Common Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis, microfilaria vectors

A

mosquitos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis, microfilaria in mosquito develop to

A

infective L3 and are depsoited in or on the skin while feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: L3 cannot mature without

A

Wolbachia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: Disease causes

A
  1. Pulmonary pathology (pneumonitis), pulmonary hypertension, glomerulonephritis
  2. RHF
  3. Caval syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: Caval syndrome

A

RBC lysis (hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria) and worms in the cavae and subsequent interference with the triscuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: Antigen testing

A

antigen produced by a reproductively active female uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: False negatives

A

d/t low worm burdens, immature infections &/or nly a few adult feamles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis:microfilaria on blood smear can look like

A

acanthocheilonemia reconditum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Canine Dirofilaria immitis: what dx further confirm or help stage infestation prior to treatment?

A

Echo and Rads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All heartworm preventatives belong to which class of drugs?

A

macrocyclic lactones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Macrocylic lactones are effective against what stages of D. immitis?

A

L3, L4 and microfilaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Heartgard plus Active Ingredients

A

ivermectin

pyrantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heartgard plus Spectrum

A

heartworms, hookworms, roudnworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Interceptor Active ingredients

A

milbemycin oxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Interceptor Spectrum

A

heartworms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sentinel active ingredients

A

milbemycin oxime, lufenuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sentinel Spectrum

A

heartowrms, roudnworms, hookwroms, whipworms, fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sentinel flea prevents

A

prevents flea eggs from hatching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Revolution Active Ingredients

A

Selamectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Revolution Spectrum

A

heartworms, fleas, flea IGR, ear mites, ticks (one spp) sarcoptic mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Canine Oral Heartworm Preventatives

A

Heartgard plus
Interceptor
Sentinel
Trifexis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Revolution flea prevention

A

Kills adult fleas and prevents eggs from hatching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proheart Active Ingredients

A

Moxidectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Proheart Spectrum

A

heartworms, hookworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Canine injectable heartworm prevention?

A

Proheart

**6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Advantage Multi Active Ingredients

A

imidacloprid, moxidectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Advantage Multi Spectrum

A

heartworms, fleas, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, sarcoptic mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the only FDA labeled treatment of microfilaria in canines?

A

Advantage multi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Trifexis active ingredients

A

milbemycin oxime, spinosad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Trifexis Spectrum

A

heartowrms, roundworms, hooksworms, whipworms, fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Trifexis flea prevention

A

kills adult fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Feline heartworms are different from dogs because

A
  1. cats are more resistant than dogs

2. rarely microfilaremic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 stages of Feline heartworm Dz

A
  1. Heartworm Associated Resp Dz

2. Pulmonary thromboemboli and inflamm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Feline Heartworm Dz: Heartworm associated resp dz

A

associated with juvenile worms arriving in pulmonary vasculature and result from direct vascular injury and inflamm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Death of worms can cause what clinical signs in cats?

A

pulmonary thromboemboli and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dx Heartworm Dz in Cats

A
  • Ab and Ag tests used together

- Thoracic rads and echo– confirm dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Feline Heartgard Active ingredients

A

ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Feline Heartgard Spectrum

A

heartworms and hooks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Felien Interceptor active ingredients

A

milbemycin oxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Feline Interceptor Spectrum

A

heartworms, hookworms, roundworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Feline oral heartworm preventatives

A

heartgard

interceptor

42
Q

Feline revolution active ingredients

A

selamectin

43
Q

Feline Revolution Spectrum

A

heartworms, fleas, flea IGR, hookworms, roundworms, ear mites

44
Q

Feline Revolution flea prevention

A

kills adult fleas and prevents eggs from hatching

45
Q

Feline Advantage Multi Active ingredients

A

imidacloprid, moxidectin

46
Q

Feline Advantage Multi Spectrum

A

heartworms, hookworms, roundworms, fleas, ear mites

47
Q

What is the only FDA labeled treatment for microfilaria in felines?

A

Advantage Multi

48
Q

Roundworms of cats

A

Toxacara cati

49
Q

Roundworms of dogs

A

Toxacara canis

50
Q

Roundworms of dogs and cats

A

Toxocaris leonine

51
Q

baylisascaris procyonis raccooons causes disease in what spp?

A

dogs

52
Q

Roundworms

A

Ascarids

53
Q

Roundworms average prepatent period in dogs and cats

A

dogs: 3-4 wks
cats: 8 wks

54
Q

Roundworms (ascarids) transmission

A

transmammary, transplacental or ingestion of larvated egg or paratenic host

55
Q

Roundworms (ascarids) somatic migration

A

encysted cysts throughout body occurs but will never infec tthe host again

56
Q

Ascarid clinical disease

A

dull hair coat
potbelly and thin body condition
enteritis
verominous pneumonia (d/t tracheal migration)

57
Q

Ascarid dx

A
  1. vomitus or feces as larger worms

2. microscopic exam– fecal floation

58
Q

Ascarid prevention

A
  1. pick up feces
  2. deworm pregnant and nursing dams
  3. deworm kittens
59
Q

Ascarid treatment

A

pyrantel (5-10 mg/kg once, repeat in 2-3wks)
fenbdendazole (50 mg/kg q24x3d, repeat in 2-3wks)
moxidectin
milbemycin
selamectin–cats only

60
Q

Ascarid zoonoses

A

visceral & ocular larval migrans

61
Q

Accidental ingestion of ifnective larvated ascarid eggs lead to

A

somatic migration and cause chronic granulomatous lesions in the liver, lung, brain and eye

62
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma transmission

A

transmammary, or ingestion of infective larvae or paratenic host

63
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma percutaneous migration can cause

A

local reaction, erythema, pruritus

64
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma Adults cause dz by

A

attaching to villi and secrete anticoagulant

65
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma C/S

A

anemia, enteritis, tarry stools, dermatitis, wt loss

66
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma Dx

A

Fecal float

67
Q

Hookworms–Ancylostoma prevention

A

pick up feces
avoid predation
deworm pregnant and nursing dams
start deworming puppies and kittens

68
Q

Hookworm zoonoses

A

cutaneous larval migrans

69
Q

Whipworms

A

trichuris

70
Q

Whipworms primarily live

A

in cecum

71
Q

Whipworms C/S

A

intermittent soft stools
mucoid diarrhea
wt loss

72
Q

Whipworms Dx

A

Zn sulfate fecal float

73
Q

Whipworms Prevention

A
  1. removal of feces

2. preventatives

74
Q

Cystoisospora previously known as

A

Isospora

75
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora oocysts passe din feces

A

nonsporulated oocysts passed in feces and sporulate in enviornment

76
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora infecst by

A

ingestion of sporulated oocysts or pratenic hosts

77
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora C/S

A
  1. Dz of the young
  2. sm bowel diarrhea +/- hemorrhagic
  3. wt loss, dehydration, hyporpoteinemia
78
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora Dx

A

direct miscoropsic fecal examination

79
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora Prevention

A

rapid removal of feces
tx household/cattery/kennel
prevent predation

80
Q

Cystoisospora– Isospora Treatment

A

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)

Ponazuril

81
Q

Giardia spp that infect dogs and cats

A

Giardia duodenalis

82
Q

Giardia stages

A

dimorphic parasites that has a trophozoite and cyst stage

83
Q

Which stage of Giardia is the problem stage?

A

Trophpozoite

84
Q

Which stage of Giardia is the infective stage?

A

Cyst

85
Q

Infection of giardia occurs by?

A

ingestion of cysts

86
Q

Giardia C/S

A

intermittent, smelly diarrhea

maldigestion & malabsorption d/t to enterocyte damage

87
Q

Giardia direct fecal smear

A

motile trophozoites (falling leaf)

88
Q

Giardia Dx

A

direct smear
fecal float (with centrifugation)
Fecal ELISA

89
Q

Giardia Prevention

A

daily fecal removal

bathing

90
Q

Giardia Treatment

A

Fenbendazole
Metronidazole
Combination therapy

91
Q

Species of tapeworms

A

Dipylidium caninum
Taenia spp
Echinococcus spp

92
Q

Tapeworm Life Cycle

A

Indirect life cycle– needs an IH

93
Q

Tapeworm IH

A

fleas or rodents consume eggs and develop larval cysts

94
Q

Tapeworms infect

A

small intestine, diarrhea if severe infestation

perianal irritation from proglottid

95
Q

Tapeworms Dx

A

ID of proglottid (egg basket) on patient

Id of eggs on fecal float

96
Q

Tapeworm prevention/control

A
praziquantal
epsiprantel (cestx)
Emodepside (profender)
avoid predation
flea control
97
Q

Conditions fleas cause

A

flea anemia
flea allergy dermatitis
tapeworms

98
Q

fleas are vectors for

A
  1. Yersinia pestis–bubonig plague
  2. bartonella hensalae– cat scratch dz
  3. Rickettsia typhi– murine typhus
  4. Rickettsia felis– spotted fever in cats & zoonotic
  5. Mycoplasma (formerly hemobartonella)– feline infectious anemia
99
Q

Ehrlichiois tick vector

A

brown dog tick (rhipicephalus sanguineus) and Lone star tick

**attach 3-6 hrs

100
Q

Tick vector diseases

A
ehrlichiosis
anaplasmosis
lyme disease
rocky mountain spotted fever
cytauxzoonosis
tularemia
babesiosis
hepatozoonosis
bartonellosis