiency, mastery
331
____ states that the fire officer II must have the ability to identify a problem, determine the appropriate solution, and develop a policy of procedure to rectify the problem. Pg 398
NFPA 1021
332
An organizations policies and procedures must be ____ that are continually evaluated for ____. Pg 398
Dynamic documents, effectiveness
333
Company officers submit budget request to their supervisor, who then submits an ___. Pg 399
official budgetary form to the administration.
334
Budget intended it to fund the day-to-day operations of the departments or agency. Usually includes the cost of salaries and benefits, utility bills, Fuel, and preventative maintenance. Pg 400
Operating budget
335
Budget intended to fund large, one time expenditures, such as those for Fire Stations, Fire, apparatus, or major pieces of equipment. Pg 400
Capital budget
336
A ____ is usually added to the request that represents the ___. Pg 400
Percentage, The rate of inflation based on the federal government cost of living estimate.
337
Purchasing may be the responsibility of a ____. Pg 400
supply, apparatus, or logistics chief; a county or city clerk; or a member of the jurisdictions central purchasing department
338
____ should have been completed during the budget process. Pg 401
Determining purchase needs
339
Before purchasing from unfamiliar vendors, ___. Pg 402
Company officers should conduct basic research
340
The ___ should be delayed until the cause of the fire has been determined and any evidence protected. Pg 407
overhaul process
341
A Fire investigation normally ends if it is determined that an ____. Pg 407
accident or nature caused the incident, or if there was no loss of life or high content loss.
342
The company officer must request a certified fire investigator to evaluate the scene and conduct a Fire investigation if ____. Pg 407
A loss of life or high contents loss has occurred, or if there is an indication that the incident was intentionally or malicious.
343
____ is an individual who has demonstrated the skills and the knowledge necessary to conduct, coordinate, and complete an investigation. Pg 407
A fire investigator
344
According to ___ , this level of investigation is focused on determining if arson has occurred, so that law-enforcement action can be taken. Pg 408
NFPA 1021
345
The ___ is that area where the ignition source and material first ignited actually came together. Pg 408
Area of origin
346
If the area of origin is not readily apparent, company officers should use a methodology that typically involves working from the ___ to the ___. Pg 408
Lease damaged area, must damaged area
347
___ are critical to the overall success of investigative process. Pg 408
Identifying witnesses, securing the scene, and noting initial scene observations
348
The company officer must evaluate ___ prior to initiating the investigation. Pg 409
scene safety (structural conditions, air, monitoring, and presence of other hazards)
349
What are the four basic steps and determine the area origin? Pg 409
1. Examine the exterior of the structure or vehicle in the surrounding area 2. Examine the interior of the structure or vehicle 3. Interview witnesses 4. Analyze the information gathered using the scientific method
350
The examination of a structure fire should ___ with an examination of ___ in order to determine its ___. Pg 409
Start, the entire incident scene, size and scope
351
Interior examination should begin, ___. Pg 410
working from the area of this damage to the areas of greatest damage
352
Patton found during the interior examination represents the ___. Pg 410
History of the fire from ignition to extinguishment
353
The goal of analyzing fire patterns is ___. Pg 410
To determine fire spread from the area of origin
354
___ describes the fire patterns as the "visible are miserable, physical effects that remain after a fire" of 410
NFPA 921, guide for fire and explosion investigations
355
Fire patterns are formed on interior surfaces (walls, floors, ceilings, and contents) of a structure as a result of ___. Pg 410
Direct flame contact or exposure to heat
356
Fire patterns evolve during ___. Pg 411
A Fire's progression
357
On non-combustible surfaces, such as brick, plaster, or metals, the patterns, make a surface ___. Pg 411
discoloration, spalling, melting, or distortion.
358
The plume of hot gases rising above an individual fire. Pg 411
Plume generated
359
Hot gas layer during a fire before flashover, extinguish before the fire has reached flashover. Pg 411
Hot gas layer
360
Created by ventilation introduced to a fire. Pg 411
Ventilation generated
361
The way the fire was extinguished during fire suppression efforts. Pg 411
Suppression generated
362
Almost all vertical and horizontal services in the compartment will show signs of damage. Pg 411
Full room involvement
363
Fire pattern found on non-combustible surfaces, direct contact with our intense, radiant heat on the surface. The direct flame contact burns away any accumulated sit or smoke deposits on the surface, leaving demarcation lines. Pg 411
Clean burns
364
Wood studs or trim are exposed to flame, sharp edges of the components are often burned away on the side of the component that faces the heat source. Pg 412
Pointers or arrows
365
Pattern with no common shape, the fire followed the path of available fuels. Pg 412
Irregular patterns on floors
366
Fire burning downward through the floor surface above the joist. Pg 412
Saddle burns
367
Undamaged surface within an otherwise fired damaged area, large objects, such as furniture were position before the fire. Pg 412
Protected areas
368
The area of greatest damage may be at or near area of origin. ____. The area of origin is a hypothesis that needs to be tested. Pg 412
however, company officers should not assume that the most damaged area indicates the area of origin.
369
Process used to record the history of a piece of evidence. Pg 413
Chain of custody
370
The vehicle fire scene can be divided into three areas for examination: ____. Pg 413
The scene, the exterior, the interior
371
When, examining the interior of the vehicle areas of the examination can be further divided, into separate compartments; ___? Pg 413
Engine compartment, cargo compartment, passenger compartment
372
An initial energy source that can produce enough heat and energy, over a long enough period of time to raise the temperature of a fuel to its ignition temperature. Pg 414
Competent ignition source
373
Determining the ____ will assist in understanding the fire patterns. Pg 415
Rest angle (such as sideways in a ditch are parked on a hill)
374
Compartments can provide many competent ignition sources, such as ___. Pg 415
The battery, electrical harness, ignition system
375
____ show movements on the vehicles and body panels such as____ these fire patterns may appear as ____, extending from a particular compartment as the fire progresses across the vehicle body panels. Pg 416
Radial fire patterns. the hood, fenders, doors, roof, and trunk. Ripples.
376
Photographs should be taken of____ on the exterior of the vehicle. Pg 416
Panel and wheel
377
An engine compartment fire may spread into the passenger compartment through pre-existing holes in the ____. Pg 416
Bulkhead
378
____ indicates directional fire spread from the engine to the passenger compartment. Pg 416
Damage to the lower portion of the windshield
379
____ may indicate that the fire spread from the passenger compartment into the engine compartment. Pg 416
Damage to the top section of the windshield
380
As the fire plume develops and impacts the combustible head liner, a ____ is formed that will impact the top portion of the windshield. Pg 416
a ceiling jet
381
The temperature of ___ may increase substantially for the first few minutes after vehicle has been shut off. Pg 417
exhaust system
382
From its point of origin, a wildland fire burns outward in all directions. ____, a fire would burn equally in all directions, and the point of origin that would be in the center of the circular burn pattern. Pg 417
On flat ground with a consistent fuel bed and no wind
383
The direction - north, south, east, or west, - in which the slope faces. Pg 417
Aspect
384
In reality, ____ affect the fire spread rate and direction of travel. Pg 417
Wind, typography, aspect, and fuel variations
385
More unburned materials are left in the____, and the effects of flame on the fuels are considerably less there than at the head. Pg 417
Area of origin
386
_____ is a product of more complete combustion, and it appears on the exposed sides of the remaining debris. Pg 418
White ash
387
Who, what, when, where, why, and how. These are the ____ that should be asked of every witness. Pg 418
Six basic questions.
388
If the subject being interviewed, or about to be interviewed, is suspected of a fire related crime, the company officer should consider having an agency authorized ____. Pg 418
fire investigator are a police officer conduct the Miranda rights
389
If the company officer cannot determine the specific cause or if the fire appears to be the result of malicious or negligent act, ____
An agency authorized fire investigator should be called
390
Once the origin is identified,____ Pg 419
the investigator should look for heat sources that might be a potential source of ignition.
391
A competent ignition source must have the three following qualities: ___? Pg 419
Sufficient temperature to ignite the first material, sufficient heat energy transfer to result in the ignition of the first material, sufficient time to transfer the required heat to the first material.
392
Mechanism or initial energy source employed to initiate combustion. Pg 419
Ignition source
393
Fuel that is first set on fire by the heat of ignition. Pg 419
Material first ignited
394
What are the four acceptable classifications of fire cause? Pg 420
Accidental, natural, incendiary, undetermined.
395
This classification may be used as an interim classification as the fire investigation is proceeding, or it may be the final outcome if additional information cannot be obtained that identifies the specific cause. Pg 420
Undetermined
396
Fires set because of personal or professional vendettas fall into the largest category of arson fires in account for ___ of the total arson problems. Pg 421
50%
397
_____ are usually set by two or more individuals (often juveniles).
Vandalism fires
398
Monetary gain is the primary motivator for this type of incendiary fire, and total destruction of property is the ultimate goal. Pg 421
Profit (fraud)
399
Firesetters motivated by fraud attempt to cause the ____. Pg 421
most possible damage in the least possible amount of time
400
Arson used as a tool to destroy evidence of another crime is most generally associated with burglary, homicide and embezzlement. Pg 421
Crime concealment
401
Homicide to concealment fires, however, often involve the use of ___ in an attempt to destroy the body and the evidence of the manner and cause of death. Pg 421
ignitable liquids
402
Embezzlement fires are set to erase or destroy a ____. Pg 422
Paper trail
403
What are the five pattern developments of excitement (vanity)? Pg 422
Dates and the day of the week, what time of day, type of structure, how the fire set, where the fire is set
404
Fires started for the sheer excitement of creating a fire scene provide some people with a feeling of ____? Pg 422
Empowerment over society
405
Arsonist who seek recognition or wish to be viewed as heroes may set and ____ fires. Often are ____? Pg 422
Discover. security guards, volunteer firefighters, and reserve law enforcement officers
406
These individuals are always ___ at the fire scene, and often attempt to ___? Pg 422
Present, assist in firefighting activities
407
___ it's not a motive because it is a mental state and a recognized psychological disorder. True ____ are rare in number and set fires as a release of tension or to produce a feeling of euphoria. Pg 422
Pyromania, pyromaniacs
408
Over a short period of time, this type of individual will regularly set multiple small fires within several blocks of each other. Pg 422
Pyromaniacs
409
An individual or group of protesters may target a government, an ethnic or religious group, or a facility that operates in opposition to their cause. Pg 423
Extremism (terrorism)
410
Fires and explosions are usually set to the exterior of the building or propelled (such as ___) into the interior through broken windows or doorways. Pg 423
Molotov cocktails
411
Most small children under the age of ____ experiment with fire out of curiosity. Pg 423
7 years
412
Between the ages of ___, the majority of fires the children set is the result of psychosocial conflicts, such as revenge, anger, or need for attention. Pg 423
8-13 years
413
The crisis phase age is between ____ and usually involves the arrest detention of fire setter. Have a long history of playing with fire. Pg 423
15-18 years
414
The majority of juvenile fire setters are ____, and many have poor ____. Pg 423
Male. Social skills
415
Each company officer II should be trained, at a minimum, to ___ although ___ is recommended. Pg 430
ICS level 200, ICS level 300
416
Each incident should only have ____ incident commander, including when a ____. Pg 430
One. Unified command is appropriate.
417
____ may be a work sheet or dry erase board and can be used to manage the arriving units. Pg 431
Tracking system visual aids
418
The ____ is responsible for the personnel accountability system
IC
419
Common types of personnel, accountability systems used at the emergency incident include: ___. Pg 432
Tag systems, SCBA tag systems, barcode readers
420
____, standard on the rehabilitation process for members during emergency operation and training exercises, identifies rehabilitation procedures for the demobilizing personnel. Pg 432
NFPA 1584
421
Before leaving the scene, the ____ should inspect these units to ensure that they are ready to return to service. Pg 432
The compant officer
422
Standard on fire department infection control program. Pg 432
NFPA 1581
423
The first IC provides the relieving Officer with a situation status report (incident briefing), ____ pg 432
Which is the current incident status
424
That has documented the action taken up to transfer of command. Pg 432
ICS Form 201
425
The___ can then be assigned to an operating unit or retained as an aid or a member of the command or general staff. Pg 433
The former IC
426
The ____ involves the overall command of the incident. Pg 433
strategic level
427
The IC is responsible for the strategic level of the ____? Pg 433
Command structure
428
____ assignment comes with the authority to make decisions and assignments within the boundaries of the overall plan and safety conditions. Pg 433
Tactical level
429
The cumulative achievements of____ should accomplish the strategy as outlined in the ____. Pg 433
tactical objectives. Incident Action plan.
430
____ refers to those activities assigned to specific resources that result in the accomplishment of tactical level requirements. Pg 434
Task level
431
The basic structure for an initial response incident involving a small number of units requires only ____ of the command structure. The IC directly handles both ____. Pg 434
two levels. Strategic and tactical levels.
432
The terms divisions and groups are ____. Pg 434
tactical level management components
433
____ are the organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area. Pg 434
Divisions
434
The ____ and ____ is organizationally between single resources, task, forces, or strike teams and the branch. Pg 434
Division level and the group level
435
During radio communications, the phonetic destinations of ____ should be used for clarity. Pg 434
Alpha, bravo, Charlie, and delta
436
And wildland ICS,___ may be used for division/group supervisors. Pg 434
DIV
437
___ are an organizational level responsible for a ____. Pg 434
Groups, specific functional assignment.
438
Creating tactical level DGs to manage incident related functions or direct to operations in the specific geographic areas or functions should ____. Pg 435
Reduce the span of control
439
Effective span of control ranges from ___ subordinates per supervisor, with____ consider the optimum number. Pg 435
3-7. 5
440
In fast moving, complex operations, a span of control of no more than ___ DGs is recommended
5
441
When the span of control is exceeded, the IC should establish ___ or an ___. Pg 435
Branches. Operations section
442
___ determine strategy and assigns tactical objectives and resources to each DG. ___ is responsible for the tactical development of assigned resources to complete the assigned tactical objectives. Pg 435
The IC. Each DG supervisor.
443
When practical, communications with a DG unit should be conducted ___ between ___. Pg 436
Face to face. Company officers and the DG supervisor
444
Each DG supervisor must maintain communication with assigned units to ____. Pg 436
Control both their location and function
445
____ operational plans (also called incident action plans) are developed during an actual incident after the first operational period. Pg 436
NFPA 1021
446
Clearly stated and measurable objectives to be achieved in the specific time interval. Pg 436
Incident objectives (ICS 202)
447
Description of the ICS table of organization, including the units and agencies involved. Pg 436
Organization assignment list (ICS 203)
448
Specific unit tactical assignments divided by branch, division, and group. Pg 436
Assignments list (ICS 204)
449
List the basic radio channel assignments for use during the incident. Pg 436
Incident radio communications plan (ICS 205)
450
Provide information on the location and staffing of the incident medical aid station, the types of ambulance resources available, the location of on site ambulances, and the contact information for hospitals that are available to the IC. pg 436
Medical plan (ICS 206)
451
Once a size up is complete, the IC determines the____. The IC must also include ___. Pg 437
Incident priorities, select an overall strategy, and establishes tactics for meeting that strategy. Safety and any special environmental considerations.
452
____ determines the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's response to an emergency. Pg 438
The post incident analysis (PIA), evaluation (PIE), or review (PIR)
453
The company officer II should realize that the ___ is the foundation for strengthening the emergency response activities of the organization. Pg 438
PIA
454
The PIA should be completed for major incidents or those that involve: ___? Pg 438
Line of duty injuries and deaths, unusual situations, situations that the IC or staff officers deem necessary
455
The PIA objectives are the following: ____ pg 438
Objectively and constructively review operations, identify strength, identify weaknesses.
456
The analysis should focus on ____. Pg 438
participant activities, incident elements, and the decisions made it with the intention of controlling the incident
457
Postincident critique can be ____ or ____. This critique usually occurs___ and ____. Pg 441
Informal or formal. Immediately after termination of the incident and prior to leaving the incident scene.
458
In _____, the critique can take place at the station after returning from the incident. Pg 441
Inclement weather
459
Each agency representative should present a brief report of its participation in the ____? Pg 441
Incident order of arrival
460
Each fire and emergency services organization should operate within the parameters of a ____. The ____ is responsible for the development of an organization risk management plan. Pg 448
Risk management plan. Organization's chief executive officer
461
_____ standard on fire department, occupational safety, and health program. Suggests adopting an _____. At a minimum, the plan should include ___? Pg 449
NFPA 1500. Official written, risk management plan. Identification, prioritization, evaluation, control techniques, monitoring.
462
To identify the risk,____. The officer should include considerations of the worst possible conditions, or potential events. Pg 450
The company officer compiles a list of all organizational emergency and non-emergency operations and duties.
463
OSHA refers to frequency as ____, and addresses the likelihood of occurrence. Pg 450
incident rate
464
Incidents of high frequency and high severity should be given the ___ in the risk analysis, while those of low frequency and low severity should received the ___? Pg 451
Highest priority. Lowest priority
465
Severity addresses the degree of seriousness of the incident, and can be measured in a variety of ways such as___, ___, ____. Pg 451
Lost time away from work, cost of medical treatment, number of personnel injured
466
____ is the most common method used for risk management. Pg 452
Control measures (risk reduction)
467
Effective control measures, include the following: ___, ___, ___. Pg 452
Safety, health, and wellness programs. Ongoing training and education programs. Administrative controls, such as well defined SOP/SOG)
468
Implementing the risk management plan requires ___, ___, ___. Pg 452
Communication, training, and application
469
A risk management plan should be reviewed as a whole at least ____? Pg 452
Once annually
470
When applying evaluation techniques of a risk management plan, the ___ or ___ compares the plans desired results to the actual results. Pg 452
Company officer or HSO (health and safety officer)
471
The ___ should focus only on those risk that require revision and not the entire plan. Pg 453
revision process
472
When a negative trend becomes apparent, __. Pg 453
The plan must be revised
473
Accidents may result from: ___, ___, ___? Pg 454
Adverse conditions in the environment, equipment/material malfunction, human error
474
To reduce the potential for accidents to occur or to reduce the severity of accidents, each organizations must ____. The policy should define accidents established authority for investigating each type of accident, and establish a procedure for accident investigation. Pg 454
Develop and implement an accident investigation policy and procedure
475
According to NFPA 1500, investigations should not be ___ but should also include___. Pg 454
Limited to accidents. Job related injuries, illnesses, fatalities, and health exposures
476
Accident investigations should be ___? Pg 454
Objective, impartial, and directed toward fact-finding, not fault finding.
477
Workers who fail to control the factors leading to an accident because of ___, ___, ____ reasons will be involved in accidents more often than other workers. Pg 455
Mental, psychological, or physical
478
An organization can mitigate negative human factors through ___, ___, ___. Pg 455
Motivation, Training, or technical revision
479
What are the three broad categories that human factors often contribute to accidents? Pg 455
Improper attitude, lack of knowledge or skill, physically unsuited
480
The first priority, when dealing with any injury, job related illness, or health exposure is to ____. The ___ of the individual takes precedence over investigating the cause. Pg 456
Provide medical assistance to the effected individual. The health and safety.
481
While an injury is often obvious when it occurs, job related illnesses or the symptoms of health related exposures may not become evident for ___. Pg 456
Hours, days, weeks, or longer
482
Analysis of ____ provides the organization with an opportunity to prevent further accidents, injuries, illnesses, or exposures. Pg 457
safety and health reports
483
_____ usually investigate fatalities involving fire and emergency responders. Pg 457
The organization's Chief officer, the jurisdictions, medical examiner, and OSHA, and NIOSH investigators
484
All workplace accidents are the results of ___, ___, ___. Pg 458
Unsafe acts, unsafe conditions, or both
485
Unsafe acts may result from the following: ___, ___, ___. Pg 458
Inadequate, training and supervision, improper attitudes, well intentioned attempts to save time by cutting corners, careless attitudes that reflect the low morale
486
____ are common at most emergency incident scenes in during emergency responses. _____ also exist during training exercises and daily non-emergency activities. Pg 458
Unsafe conditions
487
Making changes in an emergency responder's personal behavior or changing the organization's culture will require ____. Pg 458
conscious effort on the part of the administration and membership of the organization
488
Statistics verify that ____ and ____ are the leading cause of fire and emergency responders fatalities. Pg 458
Cardiac arrest (heart attacks) and strokes
489
_____, ___, ___, ___, ____ will help to reduce this needless loss of life. Pg 459
An effective wellness program, including proper nutrition, physical fitness, periodic medical evaluation, ceasing tobacco use, and stress relief and control
