COMP 1 A Flashcards
Which of the following clients scenarios would warrant IMMEDIATE follow up ?
A. a client who just received a promotion.
B. a client who has just retired, diagnosed with terminal cancer and depression and is the caregiver for his parents.
C. A client who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
D. A client that attends support groups following a stroke.
B. a client who has just retired, diagnosed with terminal cancer and is the caregiver for his parents.
SLIDE 1 SUCIDE IN THE ELDERLY RISK FACTORS
- Loss of spouse or close loved one
- Retirement
- Moving to an assisted living facility/losing independece
- Stress(possible caretaker stress)
- Depression
- White elderly males are 4x more likely to commit suicide
You are the nurse on a elderly mental health facility. Which of the following patient statements would require further intervention?
A. “I am going to give all of my things away”.
B. “I should avoid abusing alchohol or drugs when I am stressed.”
C. “I know my family will miss me and I will miss them when I am gone”.
D. “Although I am, old I still enjoy playing tennis.”
A. “I am going to give all of my things away”.
SLIDE 2 SUICIDE IN THE ELDERLY: WARNING SIGNS
1. Depressed mood (frequently crying more than usual
2. Making statements like, Just forget about me, I am no use anymore , You will be better off when i’m gone
3. Abusing prescription drugs or alcohol
4. No longer interested in things gthey once enjoyed
5.Giving away possessions
You are a nurse conducting a family intervention. Which of the following actions can the clients family can due to prevent suicide for elderly family members?
A. Leave the patient isolated
B. Taking the client out to do things they enjoy
C. Discouraging the client to establish new friendships and support groups
D. Encourage the client use utilize their lethal weapons daily.
B. Taking the client out to do things they enjoy
SLIDE 3 SUICIDE IN THE ELDERLY PREVENTION
- Spend quality time with your elderly loved one
- If concerned about an elderly relative speak to their physician immediately
- Take them out to do things they enjoy
- Encourahe them to join a community/support group
- Limit access to lethal weapons
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with cancer. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. high fat, low protein foods, low carbs
B. fresh fruits, large meals and hot foods
C. High protein, high carbs, no fresh fruits , small meals
D. High proteinm low carbs, large meals, eat most calories at first
C. High protein, high carbs, no fresh fruits , small meals
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : CHEMO PATIENT
High protein, high carbs, no fresh fruits , small meals, eat most calories at first
GRILLED CHICKEN BROCCOLI, OR SALMON
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with Gastroesphogeal Regurgitation Disease(GERD). Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. Low fat, high protein foods, no caffiene,no carbonation, no spicy, sit up 1 hour after eating
B. fresh fruits, large meals and hot foods
C. High protein, high carbs, spicy foods , small meals
D. High proteinm low carbs, large meals, lay down 30 minutes after eating
A. Low fat, high protein foods, no caffiene,no carbonation, sit up 1 hour after eating
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : GERD PATIENT
Low fat, high protein foods, no caffiene,no carbonation, sit up 1 hour after eating, no chocolate , no citrus foods, small prequent meals, HOB ELEVATED WEDGE PILLOW
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. increase alcohol intake, caffiene intake, high fats
B. I should eat 3-4 hours before bed
C. no alcohol, no fatty foods, no acidic foods , no caffiene
D. I should eat in 30 minutes if my deudenal ulcer is bleeding
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : PUD PATIENT
- ACOID ALCHOLOL
- AVOID CAFFIENE
- NO FATTY FOODS
- DONT EAT 3-4 HOURS BEFORE BED
5. NPO IF BLEEDING - AVOID ACIDIC FOODS
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with Ulcerative Collitis. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. high fat, low protein foods, low carbs
B. fresh fruits, large meals and hot foods
C. decrease fluid intake , high carbs, no fresh fruits , small meals
D. High protein, low residue , high calories , increase fluid intake.
D. High protein, low residue , high calories , increase fluid intake.
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : ULCERATIVE COLLITIS PATIENT
- High protein,
- low residue ,
- high calories ,
- increase fluid intake.
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with Diverticulitus. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. low fiber, clear liquids, antibiotics anticipated
B. fresh fruits, large meals and hot foods
C. high fiber, caffeine, no fresh fruits , small meals
D. High protein low carbs, large meals, eat most calories at first
A. low fiber, clear liquids, antibiotics anticipated
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : DIVERTICULITIS PATIENT
A. low fiber, clear liquids, antibiotics anticipated
- low fiber,
- clear liquids,
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with diverticulosis. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. high fiber, low protein foods, increase fluids, avoid nuts , seeds and kernels
B. fresh fruits, large meals and sunflower seeds
C. High protein, high carbs, no fresh fruits , small meals
D. High protein low carbs, large meals, eat most calories at first
A. high fiber, low protein foods, increase fluids, avoid nuts , seeds and kernels
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : DIVERTICULOSIS PATIENT
- high fiber,
- low protein foods,
- increase fluids,
- avoid nuts , seeds and kernels
You are nurse conducting a dietary survery for a client with Chrons disease. Which diet would warrant that the client understands?
A. high fat, low protein foods, low carbs
B. fresh fruits, large meals and hot foods
C. High protein, high calorie, low fiber, avoid: dairy. ceffeien , raw fruits and veggies, and grains
D. High protein low carbs, large meals, eat most calories at first
High protein, high calorie, low fiber, avoid: dairy. ceffeien , raw fruits and veggies, and grains
SLIDE 4 - SPECIALIZED DIET : CHROHNS PATIENT
- High protein,
- high calorie,
- low fiber,
- avoid: dairy, caffeine, raw fruits and veggies, and grains
You are the nurse traing a new grad who is conducting care for a client with Bucks traction. Which action made by the new grad nurse will require immediate follow up?
A. The new grad nurse inspects the skin at least once per 8 hours
B. The new grad nurse states that she will not release the weights unless specifically ordered by the physciam
C. The new grad nurse states that the weights must hang freely.
D. The foot of the bed is kept elevated.
E. The new grad nurse states that she shoukd provide pin site care
E. The new grad nurse states that she shoukd provide pin site care
SLIDE 5 - BUCKS TRACTION
- Often used to restore normal bone alignment and length. Reduces pressure on nerves, and reduces the risk of developing skeletal abnormalities.
- Inspect the skin at least once Q8H
- Never release the weights of traction unless specifically ordered by the physician.
- The weights must hang freely.
Foot of the bed is kept elevated.
- Care involves considerations of immobility (stool softener, DVT prophylaxis, respiratory and skin considerations, etc)
You are on a nephrology unit conducting care for a client with Glomerulonephrirtis. Which of the follwing is an expected finding? Select all that Apply
A. Polyuria
B. Oliguria
C. Generalized edema
D. Weight loss
E. Hematuria
F. Dyspnea
G. Orthopnea
H. Hypotension
I. Proteinuria
J. Hypernatremia
K. Headache
B. Oliguria
C. Generalized edema
E. Hematuria
F. Dyspnea
G. Orthopnea
I. Proteinuria
K. Headache
J. Hypernatremia
SLIDE 6 - Glomerulonephritis
Definition - Inflammation of the glomeruli of the nephron typically followed by a streptococcal infection.
- Characteristics - decreased urination (oliguria),
- generalized edema,
- dusky/coffee-colored urine (hematuria),
- dyspnea and
- orthopnea,
- hypertension,
- Headache,
- LOW GFR BELOW 90
- HIGH BUN ABOVE 20,
- HIGH specific gravity ABOVE 1.030.
You are on a nephrology unit conducting care for a client with Glomerulonephrirtis. Which of the following diets should the patient be on?
A. Low sodium , low protein, high carbs, decrease fluid intake
B. High sodium, low residue
C. high protein , no caffeine, no spicy
D. do not rest 30 minutes after eating
A. Low sodium , low protein, high carbs, decrease fluid intake
SLIDE 6 - Glomerulonephritis
* * Diet and restrictions - Low sodium, low protein lots of carbohydrates. Fluid restriction, monitor intake and output.
* Interventions - Fix the cause (strep), daily weight, input and output. Monitor blood pressure.
* Medications - antibiotics (for primary infection), antihypertensives, diuretics.
You are on a nephrology unit conducting care for a client with Glomerulonephrirtis. What nursing intervention is expected?
A. Monitor blood pressure and daily weights
B. Increase intravenous fluids
C. Request a high sodium diet
D. Administer prescribed Desmopressin
A. Monitor blood pressure and daily weights
SLIDE 6 - Glomerulonephritis
* Interventions - Fix the cause (strep), daily weight, input and output. Monitor blood pressure.
* Medications - antibiotics (for primary infection), antihypertensives, diuretics.
You are on a nephrology unit conducting care for a client with Glomerulonephrirtis. Which of the follwing medications would you anticipate to be prescribed?
A. Acyclovir
B. Streptomycin
C. Epinephrine
D. Naloxone
SLIDE 6 - Glomerulonephritis
B. Streptomycin
* Medications - antibiotics (for primary infection), antihypertensives, diuretics.
What type of precaution should a client with Disessimated herpes zoster be placed?
A. Airborne
B. Contact
C. Droplet
D. Standard
A. Airborne
Herpes Zoster, aka shingles, the same virus that causes varicella (chickenpox). Primary infection with VZV causes varicella. Once the illness resolves, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia
SLIDE 7 HERPES ZOSTER
Disseminated Herpes zoster requires airborne precautions until lesions have crusted over.
rA nurse is a assessing a clientws skin who has suspected herpes zoster. What finding would indicate the client has herpes zoster?
A. curved redenned linear ridges
B. Painful itchy blisters
C. dry inflammed scales on skin
D. irregular brown border
B. Painful itchy blisters
Herpes Zoster, aka shingles, the same virus that causes varicella (chickenpox). Primary infection with VZV causes varicella. Once the illness resolves, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia
SLIDE 7 HERPES ZOSTER
B. Painful itchy blisters
What medication would you anticipate for the provider to prescribe for a client with Herpes Zoster?
A. Valcyclovir
B. Furosemide
C. Bactroban
D. Metoprorlol
A. Valcyclovir
Herpes Zoster, aka shingles, the same virus that causes varicella (chickenpox). Primary infection with VZV causes varicella. Once the illness resolves, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia
SLIDE 7 HERPES ZOSTER
Treated with Valcyclovir (Valtrex).
What is Desmopressin used for? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Increases urination
B.prevents bedwetting
C.increases factor 8 for hemophilia
D.decreases blood pressure
E. Increases capillary refill
F. Increases availble fluid volume
B.prevents bedwetting
C.increases factor 8 for hemophilia
E. Increases capillary refill
F. Increases availble fluid volume
SLIDE 8- DESMOPRESSIN
Uses:
1. DI, decreases urination
2. Enuresis- prevent bed wetting
3. Hemophilia- increases factor 8
Therapeutic affect
- increase blodd pressure
- decreases urination
What are the s/s for fractures?
A. absent of pain
B. swelling
C. tenderness
D. Nausea
E. Decreased range of motion
F. Bruising
G. Discoloration
H. Deformitity or bump that’s not usually on your body
B. swelling
C. tenderness
E. Decreased range of motion
F. Bruising
G. Discoloration
H. Deformitity or bumo that’s not usually on your body
SLIDE 9 FRACTURES
1. Pain
2. Swelling
3. Tenderness
4. Decrease rom
5. brusiing
6. discoloration
7. deformity
Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome
A. deep burning ache
B. Stridor
C. Fever
D. Nasusua
A. deep burning ache
SLIDE 9 FRACTURES
- Burning pain/deep ache
- Swelling/bulging muscle
- Numbeness
- Weakness
5. Extreme pain with movement
A nurse is comnducting a research project about skeletal traction. Which of the following statements are true about skeletal traction?
A. skeletal traction is more powerful and has greater fragment control than skin traction.
B. you should not initiate pinsite care.
C. Skeletal traction is permanent
D. bucks traction is a type of skeletal traction
A. skeletal traction is more powerful and has greater fragment control than skin traction.
SLIDE 9 FRACTURES and TRACTION
1. Bucks traction: realign broken bones, correct contractures, and for knee immobilization
2. Bucks extension applied to the distal end of a fractured lower limp
- Skeletal traction: skeletal traction is more powerful and has greater fragment control than skin traction.
- It permits pull up to 15% to 20% of body weight for the lower extremity
- Skeletal traction is temporary
What are the 5 P’s a nurse mst assess for for a patient with fractures
SLIDE 9 FRACTURES and TRACTION
- Pain
- Pallor
- Pulse
- Paresthesia
- Paralysis
Your client has been admited to the emrgency department with a closed tibial fracture. What is teh nurses next action? Select all that apply
A. Lower the afftefcted limb
B. Elevate the affected limb 2-3 hours a day
C. ICE the fracture for 24- 48 hours 10-20 min per day
D.Increase range of motion in the affected limb
E. Immobilze the affected limb with a cast or sling
F. Administer pain medication
SLIDE 9 FRACTURES and TRACTION
- B. Elevate the affected limb 2-3 hours a day
- C. ICE the fracture for 24- 48 hours 10-20 min per day
- E. Immobilze the affected limb with a cast or sling
- F. Administer pain medication
RICE
Your client has overdosed on diazepam is admitted to the emergency room. What statement is true regarding power of attorney?
A. the power of attorney is able to make choices for the patient if they are not alert and oriented
B. The power of attorney can make choices for the client if they are alert and oriented
C. The power of attorney should not be informed of all the options of treatment
D. The client cannot pass on authority over health decisions to the power of attorney if they are not alert and oriented.
A. the power of attorney is able to make choices for the patient if they are not alert and oriented
SLIDE 10:PATIENT RIGHTS AROUND TX
treatment choice
Treatment Choice
* Give all options around treatment
* Pt is of sound mind to make a choice.
* If pt is not of sound mind pt’s
POA can make the choice.
treatment refusal
Treatment Refusal
* All options are given
* Pt is of sound mind and able to make a decision
* Pt has the right to refuse treatment provided even after they have signed the consent form.
What is the antidote for magnesium?
What is the normal range?
SLIDE 11- MAGNESIUM
Calcium gluconate
Magnesium normal range- 1.5-2.5
Which of the following conditions is magnesium used to treat?
A. Narcotic overdose
B. Eclampsia
C. Diarrhea
D. Hypermagnesium
SLIDE 11- MAGNESIUM
B. Eclampsia
used to treat
1. mg electrolyte abnormalities
2. eclampsia
3. constipation
EKG CHANGES DURING HYPERMAGNESIUM
SLIDE 11- MAGNESIUM
-PROLONGED PR INTERVAL
-INCREASED QT INTERVAL
-INCREASE IN QRS DURATION
-HEART BLOCK
EKG CHANGES DURING HYPOMAGNESIUM
SLIDE 11- MAGNESIUM
P-R widening of the interval prolongation
an increase interval,
widening of the QRS in the Q-T interval or an increase in
complex, and
peaking of the T Waves
-Torsades de pointes.
block.
s/s of hypermagnesium
- SLIDE 11- MAGNESIUMCause: Renal failure, over-correction of hypomagnesemia
- weakness,
- decreased respiratory drive
- muscle spams,
4.hyporeflexia, - hypotension,
TX
* Loop diuretics
* Dialysis
* Calcium Gluconate
*
s/s of hypomagnesmia
Cause: Alcoholism, hypocalcemia,
- muscle spasms
- hypereflexia
- diahrea
TX:
* Monitor cardia rhythym
* administer Mag PO
* Administration of Mag IV needs to be given very slowly
Which of the following statements are false regarding incident reports?
A. Incident repots should be documented in the patients chart
B. Medical errors would need documentation as an incident report
C. Adverse reactions to medications need documentation as an incident report
D. Lost or stolen items need documentation as an incident report
E. Falls or injuries including the client and visitor need documentation as an incident report
A. Incident repots should be documented in the patients chart
SLIDE 12 incident reports
- INCIDENT REPORTS DO NOT CO IN PT CHARTS
INCIDETNT. WILL BE COMPLETED FOR THE FOLLOWING
- MED ERRORS
- ADV REACTIONS
- FALLS/INJURIES
- LOST/STOLEN ITEMS
You are nurse on the PACU. What is the first thing you should do when a patient is getting admitted?
A. Confirm the clients identity with the ID band
B. Obtain baseline vitals
C. Assess the clients skin color
D. Assess for signs of lethargy
A. Confirm the clients identity with the ID band
SLIDE 13 PACU NURSING INTERVENTION POST OP
1. Identify the patient WITH ID BAND
2. Assessment of the surgical site and drainage tubes during handoff report
3. Check vital signs
4. Monitor the rate and patency of IV fluids and IV access
5. Assessing the patients level of sedation, skin color and tugor , and circulation in extremities
6. Treat pain, nausea, and other post-operative symptoms of anesthesia and administer medication as prescribed
7. Assess mental status and body temperature
8. Monitor and recognize evidence of fluid and electrolyte imbalances
9. Monitor intake and output closely including wound drainage
10. Recognize signs of fluid imbalances
11. Perform hand washing before and after contact with the patient
12. Turn the patient to sides every 1 to 2 hours
13. Maintain the patient’s good body alignment
Which of the following statements are the benefits of physical therapy for a stroke patient?
A. Physical therapy assist with fine motor skillls and ADL’S
B. Physical therapy provides teachings on assistive devices such as canes walkers , and crutches
C. Physical therapy assist with bathing, eating , and dressing
D. Physical therapy assist with regaing psychosocial confidence
B. Physical therapy provides teachings on assistive devices such as canes walkers , and crutches
SLIDE 14 PT AND OT THERAPY
- Focuses on regaining mobility
- Helps to regain movement and function after illness/injury
- Reduces pain and improves joint function
- Tx tgrough exccercise ,massage , gait, and balance training
Which of the following statements are the benefits of occupational therapy for a stroke patient?
A. Occupation therapy provides teachings on assitive devices
B. Occupational therapy focuses on regaing mobility in lower extremities
C. Occupational therapy assist with bathing, eating , and dressing
D. Occupational therapy assist with excercise, massages, gait, and balance training
C. Occupational therapy assist with bathing, eating , and dressing
SLIDE 14 PT AND OT THERAPY
- Focus is on life activities, fine motor skills, ADL’S
- Bathing
- Dressing
- Eating
- Use of assitive devices improve these aspects of diling
- Use of normal adaptive equipment to injury or restrictions
What is the proper way to use a cane
weak leg with cane then strong leg
-put cane on strong side
- Stand at the affected side of the client when am-
bulating; use of a gait or transfer belt may be
necessary. - The handle should be at the level of the client’s
greater trochanter. - The client’s elbow should be flexed at a 15- to
30-degree angle. - Instruct the client to hold the cane 4 to 6 inches
(10 to 15 cm) to the side of the foot. - Instruct the client to hold the cane in the hand on the unaffected side so that the cane and weaker leg can work together with each step.
- Instruct the client to move the cane at the same
time as the affected leg.
What is the proper way to use a walker
- Stand adjacent to the client on the affected
side. - Instruct the client to put all four points of the
walker flat on the floor before putting weight on
the hand pieces. - Instruct the client to move the walker forward,
followed by the weaker foot and then the good foot.
What is the proper way to go up the stairs with crutches
- Up the stairs
a. The client moves the unaffected leg up first.
b. The client moves the affected leg and the
crutches up.
The distance between the axillae and the arm pieces on the crutches should be 2 to 3 finger
widths in the axilla space.
3. The elbows should be slightly flexed, 20 to 30
degrees, when the client is walking.
What is the proper way to do down the stairs with crutches
Down the stairs
a. The client moves the crutches and the affected leg down.
b. The client moves the unaffected leg down.
The distance between the axillae and the arm pieces on the crutches should be 2 to 3 finger
widths in the axilla space.
3. The elbows should be slightly flexed, 20 to 30
degrees, when the client is walking.
Which of the following statements are false about drawing peak and trough level?
A. You must monitor for otottoxicity and nephrotxiticity if a client is on gentamycin or vancomycin
B. peak levels should be drawn 4 hours after administration
C. monitor for hearing loss and low urine output
D. Through levels are taken right before administration of the next dose of the medication
B. peak levels should be drawn 4 hours after administration
SLIDE 15 PEAK AND THROUGH
1. Monitor for hearing loss and low urine output
2. Peak levels are drawn 30 minutes after med administration
3. Helps monitor for antibiotic toxixcity
4. For gentamicin/ vancomycin a peak and trough will need to be prescribed due to ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
S/E OF VANCOMYCIN GI DISTRESS, DIZZY , DROWSY, THROMOPHLEBITIS
ADV EFFECTS OF VANCOMYCIN; NEPHROTOXIXTY, STEVEN JOHNSIN SYNDROME, OTOTOXICITY(permenat hearing loss)
What are contraindications for Broncosopy?
SLIDE 16 BROCHOSCOPY
1. HISORY OR RECENT mi
2. Unstable Angina
3. Head trauma
4. Prone to ICP ex, Meningitis,
used to look directly in airway, navigation: throat trachea and into the airway
Which of the followiing should the nurse report for the provider after the client recieved a Bronchoscopy?
A. Increased hemoptysis
B. sore throat
C. Respiration rate from 18 to 15
D. O2 saturation 94
A. Increased hemoptysis
SLIDE 16 BROCHOSCOPY
COMPLICATION
1. Bleeding(monitor for hemotysis
2. fever
3. Hypoxemia
4. Laryngospasm
5. Pneumothorax
6. Chest tighntness
PRE PROCEDURE ACTIONS
1. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status as prescribed.
2. Assess the results of coagulation studies.
3. Remove dentures and eyeglasses.
4. Instruct the client to perform good mouth care to prevent bacteria from entering into the lungs from the oropharynx.
5. Establish an intravenous (IV) access as neces- sary, and administer medication for sedation as prescribed. A local anesthetic spray may be used; instruct the client not to swallow the spray and to expectorate any excess into a ba- sin.
6. Have emergency resuscitation supplies read- ily available.
POST PROCEDURE ACTIONS
1.
According to the CDC, when should the MMR vaccine be given to children?
A. at birth
B, 12 months and at 4-6 years old
C. 4 months
D. 6 months
B. 12 months and at 4-6 years old
SLIDE 17 VACCINE AND TITERS
Titers comes back positive -there is still immunity
if titer is negative there is no immunity will need vaccine
Your pregnany client does not know if she has immunity to rubella. After birth a titer is performed and it comes back negative. What is the best nursing action?
A. Administer the Rubella vaccine after the delivery of her planned second pregnancy.
B. Administer the prescribed rubella vaccine today with her consent.
C. Teach the client that the Rubella vaccine can only be given while pregnant.
D. The patient has immunity to Rubella.
B. Administer the prescribed rubella vaccine today with her consent.
Titers comes back positive -there is still immunity
if titer is negative there is no immunity will need vaccine
SLIDE 17 VACCINE AND TITERS
TYPE OF TITERS
1. measles mumps and rubella
2. Tuberculosis
3. Varicella
4. Hep B
5. Dtap
What would be an example of a client developing active immunity?
A. a client who is being given immunoglobulin
B. a client who has been infected with flu
C. a new born baby who recieves antibodies from mom
D. A client taking plasmapharesis
B. a client who has been infected with flu
SLIDE 17 VACCINE AND TITERS
Active immmunity -protection produced by own immunity from exposure to foreign microbes PERMANENT
ARTIFICAL
1. Vaccines
Natural
2. getting an infection
Passive Immunity- Protection given via injections or from antibodies from another person or animal SHORT TERM
What would be an example of Passive Immunity
A. A person recieving the flu vaccine
B. a client who has been infected with flu
C. a new born baby who recieves antibodies from mom
D. A client who was exposed to carbon dioxide
C. a new born baby who recieves antibodies from mom
Active immmunity -protection produced by own immunity from exposure to foreign microbes PERMANENT
Passive Immunity- Protection given via injections or from antibodies from another person or animal SHORT TERM
ARTIFICAL
1. Monoclonal antibodies ex, immunoglobulin,
Natural
2. Maternal Antibodies
They all have names that include ‘mab’ at the end of their generic name. For example, trastuzumab (Herceptin) and rituximab (Mabthera). Some MABS help the immune system to attack and kill cancer cells. These MABs are also a type of immunotherapy.