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Company Officer (1 of 2) Flashcards

1
Q

NFPA ___ (2014) for Level I and Level II Fire Officers. pg 1 (OTQ 17-3)

A

1021

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2
Q

NFPA 1021 places fire officers in how many categories or levels? pg 3

A

Level 1 - First line supervisor (supervisior), Level 2 - mid level supervisor (supervisor/managerial), Level 3 - first line manager (managerial/administraive), Level 4 - department manager or chief (adminstrative)

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3
Q

IAFC places fore officers in how many categories or level? pg 3

A

Level 1 - supervising fire officer (all company officers), Level 2 - Managing fire officer (battalion, district, and assistant chiefs), Level 3 - Administrative fire officer (administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department), Level 4 - executive fire officer (department chief)

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4
Q

What are the largest single officer group? pg 3

A

Company officers.

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5
Q

_____ is instructions that emphasizes job specific learnig objectives, and traditional skill based teaching. pg 5

A

Training

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6
Q

_____ involves instructions that emphasizes knowledge based learnign aobjectives that are not tied to a specific job. pg 5

A

Education

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7
Q

National Fire Protection Ass (NFPA) 1021, standard for fire officer professional qualifications, sets guidelines for qualification to the ____. pg 16 (OTQ: DC 2023)

A

Fire Officer Level I

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8
Q

The company officer’s most important task is to ensure the ____of the unit’s personnel. pg 17

A

Safety

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9
Q

What are the challenges a new officer will encounter? pg 19

A

Leadership, Ethics, Supervision, Responsiblity, Authority

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10
Q

Leadership - officers must begin to cultivate the leadership skills needed to ensure that a unit operates ____. Pg 19

A

Safet, effectively, and efficiently

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11
Q

Ethics - the officer is a role model for subordinate members of the ____. Pg 19

A

Unit, peers, and even the public

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12
Q

Supervision - company officer level supervision may be the most ____ type of supervision. Pg 19

A

Difficult

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13
Q

Responsibility - a new officer is now responsible for the his/her own actions and ____. Pg 19

A

Subordinates

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14
Q

Authority - Officers must learn what authority is lefitimetaly assigned to the position and how to apply it in a fair and ____ manner. pg 19 (OTQ: DC 2023) on

A

Equitable

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15
Q

Company officers know the only person they can change is ____ pg 22

A

Themselves

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16
Q

A new officer should rarely resort to using ____ as a reason for compliance. Pg 23

A

Rank

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17
Q

The duties of a fire officer are? Pg 24

A

Human resource management, community and government relationships, administration, inspection and investigation, emergency service delivery, health and safety.

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18
Q

J.P.R. pg 24

A

Job preference requirements

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19
Q

Define manager. pg 24

A

Individual who accomplished organizational objectives through effective and efficient handling of material and Human Resources.

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20
Q

They must realize that the success of any fire and ems organization is directly proportional to its ____. pg 24

A

Community involvement

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21
Q

Upon arrival, the first arriving company officer must develope and initate an ____ in accordance with local policy. pg 26

A

Incident actino plan (IAP), an incident safety plan (ISP), and establish the incident command system (ICS)

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22
Q

In North America fire and ems organizations the top official is called the ____. pg 31

A

Fire chief, commisioner, chief executive offier (CEO)

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23
Q

The most common organizational struture used in fire/EMS and is defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps or chain of comman. pg 32

A

Scalar

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24
Q

What group is defined as those who deliver services to the public or external customer; typical functions include fire suppression, EMS, inspections, education, and investigations? pg 33

A

Line personnel

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25
Q

What group is deined as those who provided support to the line personnel or internal customers; typical functions are training, logistics, and personnel admin? pg 33

A

Staff personnel

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26
Q

____ refers to the legal ability of an individual to male and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. pg 34

A

Authority

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27
Q

____ relates to the empowered duties o an ofical to perform certain task. pg 34

A

Auhtoiry

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28
Q

What are the two type of decision making models? pg 34

A

Centralized and decentralized

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29
Q

Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. pg 34

A

Centralized

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30
Q

Decisions are made at a lower level (basically delegation of suthority, with the effects of the decision reported through structure.

A

Decentralized

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31
Q

What needs to be done to ensure that decentralized decision making is effective? pg 34

A

Chief must ensure that all members understand the direction, values, and goals of the organization

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32
Q

In a decentralized model, decesion making authority is limited to only those tasks over which personnel have been given ____. pg 34

A

Authority

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33
Q

____ of suthority allows for the expeditious handling of most matters. pg 35

A

Decentralization

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34
Q

____ is the process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete an assignment. pg 35

A

Delegation

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35
Q

When assigning a task, the company officer should: pg 35

A

Describe the task and overall goal, identify available resources, and identify time and safety

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36
Q

____ states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor. pg 35

A

Unity of Command

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37
Q

____ is the path of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa. pg 36

A

Chain of Command

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38
Q

The process of going around a link in the chain of command to deal with an issue. pg 36

A

Side Stepping

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39
Q

____ can be destructive to organizatinal unity and cohessiveness. pg 36

A

Side Stepping

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40
Q

Notifying one’s supervisor that one wishes to take an issue to the supervisor’s supervisor. pg 36

A

Skip level notification

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41
Q

____ is a organizational principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor. pg 37

A

Functional supervision

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42
Q

____ is often useful when the distinction between line and staff functions become blurred. pg 37

A

Functional supervision

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43
Q

____ refers to the number of subordinates and/or number of functions that one individual can effectively supervise. pg 37

A

Span of Control

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44
Q

Span of controll is between ____? pg 37

A

3-7

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45
Q

The National Incident Management System-Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS) suggest an optimum ____ for span of control. pg 37

A

5

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46
Q

____ consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks to be assigned to specific individuals. pg 39

A

Division of labor

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47
Q

Work groups may be created based upon ____. pg 39

A

Type of task, geographical area, time of year or season, available resources, and skills specialization.

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48
Q

All positions within the organization must be clearly defined for the ____ principle to be effective. pg 39

A

Division of labor

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49
Q

____ enables different companies to work together well because each company officer understands the capabililties, requirements, and needs of the other.

A

Cross training

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50
Q

Common public jurisdictions that provide fire and EMS protection include: pg40

A

Municpal, county, fire district, state/provincial, federal, tribal

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51
Q

Functional division of the lowest level of local government.

A

Municipal

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52
Q

The size of the municipal fire and EMS organizations depends primarily on ____? pg 41

A

the size of the population and geographic area served.

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53
Q

Funding to support the operation of a career, combination, paid-on-call, or a volunteer fire department is part of the municipal budget and is usually obtained through ____? pg 41

A

The collection of taxes

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54
Q

The department’s budget generally is set on an ____basis and must address all department expenses, including ____. pg 42

A

Annual. Apparatus and equipment purchases and maintenance, operating expenses and funding for personnel wages and benefits.

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55
Q

The second level in local government in normally ____. pg 42

A

The county

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56
Q

County fire and EMS generally protect large areas of ____. pg 42

A

unicorporated land that contain large populations.

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57
Q

Designated geographic area where fire protection is provided, usually through a supporting tax, or an area where fire prevention codes are enforced. pg 42

A

Fire district

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58
Q

Is a term given to an area that lies outside of taxpayer supported of funded juristriction. Usually rural and sparsely populated. pg 42

A

No Man’s Land

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59
Q

Generally, state/provincial emergency fire supression companies are organized for ____. pg 43

A

Forest fire, willand, and urban interface fires.

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60
Q

Territory occupied by one of the constituent adminstrative districts of a nation whose rights are defined by a constitution. pg 43

A

State/provincial

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61
Q

____ fire and ems exist to protect federal lands and property. pg 43

A

Federal

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62
Q

National level of government such as the U.S. and Canada.

A

Federal

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63
Q

The ____ provides training courses for all pard, volunteer, and combination/composite organizations throughthe ____ as well as the ____. pg 43

A

U.S. Fire Administration (USFA). National Fire Academy (NFA), Emergency Management Institute (EMI)

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64
Q

The ____ operates fire and ems organizations on military installations in the continental U.S. and foreign countries. pg 43

A

U.S. Department of Defense

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65
Q

____ are more and more frequently supplying fire and ems protection for the DoD. pg 43

A

Civil service (nonmilitary) personnel, civilian contractors, or local municipal organizations

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66
Q

The Canadian Defense Department oversees military and civilian fire and ems organizations operating in ____ installations in and around North America.

A

35

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67
Q

Term that describes the government structure of Native American and Aboriginal Peoples of North America. pg 44

A

Tribal

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68
Q

There are ____federaly recognized Native American tribal governments within the US. pg 44

A

562

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69
Q

How many acres of land do the tribal governments reside on, which the US government holds in trust. pg 44

A

55.7 million

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70
Q

____ trains, equips and funds fire and ems organizations while members of the tribe living on each reservation staff the organizations. pg 44

A

The US Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA)

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71
Q

In Canada, the Department of Indian and Northern Affairs provides similar suuport to the ____ officially recognized bands of Aborignal People of Canada (First People). pg 44

A

633

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72
Q

Private ems organizations fall into three catergories. pg 44

A

Industrail fire brigades, for profit fire and ems, and private nonprofit fire and ems

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73
Q

Many commercial facilities, such as, oil refineries, checmical processing plants, research facilites, marine port facilities adn airports (both public and private maintain ____ or other emergency response teams. pg 44

A

Industrail fire brigades

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74
Q

Funding for the noprofit fire and ems must meet the requirements of the ____? pg 45

A

US tax code 501(c)(3)

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75
Q

Volunteer firefighters staff approxiametly ____ of fire and ems pg 46

A

70%

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76
Q

What are the 3 types of aid agreement? pg 47

A

Mutual, automatic, and outside aid

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77
Q

Reciprocal assistance from one fire and ems to another during an emergency based upon prearranged agreement. pg 47

A

Mutual aid

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78
Q

Written agreement between two or more agencies to auto dispatch predetermined resourcses to any fire or other emergency reported in the geographical are covered by the agreement. pg 47

A

Automatic aid

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79
Q

Assistance from agencies, industries, or fire departments that are not part of the agency having jurisdiction over the incident. pg 47

A

Outside aid

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80
Q

Aid agreements may be ____ but should be ____. pg 47

A

Verbal, written

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81
Q

____ should be considered contracts and reviewed by legal departments and approved by the governing bodies. pg 47

A

Aid agreements

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82
Q

____ is similar to mutual aid except that payment, such as a per response or an annual fee, rather than reciprocal aid is made by one organization the the other. pg 49

A

Outside aid

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83
Q

EMAC stands for? pg 49

A

Emergency Management Assistance Compact

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84
Q

MABAS stands for? pg 49

A

Mutual Aid Box Alarm System

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85
Q

The US Congress created EMAC in ____ as a national disater relief compact to link the resources. pg 49

A

1996

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86
Q

MABAS is an agreement between the fire and emergency response agencies of ____ and _____. pg 49

A

Nothern Illinois, Southern Wisconsin

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87
Q

Leadership traits are. pg 56

A

Supervisory, decisiveness, intelligence, self assurance, initiative, desire for professional success, integrity, personal security, sense of priority, vision, industriouness, interpersonal skills, empowerment, innovation and creativity, consistency, preparedness, proactiveness.

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88
Q

Planning, organizing, directing, and controlling in order to coordinate the efforts of the unit to accomplish objectives. pg 56

A

Supervisory ability

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89
Q

Making decisions quickly and effectively. pg 56

A

Decisiveness

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90
Q

Using logic and reason in making decisions. pg 56

A

Intelligence

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91
Q

Demonstrating self confidence when making decisions. pg 56

A

Self assurance

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92
Q

Accomplishing goals and objectives with a minimum of supervision

A

Initiative

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93
Q

Gaining additional responsibility and influence within the organization. pg 56

A

Desire for professional success

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94
Q

Applying consistently a set of morals or values to the decision making process. pg 56

A

Integrity

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95
Q

Being secure in the leadership position. pg 56

A

Personal security

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96
Q

Determining an effective order of action to achieve a desired outcome. pg 56

A

Sense of priority

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97
Q

Having a dream or concept of the wat things can or should be. pg 56

A

Vision

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98
Q

Working hard to fulfill duties. pg 56

A

Industriousness

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99
Q

Working successfully with other to accomplish tasks. pg 57

A

Interpersonal skills

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100
Q

Providing support for other to succeed in accomplishing organizational and personal goasl. pg 57

A

Empowerment

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101
Q

Seeking continously new and imaginative methods for accomplishing the mission of the organization. pg 57

A

Innovation and creativity

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102
Q

Applying proceedures, policies, rewards , and discipline evenly and fairly over time. pg 57

A

Consistency

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103
Q

Being ready for potential situations. pg 57

A

Preparedness

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104
Q

Anticipating, embrassing, and meeting change. pg 57

A

Proactiveness

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105
Q

An evaluation method that incorporates feedback from multiple sources such as the worker, his/her peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers. pg 57

A

360 degree feedback evaluation

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106
Q

____ is the ability to identify components of a situations, assess the needs for action, determine the nature of intervention, initiate action, and to be preceived as having the abilty to take this action. pg 58

A

Command presence

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107
Q

What are the 8 steps to create command presence? pg 58

A

Determine the situation, know the resources available, develope strategy and tactics, listen to all points of view, make the decision, implement the decision, evaluate the decision and modify if needed, take responsilbility

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108
Q

Are the agreed upon philosophical prinsiples that define what is correct and proper behavior for the members of a society. Sometimes called morals. pg 59

A

Ethics

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109
Q

Is a trait that individuals learn primarily from their families and secondarily from religion, education, society, friends, and peers. pg 60

A

Ethical behavior

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110
Q

Ethic 3 step check pg 60

A

Is it legal, is it fair, how will it make me feel

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111
Q

Some causes of unethical behavior in the fire and ems are: pg 60

A

Violation of moral principles, bottom line mentality, short cuts, exploitive mentality

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112
Q

What are the four main reasons for lying? pg 61

A

Basic needs, affiliation, self esteem, self gratification

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113
Q

This code is a brief, one or two page statement of the organization’s values and the expected behavior both of the management and members. pg 62

A

Code of ethics or ethics policy

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114
Q

The process of directing, overseeing, and controlling the activities of other individuals. pg 63

A

Supervision

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115
Q

Refers to the administration and control of projects, programs, situations, or organizations. pg 64

A

Management

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116
Q

____ are often assigned management duties over functions. pg 64

A

Level II Fire Officer

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117
Q

____ is anyone who is responsible for the activities of one or more subordinates. pg 64

A

A supervisor

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118
Q

What is the most effect method for assisting employees on how to resolve personal problems. pg 65

A

The employee assistance program (EAP)

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119
Q

A pattern of thinking that includes self deception, peer pressure, and conformity to group ethics and values. pg 66

A

Groupthink

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120
Q

What is the best tool for combating groupthink? pg 66

A

Diversity

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121
Q

What does the acronym SMART stand for? pg 67

A

Specific (conduct an annual assessment), Measureable (can be measured at the end of June), Attainable (reasonable time has been provided to complete this task), Realistic (this trait should be a regular duty of a company officer), Timely (based on when all assessments must be completed and submitted)

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122
Q

Commanding officers must communicate instructions ____ at emergency incidents. pg 67

A

Clearly and concisely

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123
Q

What is the four stage developement model? pg 69

A

Forming (trust and respect develope/become part of the group), Storming (provide explanations for decisions/ reduce the time spent in the storm), Norming (ensure the norms dont voilate the sense of decency), Performing (maintain team spirit)

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124
Q

____ is a process fo giving motivational direction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to employees in order to maintain and improve their performance. pg 72

A

Coaching

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125
Q

An effective coach helps a subordinate ____, ____, ____. pg 72

A

Establish a goal, determine how to reach it, and provides sugestions when they are requested.

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126
Q

____ is a formal process which assists paticipants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affectiving performance. pg 72

A

Counseling

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127
Q

____ should occur in private, and a record should be kept of the session. pg 72

A

Counseling

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128
Q

What are the four steps of counseling? pg 72

A

Describe the current performance, Describe the desired performance, Gain a commitment for change, Foolow up the commitment.

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129
Q

____ is used to better perpare individuals for their roles and responsibilities within the oganization under the direction of a positive model. pg 73

A

Mentoring

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130
Q

Mentors should not be ____ to the subordinate. pg 73

A

A direct supervisor

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131
Q

In the US Air Force, ____ supervisors serves as the ____ mentor for each subordinate. pg 73

A

Immediate, primary.

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132
Q

Acknowledge the accomplishment of objectives ____. pg 73

A

As soon as possibile

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133
Q

What are the four functions of the management process? pg 75

A

Planning, Organizing, Directing, Controlling

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134
Q

An effective company officer must possess the following management skill? pg 76

A

Admin skills, Human and communications skills, and conceptual and decision making skills

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135
Q

What are the two broad categories in regards to palnning? pg 76

A

Standing (SOP/SOG), Single use (accomplish a specific job within a short amount of time)

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136
Q

What are the other categories that planning goes into? pg 76

A

Strategic (chart the course, subjective), operational/admin (factors that are within the control o the organization/fact based and objective), contingency (alternated plans)

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137
Q

A statistical tool used in project management that is designed to analyze and represent the tasks involved in completing a given project. pg 77

A

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

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138
Q

____ are the most important resources available to the fire and ems, and company officer must always consider personnel safety above all else. pg 81

A

Personnel

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139
Q

What are the 5 steps of the planning process? pg 82

A

Identify, Select, Design, Implement, Evaluate

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140
Q

Where did the Operational Planning “P” orginate from? pg 83

A

The US Coast Guard

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141
Q

New guy responsibilties include. pg 84

A

Care and cleaning of rig and tools, cleaning stations, radio watch, interacting with customers

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142
Q

Probationary periods are usually from ____? pg 84

A

6 to 18 months

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143
Q

Expectations of new personnel must be explained in clear, concise, and understandable terms and ____. pg 85

A

should also be in written form

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144
Q

A favorable work environment includes complaince with ____, ____,____, ____. pg 86

A

Organizational policies, practices, proceedures, and the law

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145
Q

An unfavorable work envirnoment is when ____? pg 86

A

pattern of offensive conduct or behavior, sexual harassment, hazing

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146
Q

Involves both hostile work place and attempts by supervicors to use their power to gain sexual favors from employee. May have legal repercussions on both officers and organizations. pg 86

A

Sexual harassment

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147
Q

Eliminating unfavorable envirnoment and sexaul harassment is the responsibilty or ____? pg 86

A

All members of the organization

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148
Q

Hostile work envirnoment is a violation of ____. pg 86

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

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149
Q

Formal evaluations are ____? pg 87

A

Generally written

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150
Q

Formal evaluations are held on a specific schedule, ____. pg 88

A

Usually annually or semiannually

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151
Q

____ requires employers to maintain accurate records of hours worked. pg 88

A

The federal Fair Labor Standard Act (FLSA)

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152
Q

Program to help employees and their families with work or personal problems. pg 88

A

Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

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153
Q

Substance abuse includes the improper use of ____ which ____. pg 89

A

Alcohol and drugs, impair judgement and slow reaction times.

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154
Q

What may indicate a serious problem. pg 89

A

Absenteeism

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155
Q

When dealing with a employee who is absent the first step is to ____. pg 89

A

Gather all the information through communication with the employee.

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156
Q

If absence was due to personal problems, company officer should ____. pg 89

A

refer the employee to the EAP for counseling

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157
Q

What are the 3 types behaviors in regards to management styles? pg 91

A

Passive (hide emotions so others dont know how one feels, avoids conflict), Agressive (express emothions openly and use threats, the goal is to dominate and “win”), Assertive (express emotions honestly and defend their rights without hurting others), mutual respect)

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158
Q

What are the 5 methods of resolving conflicts? pg 91

A

Avoiding (nonassetive /passive, lose-lose), Accomendating (passively giving in, lose-win), Forcing (aggressive and uncooperative, win-lose), Negotiating (compromise, resolved quickly and relations are maintained), Collaborating (open and honest, best solution to conflict, also called problem solving style)

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159
Q

What are the 6 steps to conflict resolsution? pg 94

A

Classify/Identify, Define/diagnose, Determine the right response/appropiate conflict management, Determine alternative options, Convert the decision to an action, Test the action against the desired outcome

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160
Q

The benefits to perr mediation are? pg 94

A

Relationship are maintained, External publicity is avoided, Costly litigation is avoided, Organization and participants control the process, Participants control the resolution

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161
Q

What are the reasons people break rules? pg 95

A

Resentment, Boredom, Ignorance, Stress

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162
Q

What is the main purpose to discipline? pg 95

A

To educate

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163
Q

Discipline should be imposed to correct inappropiate behavior and ____ , but to educate. pg 95

A

Not to punish

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164
Q

Discipline in the fire and ems is designed to ___. pg 95

A

Provide positive motivation, ensure compliance with rules/regulations/standards/proceedures, and provide direction

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165
Q

A sufficiently serious first offense, such as ____ may result in termination. pg 95

A

Theft, assualt, gross negligence

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166
Q

What are the 3 levels that involve progressive discipline? pg 96

A

Preventive action (counseling interview to correct inappropiate behavior), corrective action (use on repeat violation/commits a different violation/commits a serious first offense), punitive action (possible sanctions)

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167
Q

What discipline is the company officer most likely going to give? pg 97

A

Preventive action.

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168
Q

All discipline must meet ____. pg 97

A

Legal requirements

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169
Q

Discipline may only be administered for violations of the following. pg 97

A

Written policies, proceedures, rules, regulations, SOP/SOG, verbal orders, and actions that are considered unprofessional and inappropiate.

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170
Q

A complaint against management by one or more personnel concerning an actual, alleged, or perceived injustice. pg 97

A

Grievance

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171
Q

What is the goal of the union? pg 97

A

Improvement in employees working conditions.

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172
Q

What are the four most common forms of communication withing the fire and ems? pg 105

A

Informal interpersonal, Oral, Written, and incident scene communication

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173
Q

What are the 5 basic elements of communication? pg107

A

Sender, Message, Receiver, Feedback to the sender, Interference

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174
Q

____ strongly encourages the ise of plain English for all emergency messaging. py 108

A

The National Incident Management System

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175
Q

What are the 5 general purposes for interpersonal communication? pg 108

A

Learning, Relating, Influencing, Playing, and Helping

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176
Q

Speech commincations research indicates that nonverbal communication transmits ___ of any message: ____ is body language while ____ is vocal tone and inflection. Only ____ of the transmitted message is actually verbal communication. pg 109

A

93%, 55%, 38%, 7%

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177
Q

What are the 5 descriptions of listening? pg 111

A

Attending, Unerstanding (decoding message), Remembering, Evaluation (critically analyzing info/seperate fact from opinion), Responding

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178
Q

Any learning technique that assists in memory retention. pg 112

A

Mnemonic Device

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179
Q

Is the process of engaging with individuals or groups using a verbal medium. pg 112

A

Oral communication

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180
Q

The fear of public speaking can be overcome by ____. pg 113

A

Practice, public speaking classes, organizations like toastmasters, instructor training programs

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181
Q

What are the 3 types of formal speeches and presentations? pg 114

A

Persuasive, Informative, Instructional

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182
Q

____ speeches may be difficult to develpoe and yet can be the most important speeches an officer can give. pg 115

A

Persuasive

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183
Q

____ speeches are the easiest to develope when supporting data is compiled and analyzed. pg 115

A

Informative

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184
Q

What are the 9 steps of the speech preparation process? pg 117

A

Select the topic, determine the purpose, generate ideas, develope the central idea, gather supporting evidence, organize the speech, rehearse the speech, deliver the speech, evaluate the speech

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185
Q

Written communications must be ____. pg 117

A

Accurate, concise, and professional in appearance.

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186
Q

The first step in writing any document is to determine the ____. pg 118

A

Audience, scope, and purpose

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187
Q

An outline for a written document may follow the same format as one for a speech or for a standerd training lesson plan to include an ____, ____, ____. pg 118

A

Introduction, a body, and a conclusion

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188
Q

Common technical writting practices require that outlines must be balanced with a minimum of ____ points under each heading. pg 118

A

2

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189
Q

The average paragraph is ____ words long, equating to a ____ and ____ supporting sentences. pg 119

A

75-125, topic sentence, 4-5

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190
Q

____ usually supply model bid specificants formats upon request. pg 120

A

Manufacturers

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191
Q

____ is a quick and simple way of transmitting a message within an organization. pg 121

A

A memo

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192
Q

Memos and emails are alson considered to be ____ documents. pg 121

A

Public record

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193
Q

Any writing containing information relating to the conduct of government or the performance of any government of proprietary function prepare, used, or retained by any state or local agency regardless of form or characteristics.

A

Public record

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194
Q

A petition to a federal, state, or local agency for access to records concerning a specfic topic, individual, or organization. pg 121

A

Freedom of InformationAct (FOIA) request

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195
Q

What are the 6 pieces of information for a memo? pg 121

A

Who, What, When, Where, Why, How

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196
Q

What are longer, more formal, and often represent the entire organization rather than a specific branch or section. pg 123

A

A letter

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197
Q

What are the types of narrative reports? pg 126

A

Justification (why action was taken), Recommendations (state problem, solutions, recommend best), Progress (chronological overview), Progress and justification, Description

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198
Q

____ keep the information on the same page and make it easier for the reader to find. pg 127

A

Footnotes

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199
Q

____ keep all the notes and citations together in one lost at the end of the paper. Contains larger amount of information/graphs/tables. pg 127

A

Endnotes

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200
Q

At least ____ support each main topic in the outline. pg 127

A

2 subtopics

201
Q

____ is a guide to organizational decision making. pg 127

A

A policy

202
Q

____ originate with top management and are disseminated to lower lebels for implementation. pg 127

A

Organiaztional policies

203
Q

____ is a detailed plan of action that is similar and closely related to a policy. pg 127

A

A procedure

204
Q

____ detail in writing the steps to follow in conducting ____ for some specific, recurring problem or situation. pg 127

A

Procedures, organizational policy

205
Q

SOP, SOg, PPM, GO pg 127

A

Standard Operating Procedures, Standard Operating Guidlines, Policies and Procedures Manual, General Orders

206
Q

____ defines the needs of the organization and allows manufacturers or aithorized to decide if they can meet bid specifications. pg 128

A

A request for proposal (REP)

207
Q

What is the preferred method of communication at an emergency scene. pg 129

A

Face to face

208
Q

The safety of emergency responders is greatly increased through effective ____. pg 129

A

Radio communication

209
Q

____ are normally operated from jurisdiction’s telecommunications center, station, and other facilities. pg 129

A

Base radios

210
Q

____ are mounted in emergency response vehicles. pg 129

A

Mobile radios

211
Q

Handheld radios that allow personnel to remain in contact with each other while they are away from an apparatus. pg 129

A

Portable radio

212
Q

____ receive a signal from a radio, boost its power and then transmit the signal to the receiver. Two types: apparatus mounted and specific geographical areas. pg 129

A

Repeater systems

213
Q

____ are most oftne used to notify volunteers, paid on call and off duty career personnel, and staff officers to respond to the station or the emergency scene. Two modes: voice massage or text message. pg 130

A

Pagers

214
Q

Fax machine can be very useful for transmitting and receiving written documents, such as ____, ____, ____, ____. pg 131

A

Status reports, building plans, hazardous chemical data, and weather updates

215
Q

____ has all of the features of an MDT with the addtion of a keyboard that allows two way communication between the mobile units and the telecommunications center. pg 131

A

Mobile Data Computer (MDC)

216
Q

____ is designed to provide a computer readable description of geographical features in a given area. pg 131

A

Geogrpahic Information System

217
Q

____ is the ability of a system to work with and ise the parts or equipment of another system. Vital part of NIMS. pg 132

A

Interoperatility

218
Q

____, ____, ____ can monitor all radio communications. pg 134

A

The news media, The public, and the FCC

219
Q

Who is responsible for the radio discipline and conduct of their crews. pg 134

A

Company officers

220
Q

What are the 5 C’s of radio communication? pg 134

A

Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, Capabilty

221
Q

Emergency responders must train with their ____ as much as they train on SCBA, ropes, hoses, and ladders. pg 134

A

Radios

222
Q

Keep radio traffic ____. pg 135

A

Short and to the point

223
Q

____ can provide extra information, such as who is to carry out the task and why, how, when, and where it must be done. pg 136

A

A direct order

224
Q

____ Employess and members of the organization, including emergency personnel, administrative staff, and officers. pg 145

A

Internal customers

225
Q

____ Members of the general populations within the service are who are beneficiaries of the services provided… pg 145

A

External customers

226
Q

Chief officer, compay officiers, and members who compose the work group supply the ____ ?pg 145

A

The intangiable needs

227
Q

____ is where the organization sipmly waits for a suctomer to express a specific need, want, or desire. pg 146

A

Passive method

228
Q

This method of gathering information is reactive, is crisi oriented and can be biased. pg 146

A

Passive method

229
Q

____ takes initaitve and seeks information on a regular basis from internal customers and stakeholders. pg 146

A

Active method

230
Q

This method of gathering information is accomplished through periodic meetings, surverys, and infromal interviews. pg 146

A

Active method

231
Q

Interanl customers view this involvment as empowerment that can iprove their morale and productivity. pg 146

A

Meetings

232
Q

____ may be conducted following an emergency response to determine th ecustomer’s satisfaction with the service provided. pg 146

A

Survey

233
Q

These types of interviews are oppertunities to determine if changes are needed in the work envirnoment, policies, or other work related issues. pg 146

A

Informal meetings

234
Q

A ____ is a guide to organizational decision making. pg 148

A

Policy

235
Q

Policies are placed and maintained in ____ or ____. pg 148

A

Physical (manuals), electronic forms (organization’s itranet)

236
Q

A ____ details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organiaztional policy for some specific, recurring problem or situation. pg 149

A

Proccedure

237
Q

____ give members of the organiztion a refrence point for decision making. pg 149

A

Written policies

238
Q

____ provide a consistent point of refrence that helps all members of the organiztion perform to a measureable standard. pg 149

A

SOPs

239
Q

____ can be used intervhangably depending upon the organization and are based upon the authority delegated to the company officer. pg 150

A

Orders and directives

240
Q

What are the 4 C’s used when communicating at a emergency incident. pg 150

A

Calmly, clearly, concisely, completely

241
Q

What are the benefits of assigning budget responsibilities to the company officer? pg 151

A

The reduction of delays in performing general maintenance and obtaing disposable items.

242
Q

What are two types of budgets that public organizations use? pg 151

A

Capital budget (projected major purchases) and operating budgets (recurring expenses of day to day operations)

243
Q

Capital budgets are expected to last more than ____? pg 152

A

1 year (usually 3 or more)

244
Q

An organization’s ____ is used to pay for the recurring expenses of day to day operations? pg 152

A

Operating budget

245
Q

A ____ includes projected major purchases - items that cost more than a certaiin specific amount of money. pg 152

A

Capital budget

246
Q

What is the largest single item in the operating budget? pg 152

A

Personnel cost (salaries and benefits)

247
Q

Personnel cost also called personnel services may represent as much as ____ of the operating budget? pg 152

A

90%

248
Q

Considering that noncash (fringe) benefits cost some jurisdictions an amount equal to ____ of a person’s base salary. pg 152

A

50%

249
Q

Tax projections, expected grants and subsidies, expected fees and services, bond sales, funds from other sources are used for what? pg 152

A

Budget for the next fiscal year

250
Q

Estimated revenues from all sources are translated into ____ pg 152

A

Preliminary budget priorities

251
Q

What are the types of spending cost in preparation seesions? pg 152

A

fixed cost, discretionary, and emergecy

252
Q

The organization’s administrator, the chief/manager, of the department /organization, or staffs of both organizations thoroughly review the fire and ems budget request. pg 153

A

Internal review

253
Q

The external review is the ____ that the budget request document recieves. pg 153

A

final review

254
Q

What are the 6 steps of the budget process? pg 153

A

Plan, prepare, implement, monitor, evaluate, revise

255
Q

How many public hearings does the governing body of the jurisdiction schedule so that the citizens can have input on the budget? pg 153

A

one or more

256
Q

A budget may have to be revised during the ____ pg 153

A

Budget cycle

257
Q

What is the systematic control of an organization’s records to ensure quick access to information. pg 154

A

Records management

258
Q

What two categories are maintenance records usually kept? pg 155

A

Preventive and corrective

259
Q

What do fire and ems organizations keep maintenance records on. pg 155

A

stations, other facilites, vehicles, tools, and equipment

260
Q

Who mainitains and analyzes maintenance records? pg 155

A

The logistics chief/manager

261
Q

What is performed to prevent damages, reduce wear, and extend the useful life of an item, vehicle, or facility? pg 155

A

Preventive maintenance

262
Q

Records that are complied during the ____ of apparatus, facilties, or pieces of equipment can provide the information neccessary to predict a trend or justify a replacement so it is usually performed accoding to a predetermeined schedule. pg 155

A

Preventive maintenance

263
Q

What is always possible due to an unforseen event. pg 156

A

Corrective maintenance (repairs)

264
Q

What is used to decide to repair or replace an item? pg 156

A

Maintenance record and life expectency

265
Q

What are the basis for planning and justifying budget request? pg 156

A

Activity records

266
Q

What is used to include training, performance, attendance, hazardous material or biological/medical exposures and medical. Also must be kept current as it may be needed in an emergency or a line of duty death. pg 156

A

Personnel records

267
Q

Personnel records are confidential with the exception of ____. pg 157

A

Attendance records (daily personnel roster) and other like documents

268
Q

What document significant individual exposures to hazardous material such as smoke, chemicals, and biological, radiological, and nuclear material are part of an individual’s medical record. pg 158

A

Hazardous materials or biological/medical exposure records

269
Q

BBecause of the delayed effects of some of these hazards and the compounding effect of others, the organization must retain accurate records for ____ following the end of an individual’s employment. pg 158

A

30 years

270
Q

Medical records are kept on all employees for the durations of their employment ____. pg 158

A

plus 30 years

271
Q

Some organizations have ____ that link all the organization’s computers together to improve communication and share software and files. pg 159

A

Intranets (internal networks)

272
Q

Records that must be kept confidential ( with limited access) include: pg 160

A

Personnel files, individual training records and medical files

273
Q

____ continues to be the leading cause of firefighter fatalities. pg 170

A

Cardiac arrest

274
Q

What are the three sections of risk management? pg 170

A

Risk assessment, Risk management plan, risk management process

275
Q

What are the 5 components of organizational risk management plan? pg 171

A

Risk identification, risk evaluation, establishment of priorities for aciton, risk control techniques, risk management monitoring

276
Q

What are the 5 steps of operational risk management? pg 171

A

Situational awareness, hazard assessment, hazard control, decision point, evaluate

277
Q

“determine if appropiate resources are available, if assignemtn have been made and uderstood, and if tatics are appropiate” is which step of the operational risk managament process? pg 171

A

Decision point

278
Q

What are the leading injuries among fire and ems responders? pg 172

A

Sprains and strains

279
Q

When does the majority of injuries happen? pg 172

A

During fire attack and search and rescue activities

280
Q

What are good sources of information concerning current injury and fatality in the US? pg 172

A

National Institute for Occupatinal Safety and Health (NIOSH), Bureau of Labor (BLS), U.S. Fire Administration (USFA), National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

281
Q

What are good sources of information concerning current injury and fatality in the Canada? pg 172

A

Workplace HEalth and Safety Compensation Commission (WHSCC), Canadain Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS)

282
Q

What is the maximum survival time for a civilian during a structural fire? pg 173

A

10 mins

283
Q

The majority of firefighter line of duty deaths occur within the first ___ after arriving on the scene. pg 173

A

12 mins

284
Q

The combinations of CO and hydrogen cyanide (HCN) commonly found at structural fires is toxic at ____? pg 173

A

135 ppm (parts per million)

285
Q

It takes ____ firefighters approxiametly ____ mins to rescue a lost or downed firefighter. pg 173

A

16 firefighters, 35 mins

286
Q

What is a blueprint to reducing firefighter deaths and injuries? pg 173

A

The 16 Firefighter life saftey initiatives, Produced in Temapa Bay, FL in March 2004

287
Q

Independent newsletter that shares information about close call incidents that resulted in firefighter injuries and deaths. pg 173

A

FirefighterCloseCalls.com

288
Q

Collects data from EMS practitioners in order to develop policies, proceedures, and training programs to improve the safe delivery of EMS. pg 173

A

EVENT (EMS Voluntary Event Notification Tool)

289
Q

International Association of Fire Chiefs’ (IAFC) Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival. pg 175

A

11 rules

290
Q

IAFC’s Incident Commander’s Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Safety. pg 175

A

14 rules

291
Q

NAtional Firefighter Near Miss Reporting System. pg 175

A

Voluntary, confidential non-punitive and secure reporting system with the goal of improving firefighter safety.

292
Q

National Volunuteer Fire Council’s (NVFC) Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Health. pg 175

A

10 rules

293
Q

Standard on fire department occupational health and safety program pg 175

A

NFPA 1500

294
Q

Standard for fire department safety officer pg 175

A

NFPA 1521

295
Q

Standard on emergency services incident management system pg 175

A

NFPA 1561

296
Q

Standard on fire department infection control program. pg 175

A

NFPA 1581

297
Q

Standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments. pg 175

A

NFPA 1582

298
Q

Standard on the rehabilitation process for members during emergency operations and training exercise. pg 175

A

NFPA 1584

299
Q

Standard on selection, care, and maintenance of open circuit self contained breathing appartatus (SCBA). pg 175

A

NFPA 1852

300
Q

Occupational safety and heatth standard (OSHA) 29 CFR 1910.134. pg 175

A

respiratory protection

301
Q

Company officer should address safety issues with their personnel ____. pg 176

A

Each shift

302
Q

What locations can the company officer ensure are safe? pg 176

A

Facilities, stations, and apparatus

303
Q

Emergency scene injuries or fatalities can be prevented or reduced through the application of ____? pg 179

A

Policies and proceedures that regulate emergency scene activities

304
Q

Unsafe acts are ____ pg 179

A

Internal factors

305
Q

Unsafe conditions are ____ pg 179

A

External factors

306
Q

____ is the best way to ensure that responders fo not perform unsafe acts during an incidnet. pg 179

A

Training

307
Q

If an unsafe act occurs during on scene operations, the act should be addressed ____ pg 179

A

Immediately

308
Q

____ is one of the best methods for providing a safe workplace. pg 179

A

Proper maintenance

309
Q

Refers to a station at an incident where personnel can rest, rehydrats, and recover. pg 183

A

Rehabilitation

310
Q

If an organization does not have a rehab procedure, refer to ____. pg 183

A

NFPA 1584

311
Q

An accident Investigation should provide the following: pg 184

A

General information, employee characteristics (particapant), Envirnoment Information, Apparatus/equipment information

312
Q

A ____ of the incident is the ____ of the investigation report. pg 184

A

Narrative description, final portion

313
Q

The narrative of an accident investigation includes: pg 184

A

Observation from the officer, eye witness report, participant interview, law enforcement report, and dispatch information

314
Q

When a unit member experiences an OJI, the first duty of a company officer is to ____. pg 185

A

Ensure prompt medical treatment

315
Q

NFPA 1021, Standard for fire officer professional qualifications, requires that all fire officers I candidates complete instructor I training as defined in ____. pg 193

A

NFPA 1041 standard for fire service instructor professional qualification

316
Q

According to NFPA 1021, standard for providing fire and ems to the public, the organization must ___ pg 194

A

Evaluate the effectiveness of its training program, including the teaching skills of the company officer

317
Q

Documenting company level training may fulfill some requirements of the departments ____. pg 194

A

ISO rating or accreditation

318
Q

What is the 4 steps method of instruction? pg 195

A

Preparation, presentation, application, evaluation

319
Q

Most learning takes place during the ____, making this step critically important. pg 195

A

Application step

320
Q

General overview and critique of the incident by mebers of all responding agencies (including dispatchers) that should take place within two weeks of the actual incident. pg 195

A

Post incident analysis

321
Q

Measures how much students have learned through a written, oral, or practical exam or test. pg 195

A

Evaluation

322
Q

The purpose is to determine whether or not students achieved the lesson objectives or not. pg 195

A

Evaluation

323
Q

Teaching outline or plan for teaching that is a step by step guide for presenting a lesson or presentation. May vary from a few mins to several hours. pg 196

A

Lesson plan

324
Q

The company officer may need to adapt the lesson plan, with ____, to meet the current situation. pg 196

A

Administrative approval

325
Q

What are the 4 methods of training? pg 198

A

Presentations, discussions, demonstrations, evolutions

326
Q

____ is the act of showing how to do something or how something operates and is a basic means for teaching manipulatibe (psychomotor) skills, physical principles, and mechanical functions. pg 198

A

A demonstration

327
Q

____ can be used effectively to show the operation of tools, equipment, apparatus, or materials and show the results of their use. pg 198

A

Demonstrations

328
Q

What are the 2 crtical areas with demonstrations? pg 198

A

Preparing and demonstrating

329
Q

Operation of fire service training or suppression covering one or several aspects of fire fighting. pg 200

A

Practical training evolution

330
Q

Company level ____ reinforce the skills learned during formal sessions and help company personnel to learn to work together. pg 200

A

Practical training evolution

331
Q

Multicompany evolutions should include ____? pg 200

A

all units within the assigned response area

332
Q

Who should monitor practical training evolutions? pg 200

A

Instructors, safety officers, and chief officers

333
Q

____ involve small groups peforming a single task that requires only a few skills. pg 200

A

Simple training evolution

334
Q

Practical training evolutions should also be practiced with ____. pg 202

A

Both minimum and maximim staffing level requirement

335
Q

____ may involve multiple units, agencies, or jurisdictions in scenarios that require high levels of cooperation and coordination. pg 202

A

Complex training evolutions

336
Q

All training evolutions and exercises should include ____. pg 202

A

NIMS-ICS

337
Q

What is the most obvious place to perform evolutions? pg 202

A

The station apparatus room, in a large indoor classroom (dormitory or living room), or on the parking lot/driveway

338
Q

The fire department should have ____ when using private property for training. pg 203

A

Written premission

339
Q

Company officer must not attempt a live burn training without approval from the adminstraion and the traing division accoding to ____. pg 203

A

NFPA 1500, NFPA 1403

340
Q

NFPA 1403 requirements recommend an instructor to student ratio of ____. pg 204

A

1-5

341
Q

The inclusion of people of different races or cultures in a group or organization. pg 211

A

Diversity

342
Q

____ are key component of any fire emergency service organization. pg 211

A

Fire life safety inspections

343
Q

If fire and life safety inspections are conducted properly they can serve two purposes: pg 211

A

Identify and correct fire and life safety hazards, Demonstrate concerns for citizen safety.

344
Q

Who handles complex citizen compliants or concerns? pg 212

A

Public Information Chief (PIO), senior staff, or the fire chief

345
Q

____ is a biological fact and is either male or female. pg 213

A

Sex

346
Q

____ refers to males and females culturally and socially defined roles and responsibilities based on characteristics that are attributed to each group. Self-perception. pg 213

A

Gender

347
Q

Demographics vary regionally and between ____, ____, _____. pg 213

A

Urban, suburban, and rural areas

348
Q

A lack of understanding creates an ____ that seperates people. pg 214

A

Us- them mentality

349
Q

The term citizen concerns often translates into ____. pg 214

A

Citizen compliants

350
Q

One of the first skills comany officers need when dealing with irate citizens is ____. pg 215

A

Effective listening

351
Q

Resolving all concerns, complaints, and inquires, including those involving personnel acts or omissions, is a duty of ____. pg 215

A

All members of the organization

352
Q

If a concern or compliant is voiced during an emergency operation, it should ____ with emergency operations. pg 215

A

Not interfere

353
Q

The company officer’s duty is ____ to satisfy a citizen’s concern. pg 216

A

To use every legal and ethical means

354
Q

It is only when a citizen gets the ____ that the true nature of the inquiry is revealed. pg pg 216

A

Anticipated response

355
Q

What is the purpose of a public relations prgram? pg 217

A

To build relationship with community that is based on trust and commitment

356
Q

All ____ must be factual and truthful, which is both ethical and one that wins the greatest support from the customer base. pg 217

A

Statements made to public

357
Q

What are the 2 purposes for fire and life safety inspections? pg 217

A

Ensuring codes are adheard to within public facilities, providing owner/occupant with education and information

358
Q

Ensuring that codes are adheard to is a ____ intended to reduce the severity of fires. pg 217

A

Proactive loss-control approach

359
Q

What are the 2 ways fire prevention has expanded? pg 217

A

Public education and investigations

360
Q

Officers must know how to perform inspections like: pg 218

A

Conduct exit drills, inspect and test private fire protection and signaling systems.

361
Q

Fire and emergency responders cannot enter privte property without obtaining permission from the owner or occupant unless ____. pg 218

A

An emergency is in progress on the property

362
Q

Under ____ the existence of an emergency constitutes implied permission to enter. pg 218

A

Common law and most satutory law

363
Q

What are the 2 exceptions to implied permission to enter a premise? pg 218

A

Military emergency responders on a military base, members of industrail fire brigades on company property

364
Q

____ are conditions that allow emergency responders and law enforcement officers to enter a structure without a warrant. pg 218

A

Exigent circumstances

365
Q

____ must adopt an ordinance that authorizes the fire chief and designated representative to enter a property to conduct fire and life safety inspections. pg 219

A

The local governing body (city or borogh council, county board of supervisors.

366
Q

NFPA 1

A

Uniform fire code

367
Q

____ should be notified if significant life safety issues are found during inspections. pg 219

A

Local fire prevention officer

368
Q

Communities have shifted much of the responsibility for fire and life safety to the ____. pg 219

A

Owners and occupants of structures.

369
Q

What are the 2 major organizations that develope model building codes? pg 219

A

NFPA, International Code Council (ICC)

370
Q

Construction classifications are based upon ____ and ____. pg 220

A

Materials used in construction and upon hourly fire resistance ratings of structual components

371
Q

____ may not be required to meet the current building code unless significant renovation are performed. pg 220

A

Existing structures

372
Q

____ uses roman numerals to designate the 5 major classifications of building constructions. pg 220

A

NFPA 220

373
Q

Each classification of NFPA 220 are ____. pg 220

A

Divided into subtypes using a 3 digit arabic number code or several letters.

374
Q

____ designates 5 construction types with 2 subcategories (A and B) for each type, except type IV. pg 220

A

International Building Code (IBC)

375
Q

Divided into subtypes that are based on the fire resistance rating of the various structural components. pg 220

A

NFPA 220

376
Q

Amount of fuel present, expressed quanitatively in terms of weight of fuel per unit area. pg 221

A

Fuel load

377
Q

NFPA Type I construction pg 221

A

Fire-resistive construction, made of noncombustibles or limited combustible materials. Primary fuel load is contents.

378
Q

NFPA Type II construction pg 221

A

Noncombusitble/limited combustible, similar to Type I but lower fire resistance. Flat roofs and roofing tar.

379
Q

NFPA Type III construction pg 221

A

Ordinary construction, Exterior walls and strucutral members are noncombustibles/limited combustibels. Interior members are small dimensioned wood

380
Q

NFAP Type IV construction pg 221

A

Heavy timber, Exterior and interior wall and structual members are noncombustibles/limited combustibles. Interior made of solid or laminated wood (8 inches) with no concealed spaces.

381
Q

NFPA Type V construction pg 223

A

Light weight, made of wood and other combustible materials. Wood frame merchantile occupanices, single family and multi family resistences up to about 6 stories high. Similar to Type III but smaller dimensions.

382
Q

What does Type I and Type V mean in IBC construction? pg 223

A

Type I is most fire resistive, Type V is least fire resistive

383
Q

IBC Type I construction pg 223

A

Nonccombustible materials like steel, iron, concrete, and masonary

384
Q

IBC Type IA construction pg 223

A

Requires 3 hours fire resistance frame, 2 hour resistance floors, 1.5 hours fire resistance roofs

385
Q

IBC Type IB construction pg 223

A

Requires 2 hour fire resistance frame, 2 hour resistance floor, 1 hour resistance roof

386
Q

IBC Type II construction pg 223

A

Noncombustible materials but less fire resistance compared to Type I, 1 hour fire resistance walls and floors

387
Q

IBC Type IIA construction pg 223

A

Noncombustible fire resistance materials like steel, concrete, and masonry

388
Q

IBC Type IIB construction pg 223

A

Approved noncombustibles materials, may not have assigned fire resistance ratings

389
Q

IBC Type III construction pg 223

A

Any materials code premited, 2 hour fire resistance walls

390
Q

IBC Type IIIA construction pg 223

A

1 hour fire resistance

391
Q

IBC Type IIIB construction pg 223

A

Less than 1 hour fire resistance

392
Q

IBC Type IV construction pg 223

A

Permitted by code, exterior walls noncombustible, interior constructed with solid or laminated woods (heavy timber) minimum 1 hour fire resistance

393
Q

IBC Type IV construction, exterior walls pg 224

A

Fire retardant treated wood 2 hour fire resistance or less

394
Q

IBC Type IV construction, wooden columns pg 224

A

Minimum of 8 inch

395
Q

IBC Type IV construction, floor framing pg 224

A

Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber at least 6 inches witdth and not less than 10 inches depth

396
Q

IBC Type IV construction, roof framing pg 224

A

Minimum of 6 inches width and 8 inches depth for the first half of its length and then no less than 6 inches for the top half of its length

397
Q

IBC Type IV construction, roofs pg 224

A

must be constructed without concealed spaces

398
Q

Type V construction pg 224

A

wood frame constrcution

399
Q

Type VA constrcution pg 224

A

1 hour fire resistance on all materials except for the non bearing interior walls

400
Q

Type VB construction pg 224

A

May have non fire rated structual elements

401
Q

Escape or evacuation pg 224

A

Egress

402
Q

If a comany officer’s primary duty is managing/supervising an emergency respone unit, ____ is secondary to emergency response duties. pg 224

A

The inspection function is

403
Q

Each of these model codes specifies that ____ is responsible for ensuring that these buildings and facilites are inspected. pg 224

A

The fire chief

404
Q

The fire chief delegates this responsilibilty to ____ who usually delegates the actual inspection to ____. pg 224

A

The fire marshal, fire prevention officer or personnel at the unit level.

405
Q

Most fire codes require each building or facility to be inspected ____. pg 224

A

At least once each year

406
Q

High hazard occupancies may require, places of public assembly ____ pg 224

A

more frequent inspections

407
Q

Some violations such as an obstructed or locked exit door must be ____? pg 226

A

Corrected immediately before the inspector leaves

408
Q

When the violatin shas been reported to the occupant and the required corrective action explained, ____. pg 226

A

A written noticed is issued including the date and time of the follow up or reinspection

409
Q

The inspector may be empowered to force the ____ until the code compliance is achieved. pg 226

A

Business to cease operation or vacate the the occupancy

410
Q

What is the purpose of any fire and life safety inspection? pg 226

A

To leave the occupancy safer than before the inspection and the occupants more knowledgable about protecting themselves and their property from fires.

411
Q

What is the first step in preparing for an inspection? pg 227

A

Gather information

412
Q

One of the best information sources about a particular occupancy is the record of ____ made there. pg 227

A

Previous inspections

413
Q

What is mandatory for all inspetion personnel? pg 228

A

Badges and official identification

414
Q

Before starting the inspection tour, ask the representative to ____. pg 229

A

Review the background data listed in the inspection record to ensure the information is still current

415
Q

Having a ____ with the company officer is very important to the inspection’s success. He can answer questions, open doors, and explain processes. pg 230

A

Representative of the business

416
Q

The officer may choose to start the formal inspection from the ____. pg 230

A

Outside

417
Q

If the occupancy has a sprinkler sustem te insectors may want to check ____? pg 230

A

The post indicator valve (PIV) to ensure its open.

418
Q

Many fire and ems organizations list these ____ on their inspection form so that the inspector only needs to check the appropriate box to indicate a code section violation pg 231

A

Common violations

419
Q

The ____ is the single most important life safety item to be inspected. pg 231

A

Means of egress from the building

420
Q

High stacked storage may require ____. pg 233

A

In rack automatic sprinkler system

421
Q

the majority of model codes relating to buildings and fire safety currently used in North America are base on the ____? pg 233

A

Occupancy type or use of the building on structure

422
Q

____ further classify each individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazards of its contents. pg 234

A

NFPA 5000 and NFPA 1

423
Q

____ is the classification for contents of such low combustibility that a self propagating fire cannot occur in them. Fiberglass insulation or minerals that do not conatin hydrocarbon. pg 234

A

Low hazards

424
Q

____ is the classification for contents that are likely to burn with moderate rapidity or give off a considerable volume of smoke. pg 234

A

Ordinary hazards

425
Q

____ is the classification for contents that are likely to burn with extreme rapidity or from which explosions are likely. pg 234

A

High hazards

426
Q

____ provides a widely recognized method for indicting the presence of hazardous materials at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, and other fixed storage facilities. pg 234

A

NFPA 704

427
Q

A suplplier label must appear on all controlled products ____ in Canada. pg 240

A

Received at workplaces

428
Q

These labels must appear on all controlled products that the employer produced in a work place. pg 240

A

Workplace labels

429
Q

____ establishes a color code system that is recommended for use in the U.S. and Canada. pg 240

A

ANSI Z525.1

430
Q

What does red mean on a hazmat placard. pg 241

A

Danger or stop, flammable liquids, emergency stop bars, stop buttons, fire protection equipment

431
Q

What does orange mean on a hazmat placard? pg 241

A

Warning on hazardous machinary with parts that can crush, cut, or injure a worker.

432
Q

What does yellow mean on a hazmat placard? pg 241

A

Caution, physical hazard like tripping hazards, containers of corrosive or unstable materials

433
Q

What does green mean on a hazmat placard? pg 241

A

Safety equipment, first aid station, safety showers, exit routes

434
Q

What does blue mean on a hazamt placard? pg 241

A

Safety information signage, such as labels or markings indicating the type of required PPE.

435
Q

____ are particularly important in schools and similar occupancies where many people are gathered. pg 242

A

Exit drills

436
Q

At hospitals and nursing homes only the ____ should particapte. pg 242

A

The staff

437
Q

All fire detections and signaling systems must meet the requirements of ____? pg 243

A

NFPA 72, National Fire Alarm Code

438
Q

Local alarm systems pg 243

A

Manually activated, primary: alert occupants, secondary: alert passerbyer

439
Q

Auxillary alarm system pg 243

A

Municipal alarm box ONLY, box located on the street adjacent to building

440
Q

Remote station system pg 243

A

Connected directly to dispatch, leased telephone line, non-coded system: one building, One remote can cover 5 buildings

441
Q

Proprietary system pg 243

A

Used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high rise buildings, colleges, complexes. Seperate systems connect to a common receiving point

442
Q

Central station system pg 244

A

Receiving point is not on premisis and not employeed by property owner. Receiver is a employee of the alarm service company contracted to protect the premisis. Operater notifies fire and EMS. May be located in another state. Required to be listed in the Underwriters Laboratories (UL).

443
Q

Emergency voice/alarm communications systems pg 244

A

Provides detail information occupants and emergency responders on premis. Both one way and two way systems

444
Q

If there is no water system or pressure is too weak to supply fire protections, the owner.occupant may have an ____. pg 244

A

Elevated water tank on the buildings roof or ground near the property.

445
Q

Inspectors do not inspect the systems adequecy, but ____ pg 244

A

only how well it is maintained

446
Q

NFPA 20 pg 244

A

Statndard for installation of stationary fire pumps for fire protection

447
Q

All stationary fire pumps are almost always ____ with a discharge capacity from ____. pg 244

A

Electrically driven centrifigual pumps, 500-4,500 gpm

448
Q

When inspecting stationary fire pumps, you should check the ____ pg 245

A

Owner/occupant ‘s pump maintenance and test records

449
Q

NFPA 20 requires stationary pumps to run for at least ___ per week. pg 245

A

30 mins

450
Q

In ____ systems, the alarm operator must manually retransmit alarms received from the street boxes to the designated fire stations. Pg 245

A

Type A

451
Q

In ____ systems, alarms received from the street boxes are automatically retransmitted to all fire stations within the jurisdiction. Pg 245

A

Type B

452
Q

Standpipe and hose systems are required in single story buildings, in large area buildings, on each floor of structures that are greater than ____ stories, and in industrial facilities. Pg 246

A

Four

453
Q

In regards to standpipes: ____ systems are intended for firefighting personnel who are trained in handling large handlines. Do not have permanently attached hoses. Pg 246

A

Class I

454
Q

In regards to standpipe: ____ systems allow occupants to control fire spread until the fire department or fire brigade arrives. 1 1/2 in fire hose with nozzle. Not intended for emergency responders. Pg 246

A

Class II

455
Q

In regards to standpipe: ____ systems combine the features of both of the other classes. Must allow 2 1/2” and 1 1/2” simultaneously. Pg 246

A

Class III

456
Q

Inspectors and company level personal may have to inspect and test a variety of fire extinguishing systems and equipment, such as,____ Pg 247

A

Automatic sprinkler systems, special agent fixed fire extinguishing systems, and portable fire extinguishers.

457
Q

____ consist of a water source, distribution piping, and one or more individual sprinklers. Pg 247

A

Automatic sprinkler systems

458
Q

____ are used in areas where rapid extinguishment of the fire is required by reignition is unlikely. Pg 249

A

Dry chemical systems

459
Q

Fix dry chemical systems use the same fire, extinguishing agent as ____? Pg 249

A

Portable dry chemical fire extinguishers

460
Q

These agents are non-toxic and nonconducting, but leave a very fine powdery residue that is extremely difficult to clean up. Pg 249

A

Fixed dry chemical systems

461
Q

What are the two main types of dry chemical systems? Pg 249

A
  1. Local application 2. Total flooding
462
Q

____ is the most common type of dry chemical system. Discharged on cooking surfaces and commercial kitchens. Pg 249

A

Local application

463
Q

____ systems are installed in areas, such as paint spray booth, where a heavy cloud of agent is needed to fill the entire space when discharged. May be actuated manually or automatically. Pg 250

A

Total flooding dry chemical

464
Q

____ use an agent that is typically a mixture of water and either potassium carbonate or potassium acetate that is delivered in spray form. Well suited for cooking oil related applications. K-rated. Pg 250

A

Wet chemical systems

465
Q

Like dry chemical systems, ____ systems are designed as either local application our total flooding systems. Pg 250

A

Carbon dioxide systems

466
Q

____ systems must have pre-discharge alarm to warn room occupants of an pending discharge so they can immediately leave the compartment. Pg 250

A

Total flooding CO2

467
Q

Halogenated agent systems contain atoms from one of the halogen series of chemical elements: ____ Pg 250

A

fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

468
Q

Halogenated agents are principally effective on ____. Pg 250

A

Class B and Class C fires

469
Q

____ was originally developed and used because it was considered a clean agent that leaves no residue. Pg 250

A

Halon

470
Q

International restrictions have been placed on the Halon productions because it has been proven to be harmful to____. Pg 251

A

humans and to the earth’s ozone layer.

471
Q

____ provided for a phase out of Halon and banned the manufacture of new Halon agents after____. Pg 251

A

The Montreal protocol of 1987, January 1, 1994.

472
Q

____ is the one most commonly found in portable fire extinguisher. Pg 252

A

Halon 1211

473
Q

____ is used in some portable fire extinguishers, but it is more commonly found in fixed systems applications. Pg 251

A

Halon 1301

474
Q

All Halon systems have the same component parts: ____ pg 251

A

Agent tanks and associated piping, valve actuators, nozzles, detectors, manual releases, and control panels

475
Q

____ systems are equipped with an abort switch to cancel. Pg 251

A

Halon

476
Q

____ defines a clean agent as an electrically nonconducting, volatile, or gaseous fire extinguishing agent that does not leave a residue upon evaporation. Pg 251

A

NFPA 2001, standard on clean agent Fire extinguishing Systems

477
Q

Halon replacement agent examples include. Pg 252

A

Halotron, FM-200, Inergen

478
Q

____ a “clean agent” Hydrochlorofluorocarbon. Pg 252

A

Halotron

479
Q

____ a hydrofluorocarbon considered to be an alternative to Halon 1301. Pg 252

A

FM-200

480
Q

____ a blend of three naturally occurring gases: nitrogen, argon, and carbon dioxide. Pg 252

A

Inergen

481
Q

____ standard for low, medium, and high expansion foam. Pg 253

A

NFPA 11

482
Q

All portable fire extinguishers must be installed and maintained according to ____. Pg 253

A

NFPA 10

483
Q

What three methods do portable fire extinguishers use to expel the extinguishing agent? Pg 254

A

Stored pressure, cartridge operated, pumped operated

484
Q

Requirements for extinguisher distribution are contained in ____. They are ____ Pg 254

A

NFPA 10. Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D and Class K hazards

485
Q

If an extinguisher cabinet is placed in a rated wall, then the cabinet must have the ____ fire rating as the wall assembly. Pg 254

A

Same

486
Q

Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than ___ above the floor. Pg 255

A

5 feet

487
Q

Extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 40 pounds, except the wheel types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than ___ above the floor. Pg 255

A

3 1/2 feet

488
Q

The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than ___. Pg 255

A

4 inches

489
Q

____ is the process of gathering and evaluating information, developing initial action based on that information, and ensuring that the information remains current. Pg 263

A

Preincident planning

490
Q

____ define the type of construction that is used to build structures to be used for specific purposes. Pg 264

A

Building codes

491
Q

____ are commonly found on commercial, industrial, and apartment buildings, and may have a slight slope to facilitate water drainage. Pg 265

A

Flat roofs

492
Q

Permanent building components such as water tanks, air-conditioning equipment, antennas. Pg 265

A

Dead load

493
Q

The structural part of a flat roof consist of ____? Pg 265

A

Wooden, concrete, or metal joists covered with sheathing.

494
Q

In regards to flat roofs, the sheathing is often covered with a layer of ____. Pg 265

A

insulating material that is always covered by finished layer of some weather resistant material.

495
Q

____ have a peak along one edge or in the center and a deck that slopes downward from the peak. Pg 266

A

Pitched roofs

496
Q

Pitched roofs usually have a covering of ____ applied before final weather coverings are laid. Pg 266

A

Roofing paper (felt)

497
Q

Trussless arched roofs (sometimes called ____ ) are composed of ____. Pg 267

A

Lamella roofs, relatively short timbers of uniform length

498
Q

This network forms and arch of mutually braced and stiffened timbers in which the roof exerts a horizontal reaction in addition to the vertical reaction on supporting structural components. Pg 267

A

Trussless arched roofs (lamella roofs)

499
Q

Solar panels are also called ____, and never walk on this. They will not support your weight. Pg 267

A

Photovoltaic

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