Communicable Dses Flashcards

1
Q

NTP Vision

A

TB Free Philippines

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2
Q

NTP Mission

A

Reduce TB burden - mortality and incidence
Zero catastrophic cost
Responsive delivery of TB services

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3
Q

What type of TB cannot be treated with the first regimen? (2HRZE/4HR)?

A

TB of the CNS, bones, joints

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4
Q

What is the regiment for TB CNS, bones and joints

A

(2HRZE/10HR)

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5
Q

Follow up schedule for TB patients

A

1st: After intensive phase (2nd month)
2nd and 3rd only if still positive after intensive phase
2nd: After 5th month
3rd: After 6th month

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6
Q

TB Patient Classification Definition
NEW

A

Has never had treatment for TB or has taken anti TB drugs for less than 1 month

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7
Q

TB Patient Classification
RELAPSE

A

Previously treated and DECLARED CURED or TREATMENT COMPLETED. Now with active TB

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8
Q

TB Patient Classification
RETREATMENT (UMBRELLA)

A

Has been treated before with Anti-TB FOR AT LEAST 1 MONTH

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9
Q

TB Patient Classification
TREATMENT AFTER FAILURE

A

Previously treated for TB but failed most recent course based on positive SM follow up at 5 months or clinically diagnosed TB patient with no clinical improvement anytime in the course

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10
Q

TB Patient Classification
TREATMENT AFTER LOST TO FOLLOW UP

A

Did not complete treatment
Lost to ff up for at least 2 months

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11
Q

TB Patient Classification
PREVIOUS TB TREATMENT OUTCOME UNKNOWN

A

Previously treated but outcome of most recent course is unknown

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12
Q

TB Patient Classification
PATIENTS WITH UNKNOWN PREVIOUS TB TREATMENT HISTORY

A

Do not fit any category
Considered as previously treated

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13
Q

Pillars of NTP

A

1: Integrated patient-centered TB care and prevention
2: Bold policies and supportive systems
3: Intensified research and innovation

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14
Q

Nomenclature Code for Xpert results

A

T: MTB detected, Rifampin resistance not detected
RR: MTB detected, Rifampicin resistance detected
TI: Indeterminate rifampicin resistance
N: Not detected
I: Invalid/error

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15
Q

Test for Ff up in TB

A

Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM)

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16
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Gastrointestinal Manifestations

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide
(Give at bedtime or with small meals)

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17
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Mild or localized skin reactions

A

Any drug
(Anti histamine)

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18
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Orange/red color urine

A

Rifampicin
(Reassure pt)

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19
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Pain at injection site

A

Streptomycin
(Warm compress)

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20
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Burning sensation in feet (Peripheral neuropathy

A

Isoniazid
(Vitamin B6/Pyridoxine at 50-100 mg/day for tx or 10mg/day for prevention)

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21
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Hyperuricemia —> Arthralgia

A

Pyrazinamide
(Aspirin or NSAID; Uric acid determination for gout of persists)

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22
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Flu like symptoms

A

Rifampicin
(Antipyretics)

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23
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Severe skin rash (hypersensitivity)

A

All especially Streptomycin

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24
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Jaundice due to hepatitis

A

Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide

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25
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Optic neuritis (color vision and visual acuity impairment)

A

Ethambutol

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26
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Ototoxicity (dizziness, hearing impairment, tinnitus)

A

Streptomycin

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27
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Oliguria and albuminuria

A

Streptomycin, rifampicin

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28
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Pyschosis and convulsion

A

Isoniazid

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29
Q

Adverse Anti-TB Drug Reactions
Thrombocytopenia, anemia, shock

A

Rifampicin

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30
Q

Pregnant patients with TB, what are the 2 Anti-TB drugs we cannot give?

A

Rifapentine
Streptomycin

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31
Q

For a pregnant TB patient, what is the dose of pyridoxine/vitamin b6 we give?

A

Pyridoxine 25mg/day

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32
Q

When do breastfeeding mothers with TB breastfeed their babies? Before or after taking Anti-TB meds?

A

Before taking Anti-TB meds

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33
Q

This anti TB drug stimulates the hepatic metabolism of OCPs, lowering their efficact and may result to unwanted pregnancies

A

Rifampicin

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34
Q

In order to adjust with Anti-TB regimen, OCPs should have higher doses of ____________ or advised to use other contraception

A

Estrogen

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35
Q

What is the Anti-TB drug known to cause the most hepatotoxicity?

A

Pyrazinamide

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36
Q

TB treatment is interrupted in these following conditions:

A

ALT >3x ULN with S & Sx of hepatitis or jaundice

OR

ALT >5x ULN even with no S & Sx of hepatitis

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37
Q

Anti-TB drugs are gradually reintroduced as LFTs and clinical symptoms normalize. If monitoring of LFTs cannot be done, when should Anti-TB drugs be introduced? And in what order?

A

Reintroduced 2 weeks after resolution of jaundice and RUQ abdominal pain/tenderness

In the respective order (from least to most hepatotoxic)
Rifampicin + Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide

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38
Q

Pyrazinamide is not given to TB patients with chronic liver disease. What are their 3 alternative regimens?

A

2SHRE/6HR
9RE
2SHE/10HE

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39
Q

For those TB patients with renal failure, when should they take their medications? Before or after dialysis?

A

After hemodialysis

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40
Q

Alternative options for HIV patients with concomitant TB (cannot observe TB > HIV treatment) who have no life threatening condition

A
  1. Defer ART until TB treatment completion (6 months)
  2. Defer ART until intensive phase of TB treatment is completed (2 months) —> continuation phase: Ethambutol and Isoniazid
  3. Treat TB with rifampicin containing regimen, Efavirenz + 2 NRTIs for HAART
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41
Q

Best measure/strategy to combat dengue

A

Source reduction - elimination of mosquitoes egg laying sites

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42
Q

Classifications of Dengue w/o warning signs

A

Suspect, Probable, Confirmed

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43
Q

SUSPECT DENGUE
A previously well individual with acute febrile illness of _______ days duration plus 2 of the following:
_____________________________

A

•1-7 days duration of fever
• Two of the ff 11 symptoms
* headache
* myalgia
* nausea
* flushed skin
* body malaise
* arthralgia
* vomiting
* rash (petechial Hermann’s rash)
* retro-orbital pain
* anorexia
*diarrhea

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44
Q

Probable dengue is suspect dengue plus __________________

A
  • Dengue NS1 Antigen test
  • CBC (leukopenia w/ or w/o thrombocytopenia)
  • Dengue IgM antibody test (optional)
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45
Q

Confirmed dengue is a suspect or probable dengue case with positive test result of any

A
  • Viral culture
  • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
  • Nucleic Acid Amplification Test-Loop Mediated Amplification Assay (NAAT-LAMP)
    *Plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT)
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46
Q

Dengue with Warning Signs is that wherein a previously well person with acute febrile illness of _________ days plus any of the following:

A

Letter A to Lethargy
A - Abdominal Pain or tenderness
B - Bleeding (mucosal bleeding)
C - Continuous vomiting (persistent vomiting, >2x/day)
D - Decrease in platelet (rapid) and increased Hct
E - Enlargement of Liver (>2 cm)
F - Fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion)
G - LetharGy

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47
Q

Severe dengue

A

Severe plasma leakage
* shock (DSS)
* Fluid accumulation w/ respiratory distress

Severe bleeding - evaluated by clinician

Severe organ impairment
* Liver: AST or ALT >= 1000
* CNS: seizures, impaired consciousness
*Heart and other organs (myocarditis, renal failure)

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48
Q

When does defervescence occur?

A

Day 3-7 of illness
Between 24-48 hours

49
Q

Phases of Dengue Infection

A

*Febrile phase (2-7 days) - mild hemorrhagic manifestations

*Critical phase (3-7 days) - defervescence; improve or deteriorate; progression to either dengue with or without warning signs, even severe dengue

*Recovery phase (next 48-72 hours) - Hermann’s rash, body fluids go back to normal. WBC > Plt rate of going back to normal

50
Q

ASEAN Dengue Day

51
Q

National Dengue Prevention and Control Program Objectives

A

• Reduce dengue morbidity by 25%
• Reduce dengue mortality by 50%
• Case fatality rate <1%

52
Q

National Dengue Prevention and Control Program Components

A
  1. Surveillance
  2. Case management and diagnosis
  3. Integrated vector management
  4. Outbreak response
  5. Health promotion and advocacy
  6. Research
53
Q

Deng-Get Out 5s Strategy

A
  1. Search and destroy
  2. Secure self protection
  3. Seek early consultation
  4. Support fogging and spraying only in hotspot areas or outbreaks
  5. Sustain hydration
54
Q

Principal vector of malaria in the Philippines

A

Anopheles flavirostris

55
Q

Gold standard for malaria diagnosis

A

Microscopy

56
Q

First line medicine for uncomplicated and severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria

A

Artemether-Lumefantrine

57
Q

Second line medicine for uncomplicated and severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria (if first line not available or treatment failure)

A

Quinine + Tetracycline/Doxycycline/Clindamycin x 7 days

58
Q

May be administered to unconscious patients with severe malaria that is currently in a incapacitated facility, while pending transfer

A

Artesunate suppository

59
Q

Immediate referral of malaria cases should be done when patients are:

A

• With severe malaria
• Pregnant
• Children below 5 years old

60
Q

A drug that can be used for all plasmodium species and mixed infections

A

Artemisinin

61
Q

Major insecticides used for bed net treatment

A

Pyrethroids

62
Q

Anti-malarial drugs that can be utilized for prophylaxis

A

Atovaquone-proguanil
* Atovaquone - 250 mg/proguanil - 100 mg 1 tab OD
* Start 1-2 days before entering malarious place, continue daily during stay and until after 7 days of leaving

Doxycycline
*100 mg 1 tab OD
* start 1 day before entering malarious place, continue daily during stay and up until 4 weeks after leaving

Mefloquine
*250 mg tab once a week
* start 1-2 weeks before entering malarious place, continue weekly during stay until after 4 weeks after leaving

63
Q

What is the anti-malarial drug of choice for pregnant women who are going to an endemic place with chloroquine-sensitive malaria?

A

Chloroquine

64
Q

What is the anti-malarial drug of choice for pregnant women who are going to an endemic place with chloroquine-resistant malaria?

A

Mefloquine

65
Q

What are the 5 infectious Food and Waterborne diseases under surveillance in the Philippines?

A

TARCH
T - Typhoid
A - Acute bloody diarrhea
R - Rotavirus
C - Cholera
H - Hepatitis A

66
Q

Most common symptom of food and waterborne diseases

67
Q

Most threatening consequence of diarrhea

A

Dehydration

68
Q

Fluid deficit percentages in infant

A

No signs of dehydration - <5%
Mild to moderate dehydration - 5-10%
Severe dehydration - >10%

69
Q

Fluid deficit percentages in child

A

No signs of dehydration - 3%
Mild to moderate dehydration - 6%
Severe dehydration - 9%

70
Q

Urine output categories to determine dehydration

A

Normal: 0.5 ml/kg/hr in 8 hrs
Decreased: <0.5 ml/kg/hr in 8 hrs
Minimal: <0.3 ml/kg/hr in 16 hrs
None: No urine output in 12 hrs

71
Q

Antimicrobials are only indicated in FWBD management in the event of diarrhea characterized by

A

• Acute bloody diarrhea
• Suspected case of cholera
• Diarrhea associated with other acute infections (e.g. pneumonia, meningitis)

72
Q

These supplements are adjunctive therapy for acute infectious diarrhea

A

Zinc supplementation - 20 mg/day x 10-14 days (in children older than 6 months)

Probiotics - throughout the duration of diarrhea and may be extended up to 7 more days after antibiotic completion

73
Q

Recommended treatment for adult mild dehydration

A

ORS at 1.5-2x the estimated amount of volume deficit + concurrent GI losses

74
Q

Recommended treatment for adult moderate dehydration

A
  1. 500 - 1000 ml PLRS in first 2 hrs
  2. If hemodynamically stable
    *<50 kg - 2-3 ml/kg/hr PLRS
    *>50 kg - 1.5-2 ml/kg/hr PLRS
75
Q

Recommended treatment for adult severe dehydration

A
  1. 500 - 1000 ml PLRS in first hour
  2. If hemodynamically stable
    *<50 kg - 2-3 ml/kg/hr PLRS
    *>50 kg - 1.5-2 ml/kg/hr PLRS
76
Q

The components of homemade ORS

A

1L of clean drinking water
4-5 tsp of sugar
1 tsp of salt

77
Q

Food-borne infection VS. Food poisoning/intoxication

A

Produced by toxins or poisonous agents present in the food before consumption

78
Q

Food-borne infection VS. Food poisoning/intoxication

A

Produced by living organisms entering the body with the food

79
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating poultry, salad, and warmed over foods

A

Salmonellosis - Salmonella species

80
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating moist food, dairy products, water, salad

A

Dysentery - Shigella species

81
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating poultry, salad, and warmed over foods (another agent)

A

Typhoid fever - S. Typhi

82
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating insufficiently cooked beef, pork, or freshwater fish

A

Tapeworm:
T. saginata (beef)
T. solium (pork)
Diphollobotrium latum (fish)

83
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating insufficiently canned goods with pH over 3.5

A

Botulism - Clostridium botulinum

84
Q

Disease and etiologic agent of infectious diarrhea from eating cooked ham and salads made from processed/canned foods

A

Staph food poisoning - Enterotoxin producing S. aureus

85
Q

What are the different etiologic agents of acute infectious bloody diarrhea?

A

SEECSY
S - Shigella
E - Escherichia coli (EHEC)
E - Entamoeba histolytica
C - Campylobacter jejuni
S - Salmonella
Y - Yersinia enterocolitica

86
Q

Incubation period of tetanus

A

Average of 8 days (3-21 days)

88
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in routine wound management

A

<3 OR UNKNOWN DOSES
CLEAN WOUND
* Td

DIRTY WOUND
* Td
* TIG

> =3 DOSES
CLEAN WOUND
* Td if >10 years since last dose, otherwise no need

DIRTY WOUND
* Td if >5 years since last dose, otherwise no need

ANIMAL BITES AUTOMATICALLY DIRTY WOUND

89
Q

Possible routes of transmission of Rabies infection

A

• Bite (from saliva)
• Contact of open skin or mucous membrane with saliva of infected animal
• Aerosol (e.g. entering caves)
• Transplantation

90
Q

Anti-Rabies Act of 2007 is aka

91
Q

Organization that serves as the chair of National Rabies prevention and control program

A

Department of Agriculture (Bureau of Animal Industry)

92
Q

What month is Rabies Awareness Month?

93
Q

What date is World Rabies Day?

A

September 28

94
Q

4Rs in Animal Rabies Risk Assessment

A

Recognizing
Recording
Reporting
Referral

95
Q

When death is caused by a communicable disease, within how many hours should the body of the person be buried?

A

Within 12 hours

96
Q

Active immune response is initiated within how many days

97
Q

WHO Prequalified Vaccines

A

RABIVAX-N
VeroRab
VaxiRab N

98
Q

RIG should be given within _______ days after active immunization

A

Within 7 days

99
Q

Dose of HRIG

100
Q

Dose of ERIG

101
Q

Management of anaphylaxis in RIG administration

A

0.1% adrenaline or epinephrine (1:1000 or 1 mg/ml) underneath skin or into muscle
*Adults - 0.5 ml
*Children - 0.01 ml/kg, max=0.5 ml
Epi every 10-20 mins x 3 doses
Steroids after epi

102
Q

Management of hypersensitivity rx in RIG administration

A

Antihistamines (single or combo)
Observe for 48 hrs —> no improvement —> short course oral antihistamines (5-7 days) + steroids —> no improvement —> IV steroids + antihistamine

103
Q

Preferrable # of mins of washing bite wound with soap/detergent and water

A

10 minutes

104
Q

When bite wound is gaping and really needs to be sutured, what to do?

A

Delay for 2 hrs after administration of ERIG to allow diffusion of antibody to tissues

105
Q

Most common pathogen from dig and cat bites

A

Pasteurella multocida

106
Q

Antimicrobials for animal bite are recommended for what conditions?

A

• All frankly infected wounds
• Category III cat bites
• All Category III bites that are deep, penetrating, multiple or extensive or located in the hand, face, genital area

108
Q

HIV testing of a minor. When can the minor have the test without the need of parental consent?

A

*Age 15 to less than 18
*Below age 15 but pregnant or engaged in high risk behavior

109
Q

When should consent be acquired from parents of a minor before HIV testing

A

*below 15
*mentally incapacitated

110
Q

HAART-Antiretroviral drugs
Nucleotide/Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTI)

A

Tenofovir
Lamivudine
Abacavir
Zidovudine

111
Q

HAART-Antiretroviral drugs
Non-Nucleotide/Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTI)

A

Efavirenz
Rilpivirine
Nevirapine

112
Q

HAART-Antiretroviral drugs
Protease inhibitors (PI)

A

Lopinavir/Ritonavir
Darunavir
Ritonavir

113
Q

Recommended treatment for schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel 40 mg/kg once
*nonpregnant adults
*pregnant women
*children >4 y.o.

114
Q

COVID VACCINES:
RNA

A

Pfizer
Moderna

115
Q

COVID VACCINES:
Viral vector

A

AstraZeneca
Sputnik V
Johnson & Johnson

116
Q

COVID VACCINES:
Inactivated virus

A

Sinovac
Sinopharm
Covaxin

117
Q

COVID VACCINES:
Protein-based