Common Surgical Medications, Chapter21 P130-138 Flashcards

1
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Which antibiotics are commonly used for anaerobic infections?
P130

A

Metronidazole, clindamycin, cefoxitin, cefotetan, imipenem, ticarcillin-clavulanic acid, Unasyn®, Augmentin®

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2
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Which antibiotics are commonly used for gram-negative infections?
P131

A

Gentamicin and other aminoglycosides, ciprofloxacin, aztreonam, third-generation cephalosporins, sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

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3
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Which antibiotic, if taken with alcohol, will produce a
disulfiram-like reaction?
P131

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl®) (disulfiram is Antabuse®)

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4
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
What is the drug of choice for treating amoebic infections?
P131

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl®)

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5
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Which antibiotic is associated with cholestasis?
P131

A

Ceftriaxone (Rocephin®)

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6
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Which antibiotic cannot be given to children or pregnant
women?
P131

A

Ciprofloxacin (interferes with the growth plate)

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7
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
With which common antibiotics must serum levels be determined?
P131

A

Aminoglycosides and vancomycin

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8
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Is rash (only) in response to penicillins a contraindication to cephalosporins?
P131

A

No, but breathing problems, urticaria, and edema in response to penicillins are contraindications to the cephalosporins

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9
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Augmentin®
P131

A

Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

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10
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Unasyn®
P131

A

Ampicillin and sulbactam

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11
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Cefazolin (Ancef ®)
P131

A

First-generation cephalosporin; surgical prophylaxis for skin flora

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12
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Cefoxitin (Mefoxin®)
P131

A

Second-generation cephalosporin; used for mixed aerobic/anaerobic infections; effective against Bacteroides fragilis and anaerobic bacteria

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13
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Ceftazidime (Ceftaz®)
P131

A

Third-generation cephalosporin; strong activity against Pseudomonas

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14
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Clindamycin
P131

A

Strong activity against gram-negative anaerobes such as B. fragilis; adequate gram-positive activity

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15
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Gentamicin
P132

A

Aminoglycoside used to treat gramnegative bacteria; nephrotoxic, ototoxic; blood peak/trough levels should be
monitored

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16
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Imipenem and cilastatin (Primaxin®)
P132

A
  • Often used as a last resort against serious, multiresistant organisms
  • Usually combined with cilastin, which inhibits renal excretion of imipenem
  • Has a very wide spectrum
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17
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Metronidazole (Flagyl®)
P132

A

Used for serious anaerobic infections (e.g., diverticulitis); also used to treat amebiasis; patient must abstain from
alcohol use during therapy

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18
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Nafcillin (Nafcil®)
P132

A

Antistaphylococcal penicillin commonly used for cellulitis

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19
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Vancomycin
P132

A

Used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA); used orally to treat C. difficile pseudomembranous
colitis (poorly absorbed from the gut); with IV administration, peak/trough levels should be monitored

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20
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)
P132

A

Quinoline antibiotic with broad-spectrum activity, especially against gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas

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21
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Aztreonam (Azactam®)
P132

A

Monobactam with gram-negative spectrum

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22
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Amphotericin
P132

A

IV antifungal antibiotic associated with renal toxicity, hypokalemia

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23
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Fluconazole (Diflucan®)
P132

A

Antifungal agent (IV or PO) not associated with renal toxicity

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24
Q

ANTIBIOTICS
Describe the following medications:
Nystatin
P132

A

PO and topical antifungal

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25
STEROIDS What are the side effects? P133
Adrenal suppression, immunosuppression, weight gain with central obesity, cushingoid facies, acne, hirsutism, purple striae, hyperglycemia, sodium retention/hypokalemia, hypertension, osteopenia, myopathy, ischemic bone necrosis (avascular necrosis of the hip), GI perforations
26
STEROIDS What are its uses? P133
Immunosuppression (transplant), autoimmune diseases, hormone replacement (Addison’s disease), spinal cord trauma, COPD
27
STEROIDS Can steroids be stopped abruptly? P133
No, steroids should never be stopped abruptly; always taper
28
STEROIDS Which patients need stress-dose steroids before surgery? P133
Those who are on steroids, were on steroids in the past year, have suspected hypoadrenalism, or are about to undergo adrenalectomy
29
STEROIDS What is the “stress dose” for steroids? P133
100 mg of hydrocortisone IV every 8 hours and then taper (adults)
30
STEROIDS Which vitamin helps counteract the deleterious effects of steroids on wound healing? P133
Vitamin A
31
HEPARIN Describe the action. P133
Heparin binds with and activates antithrombin III
32
HEPARIN What are its uses? P133
Prophylaxis/treatment—DVT, pulmonary embolism, stroke, atrial fibrillation, acute arterial occlusion, cardiopulmonary bypass
33
HEPARIN What are the side effects? P133
Bleeding complications; can cause thrombocytopenia
34
HEPARIN What reverses the effects? P133
Protamine IV ( 1:100, 1 mg of protamine to every 100 units of heparin)
35
HEPARIN What laboratory test should be used to follow effect? P134
aPTT—activated partial thromboplastin time
36
HEPARIN What is the standard lab target for therapeutic heparinization? P134
1.5–2.5 times control or measured antifactor X level
37
HEPARIN Who is at risk for a protamine anaphylactic reaction? P134
Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus, s/p prostate surgery
38
HEPARIN What is the half-life of heparin? P134
≈90 minutes (1–2 hours)
39
HEPARIN How long before surgery should it be discontinued? P134
From 4 to 6 hours preoperatively
40
HEPARIN Does heparin dissolve clots? P134
No; it stops the progression of clot formation and allows the body’s own fibrinolytic systems to dissolve the clot
41
HEPARIN What is LMWH? P134
Low Molecular Weight Heparin
42
HEPARIN What laboratory test do you need to follow LMWH? P134
None, except in children, patients with obesity, and those with renal failure, which is the major advantage of LMWH (check factor X levels)
43
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) ACRONYM basis for name? P134
Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation
44
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) Describe its action. P134
Inhibits vitamin K–dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, (i.e., 2, 7, 9 and 10 [Think: 2 + 7 = 9 and 10]), produced in the liver
45
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What are its uses? P134
Long-term anticoagulation (PO)
46
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What are its associated risks? P134
Bleeding complications, teratogenic in pregnancy, skin necrosis, dermatitis
47
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What laboratory test should be used to follow its effect? P134
PT (prothrombin time) as reported as INR
48
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What is INR? P134
International Normalized Ratio
49
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What is the classic therapeutic INR? P135
INR of 2–3
50
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What is the half-life of effect? P135
40 hours; thus, it takes about 2 days to observe a change in the PT
51
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) What reverses the action? P135
Cessation, vitamin K, fresh-frozen plasma (in emergencies)
52
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) How long before surgery should it be discontinued? P135
From 3 to 5 days preoperatively and IV heparin should be begun; heparin should be discontinued from 4 to 6 hours preoperatively and can be restarted postoperatively; Coumadin® can be restarted in a few days
53
WARFARIN (COUMADIN®) How can warfarin cause skin necrosis when first started? P135
Initially depressed protein C and S result in a HYPERcoagulable state! Avoid by using heparin concomitantly when starting
54
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Sucralfate (Carafate®) P135
Treats peptic ulcers by forming an acidresistant barrier; binds to ulcer craters; needs acid to activate and thus should not be used with H(2) blockers
55
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Cimetidine (Tagamet®) P135
H(2) blocker (ulcers/gastritis)
56
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Ranitidine (Zantac®) P135
H(2) blocker (ulcers/gastritis)
57
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Ondansetron (Zofran®) P135
Antinausea | Anti-emetic
58
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: PPI P135
Proton-Pump Inhibitor: | Gastric acid–secretion inhibitor; works by inhibiting the K⁺/H⁺-ATPase (e.g., omeprazole [Prilosec®])
59
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Promethazine (Phenergan®) P135
Acute antinausea agent; used postoperatively
60
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Metoclopramide (Reglan®) P136
Increases gastric emptying with increase in LES pressure; dopamine antagonist; used in diabetic gastroparesis and to help move feeding tubes past the pylorus
61
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Haloperidol (Haldol®) P136
Sedative/antipsychotic (side effects extrapyramidal symptoms, QT prolongation)
62
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Ondansetron (Zofran®) P136
Anti-emetic/serotonin receptor blocker
63
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Albumin P136
5% albumin 25% albumin—draws extravascular fluid into intravascular space by oncotic pressure
64
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Albuterol P136
Inhaled ℬ(2) agonist (bronchodilator)
65
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Octreotide P136
Somatostatin analog
66
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Famotidine (Pepcid®) P136
H(2) blocker
67
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Aspirin P136
Irreversibly inhibits platelets by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase
68
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Furosemide (Lasix®) P136
Loop diuretic (watch for hypokalemia)
69
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Dantrolene (Dantrium®) P136
Medication used to treat malignant hyperthermia
70
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Describe the following drugs: Misoprostol (Cytotec®) P136
``` Prostaglandin E(1 )analog Gastroduodenal mucosal protection ```
71
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS What is an antibiotic option for colon/appendectomy coverage if the patient is allergic to penicillin? P136
1. IV ciprofloxacin (Cipro) AND | 2. IV clindamycin or IV Flagyl
72
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS If the patient does not respond to a dose of furosemide, should the dose be repeated, increased, or decreased? P136
Dose should be doubled if there is no response to the initial dose
73
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS What medication is used to treat promethazine-induced dystonia? P137
Diphenhydramine hydrochloride IV (Benadryl®)
74
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Which medication is classically associated with mesenteric ischemia? P137
Digitalis
75
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS What type of antihypertensive medication is contraindicated in patients with renal artery stenosis? P137
ACE inhibitors
76
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS Does acetaminophen (Tylenol®) inhibit platelets? P137
No
77
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS What medications are used to stop seizures? P137
Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam [Ativan®]); phenytoin (Dilantin®)
78
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS List examples of preop antibiotics for: Vascular prosthetic graft P137
Ancef ® (gram-positive coverage)
79
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS List examples of preop antibiotics for: Appendectomy P137
Cefoxitin, Unasyn® (anaerobic coverage)
80
MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS List examples of preop antibiotics for: Colon surgery P137
Cefoxitin, Unasyn® (anaerobic coverage)
81
NARCOTICS What are common postoperative IV narcotics? P137
Morphine (most common), meperidine (Demerol®), fentanyl, Percocet®, Dilaudid®
82
NARCOTICS What is Percocet® P137
PO narcotic pain reliever with acetaminophen and oxycodone
83
NARCOTICS What is Demerol’s claim to fame? P137
Used commonly with acute pancreatitis/biliary pathology because classically morphine may cause sphincter of Oddi spasm/constriction
84
NARCOTICS What are side effects of narcotics? P137
Respiratory depression, hypotension, itching, bradycardia, nausea
85
NARCOTICS What is the danger of prolonged use of Demerol? P138
Accumulation of metabolite normeperidine (especially with renal/hepatic dysfunction), which may result in oversedation, hallucinations, and seizures!
86
NARCOTICS What medication reverses the effects of narcotic overdose? P138
Naloxone (Narcan®), 0.4 mg IV
87
NARCOTICS Narcotic used to decrease postoperative shivering? P138
Demerol®
88
MISCELLANEOUS What reverses the effects of benzodiazepines? P138
Flumazenil (Romazicon®), 0.2 mg IV
89
MISCELLANEOUS What is Toradol®? P138
Ketorolac = IV NSAID
90
MISCELLANEOUS What are the risks of Toradol®? P138
GI bleed, renal injury, platelet dysfunction
91
MISCELLANEOUS Why give patients IV Cipro if they are eating a regular diet? P138
No reason—500 mg of Cipro PO gives the same serum level as 400 mg Cipro IV! And PO is much cheaper!
92
MISCELLANEOUS What is clonidine “rebound”? P138
Abruptly stopping clonidine can cause the patient to have severe “rebound” hypertension (also seen with ℬ-blockers)