Comp Net+ Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Network?

A

A Network is a group of devices that are connected together to communicate and share network resources such as files and peripheral devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are Network Components?

A

Devices, Physical Media, Network adapters, Network Operating systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Devices?

A

Computers, tablets, cell phones, servers, printers, fax machines, switches, and routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Physical Media?

A

Media that connects devices to a network and transmits data between the devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Network Adapters?

A

Hardware that translates data between the network and a device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Network Operating Systems

A

Software that controls network traffic and access to common network resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are Nodes?

A

A node is any device or computer that can connect to a network and generate, process, or transfer data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Endpoints?

A

Endpoints are nodes that function as a source or destination for data transfer..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Redistribution points?

A

Nodes that transfer data, such as a network switch or a router.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Network Segment?

A

A segment is a subdivision of a network that links a number of devices or serves as a connection between two nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Network Backbone?

A

It is a very high speed transmission path that carries the majority of network data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are Network Backbone types?

A

Serial, Distributed/hierarchical, Collapsed, Parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a server?

A

It is a network computer or process that shares resources with and responds to requests from computers, devices, and other servers on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Client?

A

It is a computer or process running on a device that initiates a connection to a server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Host?

A

It is a device that is connected to a network. It can be a client or a server, or even a device such as a printer, router, or switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Peer Device?

A

It is a serf-sufficient computer that acts as both a server and a client to other computers on a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Mainframe?

A

It is a powerful, centralized computer system that performs data storage and processing tasks on behalf of clients and other network devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Terminal?

A

It is a specialized device on a mainframe-based network that transmits user-entered data to a mainframe for processing and displays the results/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an Open Systems Interconnection Model (OSI)?

A

It is a standard means of describing network communication by defining it as a series of layers, each with specific input and output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is encapsulation?

A

The process of adding delivery info to the actual data transmitted on each layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is De-encapsulation?

A

It is removing the added info as data passed to the next highest level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are Data Packets?

A

It is a unit of data transfer between devices that communicate over a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Networking Standards?

A

A set of specifications, guidelines, or characteristics applied to network components to ensure interoperability and consistency between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a LAN?

A

A local area network is a self-contained network that spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a WAN?

A

Wide Area Network is a network that spans a large area, often across multiple geographical locations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Internet?

A

The single largest global WAN, linking virtually every country in the world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an Intranet?

A

Private network that uses internet protocols and services to share a company’s info with it employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an Extranet?

A

Private network that grants controlled access to users outside of the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an Enterprise Network?

A

A network that includes both LAN’s and WAN’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Network Configurations?

A

design specification for how the nodes on a network are constructed to interact and communicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a Centralized Network?

A

A network in which a central mainframe computer controls all network communication and performs data processing and storage on behalf of clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Client/ server Network?

A

Network in which servers provide resources to clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a Peer-to- Peer Network?

A

One in which resource sharing, processing, and communications control are completely decentralized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a Mixed Node Network?

A

One that incorporates elements from more than one of the three standard network configurations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does Topology mean?

A

Determines the network’s overall layout, signaling, and data-flow patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Data Transmission?

A

Exchange of data among different computers or other electronic devices through a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an Analog Signal?

A

Data transmitted as electromagnetic pulses across a network medium. It is also a continuous wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a Digital Signal?

A

many wave possible values, can have combinations of only two values, ones and zeros.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a Broadcast Transmission?

A

Method in which data is sent from a source node to all other nodes on a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a Multicast Transmission?

A

Method in which data is sent from a server to specific nodes that are predefined as members of a multicast group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an Anycast Transmission?

A

Transmission method in which data is sent from a server to the nearest node within a group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Serial Data Transmission?

A

The transmission of bits occurs as one per clock cycle across a single transmission medium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Parallel Data Transmission?

A

Transmission of multiple bits takes place by using multiple transmission lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Baseband Transmission?

A

digital signals are sent via DC pulses over a single, unmultiplexed signal channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Broadband Transmission?

A

single medium to carry multiple channels of data, usually through modulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Multplexing?

A

Controlled media access method in which a central device combines signals from multiple nodes and transmits the combined signal across a medium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Network Media?

A

the conduit through which signals flow, can be either bounded or unbounded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are Copper Media?

A

Type of bounded media that use one or more copper conductors surrounded by an insulated coating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are Twisted Pair Cables?

A

Type of cable in which one or more pairs of copper wires are twisted around each other and clad in a color-coded, protective insulating plastic sheath or jacket to form a pair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are coaxial cables?

A

is a type of copper cable that features a central conducting copper core surrounded by an insulator and braided or foil shielding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are Connectors?

A

Metal devices that are located at the end of a wire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Fiber Optic Cable?

A

Network cable that has a core surrounded by one or more glass or plastic strands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are Media Converters?

A

It enables networks running on different media to interconnect and exchange signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Premise Wiring?

A

Collection of cables, connectors, and other devices that connect LAN and phone equipment within a commercial building.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are Punch Down Blocks?

A

Can be used to connect one group of telephone and network wires with another group in utility or telecommunication closets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a Plenum Cable?

A

Network cable that is jacketed tightly around conductors so that fire cannot travel within the cable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Polyvinyl Chloride?

A

Jacketed cabling is inexpensive and flexible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a Rack System?

A

Standardized frame or enclosure for mounting electronic equipment and devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Electrical Noise?

A

Also known as interference in wireless networks, refers to unwanted signals that are present in the network media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Grounding?

A

The connection of a shield or conductor to an electrical ground point, such as a pipe or wire that is in contact with the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Shielding?

A

The method of placing the grounded conductive material around the media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is contention Based

A

Nodes themselves negotiate for media access time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Controlled media access

A

central device or system controls when and for how long each node can transmit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is Polling

A

a controlled media access method in which a central device contacts each node to check whether it has data to transmit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Demand Priority

A

a polling technique in which nodes signal their state- wither ready to transmit or idle- to an intelligent hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is CSMA/CA

A

a contention based media access method that is primarily used in IEEE 802.11 based wireless LANs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

CSMA/CD

A

a contention based media access method used in Ethernet LANs, where nodes contend for use of the physical medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Refraction

A

occurs when a light ray, passing from one transparent medium to another, bends due to a change in velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a Demarcation point

A

Contains the telecommunication service entrance to the building, campus-wide backbone connections, and the interconnection to the local exchange carrier’s telecommunication facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is Backbone wiring

A

Provides connections between equipment rooms and telecommunication closets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is an Equipment room

A

Main cross-connection point for an entire facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a telecommunications closet

A

Houses the connection equipment for cross-connection to an equipment room along with workstations in area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is Horizontal wiring

A

runs from each workstation outlet to the telecommunication closet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a Drop Cable

A

wire that runs to a PC, printer, or other device connected to a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Patch Panel

A

connection point for drop and patch cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Patch cable

A

cable that is plugged into the patch panel to connect two drop cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cross-connects

A

Individual wires that connect two drop cables to a patch panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Distribution frames

A

devices that terminate cables and enable connections with other devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Wiring Closet

A

small room where patch panels are installed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Wireless Communication?

A

a type of communication in which signals are transmitted over a distance without the use of a physical medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Point-to-Point

A

direct connection between two nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Multipoint

A

involves connections between many nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

broadcast

A

communication method in which data goes from a source node to all other nodes on a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Latency

A

time taken by data sent through wireless connection from a requesting device to the receiving device and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Multiple input multiple output

A

multiplexing to increase wireless network range and bandwidth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Radio Networking

A

form of wireless communications in which signals are sent via RF waves 10KHz to 1GHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Broadcast Radio

A

form of TF networking that is non-directional, uses single frequency for transmission low and high power versions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Spread Spectrum

A

radio transmission in which the signal is sent over more than one frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplex

A

Multiple frequencies simultaneously to send data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum

A

Multiple frequencies simultaneously to send data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Infrared Transmission

A

form of wireless transmission in which signals are sent as pulses of infrared light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Bluetooth

A

wireless tech that facilitates short range wireless communication between devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Microwave Transmission

A

form of point-to-point wireless transmission in which signals are sent via pulses of electromagnetic energy in microwave region of electromagnetic spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Backhaul

A

connection between provider core network and its smaller distribution level subnetworks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Access point

A

device that provides connection between wireless devices and can connect to wired networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Service Set Identifier

A

32 bit alphanumeric string that identifies a WAP and all devices attached to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Wireless Controllers

A

Provide LAN management to multiple access point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Lightweight Access Point Protocol

A

Controls multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Wireless Bridge

A

used to connect two wired networks by a wireless connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Wireless Antenna

A

device that converts high frequency signals on a cable into electromagnetic waves and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Wireless LAN

A

self-contained net of two or more devices connected by using a wireless connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Distributed Coordination Function

A

collision avoidance method that controls access to the physical medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Infrastructure mode

A

one or more WAPs to connect workstations to the cable backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Ad-Hoc-Mode

A

peer-to-peer configuration which each wireless workstation talks directly to other workstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Service Set Identifier broadcasts

A

continuous announcement by w wireless access point that transmits its name, or SSID, so that it is discoverable by wireless devices searching for a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Physical Topologies

A

networks physical wiring layout or shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Logical Topologies

A

path which data moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Physical Bus Topology

A

network topology in which nodes are arranged in a linear format and a T-connector connects each node directly to cable network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Termination

A

application of a resistor or other device to the end of a cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Physical Ring Topology

A

network topology which each node is connected to the two nearest nodes, up and downstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

physical start topology

A

network topology uses a central connectivity device, such as a switch with individual physical connections to each node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Physical Mesh Topology

A

each node is directly connected to every other node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Hybrid Topology

A

exhibits characteristics of more than one standard topology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Logical Bus Topology

A

nodes receive the data transmitted all at the same time, regardless of physical wiring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Logical Ring Topology

A

each node receives data only from its upstream neighbor and retransmits data only to it downstream neighbor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Logical Star Topology

A

follows a physical star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Transceivers

A

device that has both a transmitter and a receiver integrated in it send and receive data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Gigabit Interface Converter

A

transceiver used to convert electrical signals into optical signals and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

ThinNet

A

name given to Ethernet networking that uses RG58/U or RG58A/U cabling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

ThickNet

A

name given to Ethernet networking that uses RG8 Cabling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Ethernet Frames

A

data packet that has been encoded at the Data Link layer (layer 2) for transmission from one node to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Preamble

A

7byte pattern of ones and zeros used to signal start of frame and provide synchronization & timing info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Start-of-Frame

A

1byte identifies beginning of data field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Destination Address

A

6bytes MAC address of computer to which the frame is being transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Source Address

A

MAC address of the computer transmitting data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Frame Type

A

Length of entire Ethernet frame in bytes, or frame type ID of the frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Data

A

Payload of the frame. Minimum of 46 bytes maximum of 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Frame Check Sequence

A

Checks the frame by using a 32-bit cycle redundancy check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

MAC Address

A

also called physical address, is unique, hardware-level address assigned to every networking device by Manufacture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Fast Ethernet

A

tech that can transmit data at speeds of 100Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Gigabit Ethernet

A

Tech that can transmit data at speeds of 1000mbps and primarily uses fibers for transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

switches

A

network device that acts as a common connecting point for various nodes or segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Unmanaged switches

A

devices that perform switching without user intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Managed switch

A

Provides complete control over how the device functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Routers

A

Networking device that connects multiple networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Gateways

A

generic term for any device or software that translates one network protocol to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Firewalls

A

software or hardware device or combination that protects a device or network from unauthorized data blocking unsolicited traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

analog modems

A

device that modulates signals to encode digital info and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Network Controllers

A

support large-scale networks and communication between set-tops and application servers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Repeater

A

device that regenerates a signal to improve signal strength over transmission distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Hub

A

networking device used to connect nodes in physical star topology network into logical bus topology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

passive hub

A

ports wired together physically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Active hub

A

true multiport repeater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Bridge

A

older version of switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Collision Domain

A

network segment in which a collision can happen

146
Q

broadcast Domain

A

network segment on which broadcasts occur

147
Q

multilayer switch

A

performs both routing and switching

148
Q

Spanning Tree Protocol

A

layer 2 protocol used to prevent switching loops

149
Q

Virtual LAN

A

logical grouping of ports on the switch

150
Q

Port Mirroring

A

practice of duplicating all traffic on one port is a switch to a second port, effectively sending a copy of all the data to the node connected to the second port

151
Q

Trunking

A

Process that can be combined to increase bandwidth and reliability

152
Q

VLAN Pooling

A

mechanism whereby WAP’s can choose among several different available VLAN’ to assign to incoming client connections

153
Q

VLAN Trunking Protocol

A

messaging protocol that switches use to update each other’s VLAN databases

154
Q

What is the TCP/IP model

A

four-layer model developed by the United States Department of Defense

155
Q

Connection-Oriented Protocol

A

Data Transmission method in which a connection is established before any data can be sent and where a stream of data is delivered in the same order as it was sent.

156
Q

Connectionless Protocol

A

Data Transmission method that does not establish a connection between devices and where data may be delivered out of order and may be delivered over different paths

157
Q

Transmission Control Protocol

A

guaranteed delivery protocol used to send data packets between devices over a network such as the internet

158
Q

User Datagram Protocol

A

is a connectionless Transport-layer protocol in the IP suite and is a best effort delivery protocol

159
Q

Internet Protocol

A

Protocol responsible for routing individual datagrams and addressing.

160
Q

Internet Control Message Protocol

A

used with IP that attempts to report on the condition of a connection between two nodes

161
Q

Internet Group Management Protocol

A

supports multicasting in a routed environment

162
Q

Address Resolution Protocol

A

Maps an IP address to a physical or media access control address recognized within a local network

163
Q

Protocol Analyzers

A

Diagnostic software that can examine and display data packets that are being transmitted over a network

164
Q

Promiscuous Mode

A

enables device running an analyzer to recognize all packets being sent over the network

165
Q

IP Address

A

Unique binary address assigned to a device so that it can communicate with other devices on a TCP/IP network

166
Q

Subnet Masks

A

number assigned to each host for dividing the IP address into network and node portions

167
Q

Subnetting

A

process of logically dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or subnets, with each subnet having a unique address

168
Q

Private IP Address

A

addresses that organizations use for nodes within enterprise networks requiring IP connectivity and not external connections to the Internet

169
Q

Default Gateway

A

is the IP address of a router that routes remote traffic from the device’s local subnet to remote subnets

170
Q

Custom Subnet

A

collection of leased IP addresses that are divided into smaller groups to serve a network’s needs

171
Q

Custom Subnet Mask

A

divide single IP address block into multiple subnetsq

172
Q

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

A

addressing method that considers a custom subnet mask as a 32 bit binary word

173
Q

Protocol binding

A

assigning a protocol to a NIC

174
Q

Connection

A

virtual link between two nodes established for the duration of a communication session

175
Q

Flow Control

A

technique for optimizing data exchange between systems

176
Q

Buffering

A

flow control technique in which data received is stored on a temporary high-speed memory location, called a buffer, until the main system components are ready to work with the data

177
Q

Flooding

A

Info arriving to quickly

178
Q

Data Windows

A

flow control technique in which multiple packets are sent as a unit called a block or a window

179
Q

Fixed window

A

every block contains the same number of packets

180
Q

Sliding window

A

variable block sizes

181
Q

Error Detection

A

process of determining if transmitted data has been received correctly and completely

182
Q

Parity Check

A

process used to detect errors in memory of data communication

183
Q

Cyclic redundancy check

A

an error detection method in which a predefined mathematical operation is used to calculate a CRC code

184
Q

Routing

A

process of selecting the best route for transferring a packet from a source to its destination on a network

185
Q

Hop

A

action of forwarding a packet from router to the next

186
Q

Route

A

path used by data packets to reach the specified destination, using the gateway as the next hop

187
Q

Static routing

A

table mappings that the network administrator establishes manually in the router prior to routing

188
Q

Routing Tables

A

database created manually or by a route-discovery protocol that contains network addresses as perceived by a specific router

189
Q

Autonomous System

A

self-contained network or group of networks governed by a single administration

190
Q

Interior Gateway protocol

A

protocol responsible for exchanging routing info between gateways in AS

191
Q

Distance Vector Routing

A

used on packet-switched networks to automatically calculate route costs and routing table entries

192
Q

Link State Routing

A

flood routing info to all router within a network

193
Q

Hybrid routing

A

one the uses the best of both distance-vector and link-state routing methods

194
Q

Path-Vector Routing

A

used in inter-domain routing, and a route keeps track of the route from itself to the destination

195
Q

Route Convergence

A

is the period of time between a network change and the router updates to reach a steady state once again

196
Q

Routing Loop

A

process in which two routers discover different routes to the same location that include each other, but have incorrect info and thereby never reach the endpoint

197
Q

Count-to-infinity

A

occur when a router or network goes down and one of the other routers does not realize that it can no longer reach the route

198
Q

What is a Reservation

A

lease assignments in DHCP that enable you to configure a permanent IP address for a particular client on the subnet

199
Q

What is BOOTP

A

Predecessor of DHCP

200
Q

What is a Relay Agent

A

service that captures a DHCP broadcast and forwards it through router as a unicast to DHCP on another subnet

201
Q

What is Automatic Private IP Addressing

A

service that enables DHCP client device to configure itself automatically if no DHCP is available

202
Q

What is a Ping command

A

used to verify network connectivity of a device and active

203
Q

What are Ports

A

number that represents a process running on a network

204
Q

What is a Socket

A

an identifier for an application process on TCP/IP

205
Q

What are Host Names

A

unique name given to a node

206
Q

What are Domains

A

grouping of devices on the internet or network based on nature of operations

207
Q

What is a Domain Name

A

unique name that identifies entity on internet

208
Q

What is a Fully Qualified Domain Name

A

A host name combined with host’s domain name

209
Q

What is a Domain Name System

A

name resolution service that translates Fully Qualified Domain Name into IP addresses

210
Q

What is an Authoritative Name Server

A

DNS server possesses an actual copy of records for a zone as opposed to caching lookup

211
Q

What is Start of Authority

A

fist DNS server to create the zone

212
Q

What are DNS Components

A

database divided logically into hierarchical grouping of domains. divided physically into files called zones

213
Q

What is a Recursive Query

A

when client requests preferred DNS server find data on other DNS servers

214
Q

What is Iterative Query

A

occurs when client requests info a server already has in its cache

215
Q

What are HOSTS file

A

plaintext file configured on client device containing list of IP addresses and associated host names

216
Q

What is a Tracert Command

A

determines the route data takes to get to particular destination

217
Q

What is Pathping command

A

provides info about latency and packet loss on network

218
Q

What is a TCP/IP stack

A

collection of protocols that work together to provide communications on IP-based networks

219
Q

What is Daemon

A

Background process that performs specific operation

220
Q

What is File Transfer Protocol

A

enables transfer of files between user’s workstation and remote host

221
Q

What is Network Time Protocol

A

synchronized clock times of devices in a network by exchanging time signals

222
Q

What is Simple Network Management Protocol

A

enables admins to monitor/manage network devices/traffic

223
Q

What is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

A

communications protocol for formatting sending email messages client to server

224
Q

What is POP3

A

used to retrieve email messages from mailbox on a mail server

225
Q

What is Internet Message Access Protocol version 4

A

retrieving messages from mail server

226
Q

What is Hypertext Protocol

A

works on application layer of OSI model and Application layer of TCP/IP model to provide web services

227
Q

What is Hypertext Protocol Secure

A

provides secure connection between web browser and server Encrypted data

228
Q

What is Telecommunication Network

A

emulation protocol enables users at one site to simulate session on a remote host as if terminal were directly attached

229
Q

What is Secure Shell

A

program enables user or app to log on to another device over network, execute commands, manage files

230
Q

What is Server Message Black

A

protocol works on Application layer of OSI helps share resources files, printers, serial ports among devices

231
Q

What is Remote Desktop Protocol

A

connecting managing devices that are not necessarily located at same place as admin

232
Q

What is a Modem

A

enables digital data to be sent over analog medium

233
Q

What is a DSL Modem

A

Hardware that connects subscribers to phone line

234
Q

What is a Cable Modem

A

Hardware that connects subscriber to ISP cable system

235
Q

What is Dial-up Modem

A

Communication device that convert’s computer digital signal to analog

236
Q

What is a Channel Service/ Data service unit

A

combo of two WAN devices working together to connect digital WAN line to customer’s LAN

237
Q

What is Integrated Services for Digital Network

A

Adapter similar to modem joining Basic Rate Interface connections to different physical interfaces on router

238
Q

What is Circuit switching

A

one endpoint creates single path connection to another

239
Q

What is a Packet Switching Network

A

Data transmitted is broken into small units/packets move in sequence through network

240
Q

What is Virtual Circuit Switching

A

Technique to transfer packets on logical circuits , do not have physical resources

241
Q

What is a permanent Virtual Circuit

A

usually associated with lease lines

242
Q

What is a switched Virtual circuit

A

associated with dial-up connections

243
Q

What are Cell Switching Network

A

Similar to packet switching except data transmitted as fixed-length cells

244
Q

What is a Point-to-point Connection

A

simple WAN topology provides a direct connection between two nodes.

245
Q

What is Point-to-multipoint

A

physical star, central site is hub, multiple branch are spokes

246
Q

What is Digital Subscriber Lin (DSL)

A

public network access broadband internet connection digital signal over existing phone lines

247
Q

What is Cable Internet Access

A

cable television connection cable modem provide high speed internet access

248
Q

What are Dial up Connections

A

modem existing phone line, long distance service low cost access

249
Q

What is a Dedicated Line

A

telecommunication path 24 hours a day for designated user.

250
Q

What is Satellite Media

A

Provide long-range global WAN Transmissions

251
Q

Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

A

cell-switching network tech supports high speed transfer

252
Q

What is Frame Relay

A

WAN rule, packet switching tech allows transmission of data over shared network

253
Q

What is Multiprotocol Label Switching (MLS)

A

used in high performance packet data networks

254
Q

What are T-Carrier Systems

A

digital packet switched system designed to carry multiplexed telephone connections

255
Q

What is a Plesiochronous digital hierarchy (PDH)

A

carry data over fiber optic or microware radio systems

256
Q

What is a Synchronous Optical Network (SDH)

A

standard data transport over fiber optic cable

257
Q

What is Dense Wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)

A

uses light wavelengths to transmit data

258
Q

What is Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM)

A

combining multiple signals on laser beams at various wavelengths for transmission on fiber optic cables

259
Q

What is an Optical Carrier System (OCx)

A

specifies bandwidth for fiber optic transmission

260
Q

What is Passive Optical Network

A

Point-to multipoint used for broadcast transmissions using optical systems

261
Q

What is Long-Term Evolution (LTE)

A

radio tech for wireless broadband access

262
Q

What is a Passive Optical Network (PON)

A

brings optical fiber and signals all or most of way to user

263
Q

What is Wireless Interoperabiltiy for Microwave Access (WiMAX)

A

packet based wireless telecommunication tech provides wireless broadband over long distances

264
Q

What are Unified Communication Tech (UC)

A

Group of integrated real time communication services and Non real consistent user experience multiple devices

265
Q

What is Virtualization

A

tech through which one or more simulated computing devices run within a physical computer

266
Q

What are Virtual Servers

A

VMs running network operating system or server software

267
Q

What is Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC)

A

virtualizes physical NIC used by VM

268
Q

What is a Virtual Switch

A

Software application enable communication between VM’s

269
Q

What are Virtual Routers

A

Software routing framework enabling host to act as hardware router over LAN

270
Q

What are Virtual firewalls

A

firewall service or appliance running entirely within virtualized environment

271
Q

What is a Storage Area Network

A

high speed data transfer network that provides access to consolidated black level storage

272
Q

What is Network Attached Storage

A

Computing device appliance providing file based data storage

273
Q

What is Confidentiality

A

principle of keeping info and communications private and protected

274
Q

What is Integrity

A

keeping info accurate, free of errors, without unauthorized modifications

275
Q

What is Availability

A

principle of ensuring system operates continuously and accessable

276
Q

What is Non-Repudiation

A

data remains associated with party that creates it

277
Q

What is Least Privilege

A

users and software can access only what is necessary to perform job

278
Q

What is Risk

A

concept that indicates exposure to the chance of damage or loss

279
Q

What is a Data Breach

A

Security incident sensitive, protected or confidential data is copied, stolen without authorization

280
Q

What is Unauthorized Access

A

type of Network or data access not explicitly approved

281
Q

What is a Hacker

A

individual who have skills to gain access to computing devices through unauthorized means

282
Q

What is a White Hat

A

Hacker who discovers exposes security flaws for manufacturers to fix

283
Q

What is a Black Hat

A

Hacker who exposes for gain

284
Q

What are Security Controls

A

safeguards/ countermeasures avoid, counteract or minimized risk

285
Q

What are Security Policies

A

formalized statement that defines how security will be implemented

286
Q

What is Windows Security Policies

A

configuration within Windows OS that control overall security behavior

287
Q

What is a Group Policy

A

Centralized account management feature available for active directory

288
Q

What are Permissions

A

security setting that determines level of access

289
Q

What is Segmentation

A

Placing devices in their own segment of the network

290
Q

What is Wireless Security

A

any method of securing your WLAN to prevent unauthorized access

291
Q

What is a Site Survey

A

analysis technique that determines coverage area of wireless network and Identifies interference

292
Q

What is a Disaster

A

Catastrophic loss of due to that cannot reasonably be prevented

293
Q

What is Disaster Recovery

A

admin function protecting people/ resources while restoring network

294
Q

What is a Natural Disaster

A

Fire, storm, flood

295
Q

What is Data Destruction

A

Data loss due to causes other than natural

296
Q

What is Hardware Failure

A

failure of network hardware

297
Q

What is Business Continuity

A

set of planning / preparatory activities used during serious incident/ disaster to ensure organization critical business functions will continue

298
Q

What is Single Point of Failure

A

part of a system that if fails will stop entire network from working

299
Q

What are Vulnerabilities

A

condition that leaves device open to attack

300
Q

What is Unnecessary Running services

A

services running on device that are not necessary for intended purpose

301
Q

What is an Open Port

A

A port number configures to accept packets

302
Q

What is an Unpatched System

A

current OS supported by manufacturer but does not have latest security updates

303
Q

What are Unencrypted Channels

A

Connections in which data being sent is not encrypted

304
Q

What are Cleartext Credentials

A

user passwords that are transmitted or stored unencrypted

305
Q

What are Unsecure Protocols

A

ones that expose data and/or credentials in cleartext

306
Q

What is Radio Frequency Emanation

A

electronic equipment emit unintentional radio signals and someone can eavesdrop

307
Q

What are Threats

A

any event or action that could potentially result in violation of security requirement

308
Q

What is Data Theft

A

attack which attacker uses unauthorized access to obtain protected network info

309
Q

What are Social Engineering Attacks

A

attack that uses deception trickery to convince users to provide data

310
Q

What are Insider Threats

A

malicious employee who compromises network or uses access to gain info

311
Q

What is Malware

A

Code designed to gain access

312
Q

What is a Malware Attack

A

Software in which attacker inserts type of undesired software on target

313
Q

What is a software Attack

A

attack against software resources

314
Q

What is Grayware

A

Spyware that might possibly not be malicious in nature

315
Q

What is a Compromised System

A

device that has been infected by malware

316
Q

What are Buffer Overflows

A

attack that targets vulnerability to cause a crash or reboot

317
Q

What are Password Attacks

A

any type of attack which attacker attempts to obtain and use passwords illegitimately

318
Q

What is a Network Sniffer

A

device placed on network to capture data as it passes

319
Q

What is IP Spoofing

A

type of software attack, attacker creates IP packets with forged IP address

320
Q

What is a Denial of Service Attack (DoS)

A

Type of network attack , attacker attempts to disrupt or disable service

321
Q

What is Authentication

A

method of uniquely validating particular entity or individual credentials

322
Q

What is a Single Sign-On

A

single user authentication provides access to all devices

323
Q

What is Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

A

enable hardware-based identifiers

324
Q

What is Kerberos

A

authentication service based on time-sensitive tickets

325
Q

What is hashing encryption

A

one-way encryption cleartext into ciphertext

326
Q

What are Digital Certificates

A

electronic docs associates creds to public key

327
Q

What is Encrypting File System

A

file-encryption tool

328
Q

What is a Public Key Infrastructure

A

encryption system compose of Certificate Authority (CA) certificates, software.

329
Q

What is a Secure Socket Layer

A

security protocol combines digital certs for authentication

330
Q

What does Transport Layer Security (TLS) do

A

Prevents eavesdropping

331
Q

What is Wired Equivalent Privacy

A

provides 64, 128,256 bit encryption

332
Q

What does Network Access Control (NAC) do

A

collect protocol, policies, hardware that govern network comms

333
Q

What is a Persistent Agent

A

software installed on device to respond continuous queries from NAC about device health

334
Q

What is a Non-Persistent Agent

A

Dissolvable agent installed on demand and then removed

335
Q

What is a Quarantine Network

A

restricted network provides users with routed access to certain hosts

336
Q

What is a Proxy Server

A

isolates clients from servers by downloading files on behalf of them

337
Q

What is a Reverse Proxy

A

Server that retrieves resources on behalf of client

338
Q

What is a Network Address Translation (NAT)

A

Conceals internal addressing from external networks

339
Q

What does Port Address translation (PAT) do

A

maps one or more unregistered addresses to single registered address using multiple ports

340
Q

What is Port Forwarding

A

enables permanent translation entry that maps a port on gateway to IP address

341
Q

What is Port Filtering

A

Technique enabling or disabling TCP/ UDP Computers

342
Q

What is Traffic Filtering

A

allows only legit traffic through to network

343
Q

What is Stateful Inspection

A

examines data/ packet and connection between internal and external devices

344
Q

What is Stateless Firewall

A

compares each individual packet to a rule to see if they match

345
Q

What is a Stateful Firewall

A

monitors entire conversation start to finish

346
Q

What does a Unified Threat Management (UTM) do

A

manages multiple security apps through single console

347
Q

What is a Penetration Test

A

attack authorized by owner to find security weakness

348
Q

What is Remote Networking

A

enable users not at physical location to access network

349
Q

What does Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) do

A

provides standardized, centralized authentication for remote users

350
Q

What is Network Management

A

manages functions like operation, admin, maintenance

351
Q

What is Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

A

used to collect info from network devices for diagnostics

352
Q

What is a Throughput Tester

A

software tools to measure network throughput

353
Q

What are Connectivity tools

A

Trouble shooting tools

354
Q

What is a Performance Monitor

A

software that monitors state of services

355
Q

What is a Network Analyzer

A

software or hardware that analyzes data packets

356
Q

What Is Fault Tolerance

A

redundancy

357
Q

What is Configuration Management

A

process setting up and changing configuration of network

358
Q

What is IT Asset Management

A

policy to include info about financial/ contractual specs of hardware/ software

359
Q

What is Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP)

A

number of devices to group together to use single virtual network interface

360
Q

What doe System and Network Integrated Polling Software (SNIPS) do

A

monitors software tool that funs on UNIX