Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Communicable Diseases > Communicable disease concepts > Flashcards

Communicable disease concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 examples of emerging/re-emerging infectious diseases

A

Human monkeypox; Chikungunya; Lassa fever; Dengue fever; Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome; Bunyavirus; E Coli O157:h7; Hendra virus, Nipah virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 5 factors that influence the spread of an infectious disease

A 
Transmissibility: R0
Speed of transmission: serial interval, incubation. latency, infectious period
Pathogenicity
Stage of epidemic
Heterogeneity in transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 7 diseases on the “Emerging priority diseases” list?

A
  1. Crimean-Congo haemorragic fever
  2. Ebola virus disease/Marburg virus disease
  3. Lassa fever
  4. MERS-CoV and SARS
  5. Nipah and henipaviral diseases
  6. Rift Valley Fever
  7. Zika
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain ring vaccination as employed during the Congo Ebola outbreak

A

Once the index case is confirmed, then all close contacts (those who have had close contact with the patient/body fluids/linen, household members) and secondary contacts (household members of close contacts, extended family of close contacts) are vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the goal of the WHO R&D Blueprint for Action to Prevent Epidemics?

A

The goal is to improve the speed and effectivenss of clinical trial research before and during an epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the 3 main features of the WHO R&D Blueprint for Action to Prevent Epidemics

A
  1. Improving coordination (global coordination mechanism, funding, communication)
  2. Accelerating R&D (disease prioritization, roadmaps and target product profiles, regulatory and ethical pathways)
  3. Developing norms and standards (clinical trial designs, data and sample sharing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or false: Lassa fever is asymptomatic/subclinical in 50% of cases

A

False: Around 80% of Lassa fever cases are asymptomatic or subclinical. In the remaining 20% of cases, non-specific symptoms develop within 2-21 days after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
MERS-CoV is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012. What is its case fatality rate?
A - 2%
B- 5%
C - 15%
D - 40%
E - 85%
A

D - 40%

Supportive care is the major treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the natural host and intermediate host of Nipah virus?

A

Natural host: fruit bats
Intermediate host: pigs
People have also become infected from consuming contaminated date palm sap and limited human-human transmission has also been observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the at risk populations for Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever?

A

Farmers in endemic areas (in Africa, the Balkans, Middle East and Asia), abattoir workers, veterinary officers working with domestic animals, healthcare workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of Disease X (list 4 options)

A

Disease X is a pathogen currently unknown to cause human disease - there are 4 main subtypes

  1. Known pathogen that becomes more virulent
  2. Known pathogen that causes a large outbreak and reveals serious sequelae
  3. Known zoonotic pathogen that spills over to humans
  4. Unknown pathogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Ebola virus and what is Ebola virus disease?

A 
The ebola virus is a RNA-filovirus, of which there are 5 subtypes (bundibugyo ebolavirus, Lake Victoria marburgvirus, Sudan ebolavirus, Tai Forest ebolavirus, Zaire ebolavirus).
The clinical features of Ebola virus disease are as follows
Phase 1 (days 0-3) early febrile 
Phase 2 (days 3-10) gastrointestinal (NVD) with associated persistent fever, headache, conjunctival injection, abdo pain, myalgias, delirium
Phase 3 (days 7-12) shock or recovery
Late complications (>10 days) - GI haemorrhage, secondary infections, meningoencephalitis, persistent neurocognitive abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Where was the initial outbreak in the 2014 West African Ebola epidemic?
A. Sierra Leone
B. Liberia
C. Guinea
D. Ivory Coast
E. Senegal
A

C. Guinea

The epidemic was traced back to the district of Gueckedou on the border of Guinea and Liberia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What were some of the challenges in responding to the Ebola epidemic in West Africa?

A

Ebola virus disease has nonspecific symptoms in the early phases
Lack of effective treatments (supportive care only)
Lack of vaccine at the beginning of the outbreak
Hospitals and health centres closed due to multiple reasons - no one to deliver health care, diagnose/test infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the key elements included in the definition of public health surveillance?

A 
Ongoing (not a one-time survey)
systematic
collection
analysis
interpretation
dissemination
link to action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between active and passive surveillance?

A

Active - health department staff call or visit health care providers on a regular basis to solicit case reports
Passive - health care providers, hospitals, labs send reports to the health department based on a set of rules and regulations

17
Q

What are the attributes of a surveillance system that should be evaluated to ensure the system is meeting its objectives?

A 
Simplicity
Flexibility
Data Quality
Acceptability
Sensitivity
Positive Predictive Value
Representativeness
Timeliness
Stability
18
Q

What are some of the reasons that the outbreak of Ebola virus disease in DRC had a better outcome compared to the outbreak in West Africa?

A

Stronger health system
Previous experience with EVD
Rural/remote region - not in major cities
Fast response/community participants

19
Q

What are the 5 goals of the Global Vaccine Action Plan?

A
  1. Achieve a world free of poliomyelitis
  2. Meet vaccination coverage targets in every region, country and community
  3. Exceed the Millenium Development Goal 4 target for reducing child mortality
  4. Meet global and regional elimination targets
  5. Develop and introduce new and improved vaccines and technologies
20
Q

What is the difference between elimination and eradication of polio?

A

Elimination refers to the reduction to zero (or a very low defined target rate) of new cases in a defined geographical area
Eradication refers to the complete and permanent worldwide reduction to zero new cases of the disease through deliberate efforts

21
Q

How many diseases have been eradicated?

A

One - smallpox

22
Q

Discuss the achievements and challenges in global DTP vaccination

A

ARound 85% of infants worldwide received 3 doses of DTP vaccine in 2019. 125 member states had reached at least 90% coverage. A key challenge is that 14 million infants did not receive an initial dose of DTP vaccine and an additional 5.7 million are partially vaccinated. >60% of these children live in 10 countries: Angola, Brazil, DRC, Ethiopia, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria, Pakistan and the Philippines

23
Q

Discuss key points in the global HPV vaccination campaign

A

Global HPV vaccine coverage is increasing and the pace of introduction is accelerating. HPV vaccine coverage varies substantially, regardless of income strata. 61% of cervical cancer cases occur in countries that have not yet introduced HPV vaccination

24
Q

Name 5 vector borne diseases

A

Dengue fever, Yellow fever, Zika, malaria, Japanese encephalitis, Plague, Sleeping sickness, Schistosomiasis

25
Q

Identify the vector, incubation and reservoir for Malaria

A

Vector - Anopheles mosquitos
Incubation period - 7-30 days
Reservoir - Humans

26
Q

Name 5 prevention and control strategies for Malaria

A

Environmental management strategies to control vectors
Personal protective measures (repellent, mosquito nets)
control blood products
Early diagnosis and treatment
Chemoprophylaxis

27
Q

What is the vector, incubation period and reservoir for sleeping sickness/African trypanosomiasis?

A

Vector - tsetse fly
Incubation period - months to years
Reservoir - cattle and other wild and domestic animals

28
Q

List 5 different types of vector-borne disease control measures and an example of each type

A 
Chemical - insecticides
Biological - Wolbachia
Physical - mosquito nets
Vaccines - for yellow fever
Behavioural - changes in behaviours eg emptying out water containers
29
Q

What are some of the characteristics of Aedes aegypti that make it such an effective vector?

A

Lives around humans
Feeds almost exclusively on humans
Feeds intermittently - bites and transmits infections to many people per blood meal

30
Q

What prompts a country to consider adding a vaccine to their national program?

A

Surveillance - high incidence or mortality from a VPD; increasing incidence or re-emergence
New or improved vaccine becomes available
New WHO recommendation
Availability of donor support
Offer of vaccine donation from pharmaceutical company
Political pressure

31
Q

What is the global burden of disease from respiratory-borne diseases?

A

Upper respiratory infections caused 18.8 billion cases in 2013 with 4 million deaths.
Acute respiratory infection/pneumonia is a leading cause of death for children under 5 years globally - responsible for 15% of all deahts in children under 5.

32
Q

Explain the role of the International Health Regulations with regard to respiratory diseases

A

The IHR require member states to meet core capacities in preparing for and managing diseases that may constitute a public health event of international concern. Influenza and SARS are events of international concern requiring immediate notification to WHO under the IHR

33
Q

What do the Integrated Disease Surveillance Response Technical Guidelines require member states to do in relation to respiratory diseases?

A

The IDSR Technical Guidelines identify a number of respiratory diseases as priority diseases. These include where identification is required under IHR (human influenza and SARS); they are diseases with a high epidemic potential; they are main causes of morbidity and mortality.
Member states are required to build core capacities for surveillance, laboratory testing and response to these diseases as they may result in a public event of international concern

34
Q

What are the key elements of success in managing pandemics?

A 
Engagement
Preparedness
Resilience - absorbing capacity, buffering capacity, responsivness
Governance and Agility
Engagement
35
Q

What is the definition of absorbing capacity? Give 2 examples

A

The ability to absorb the free energy of an event without sustaining damage. Examples: levees, building codes, bomb shelters, airbags

36
Q

What is the definition of buffering capacity? Give 2 health related examples

A

The ability of a society to cope with damage and to function despite damage. The ability to maintain essential functions despite a change in available resources
Examples: national medical supply stockpile, capacity to cease elective surgery, capacity to move to telehealth, pandemic planning

37
Q

What is the role of the International Health Regulations?

A

IHR core capacities denote the functions required for a country to detect, assess, notify and report events, and to respond to public health risks and emergencies of national and international concern

38
Q

What are the eight core capacities of the IHR identified by the WHO?

A 
Core capacity 1: National legislation, policy and financing
Core capacity 2: Coordination and National Focal Point (NFP) communications
Core capacity 3: Surveillance
Core capacity 4: Response
Core capacity 5: Preparedness
Core capacity 6: Risk communication
Core capacity 7: Human resources
Core capacity 8: Laboratory
39
Q

What is the purpose of Public Health Emergency Operation Centres?

A

A public health emergency operations centre (EOC/PHEOC) is a physical or virtual space dedicated to managing public health emergencies as per the requirements of The International Health Regulations (IHR 2005). This is accomplished by strengthening communications and coordination for effective public health response

Communicable Diseases (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions