COMMON MEDICATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

A

fever reducer; treats minor aches and pains

(induces analgesia by blocking prostaglandin synthesis by selectively inhibiting COX-II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Amoxicillin (Amoxil or Larotid)

A

antibiotic

(inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding one or more of the penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adenosine (Adenocard or Adenoscan)

A

anti-arrhythmic agent

(exerts a negative chronotropic effect by suppressing the automaticity of cardiac pacemakers, and a negative dromotropic effect through inhibition of AV-nodal conduction.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Albuterol (Proair HFA, Proventil HFA, or Ventolin HFA)

A

bronchodilator used as a breathing treatment (acts on beta-2 adrenergic receptors to relax the bronchial smooth muscle).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atenolol (Tenormin)

A

beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and angina

(works by selectively binding to the beta-1 adrenergic receptors found in vascular smooth muscle and the heart, blocking the positive inotropic and chronotropic actions of endogenous catecholamines such as isoproterenol, norepinephrine, and epinephrine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ativan (Lorazepam)

A

benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety

(binds to benzodiazepine receptors on the postsynaptic GABA-A ligand-gated chloride channel neuron at several sites within the central nervous system (CNS). It enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA, which increases the conductance of chloride ions in the cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Atropine (AtroPen)

A

involuntary nervous system blocker that can increase that firing at the SA node and treat some forms of bradycardia.

(Atropine inhibits the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine on structures innervated by postganglionic cholinergic nerves, and on smooth muscles, which respond to endogenous acetylcholine but are not so innervated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Augmentin (Amoxicillin/Clavulanate Potassium)

A

antibiotic

(The mechanisms of action of amoxicillin/clavulanate are interference with cell wall synthesis by attachment to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis and inactivation of inhibitors to autolytic enzymes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

A

antibiotic

(Azithromycin mechanism of action including the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis, inhibition of proinflammatory cytokine production, inhibition of neutrophil infestation, and macrophage polarization alteration, gives it the ability to act against a wide range of microorganisms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bactrim (Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole)

A

antibiotic

(Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit bacterial synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid, the physiologically active form of folic acid and a necessary cofactor in the synthesis of thymidine, purines, and bacterial DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Benadryl (Diphenhydramine)

A

antihistamine

(Diphenhydramine acts as an inverse agonist at the H1 receptor, thereby reversing the effects of histamine on capillaries, reducing allergic reaction symptoms. The H1 receptor is similar to muscarinic receptors).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Ciproxin, Ciloxan, or Cetraxal)

A

antibiotic

(The bactericidal action of ciprofloxacin results from inhibition of the enzymes topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV (both Type II topoisomerases), which are required for bacterial DNA replication, transcription, repair, and recombination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clindamycin (Cleocin, etc.)

A

antibiotic

(Clindamycin works primarily by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria. This agent disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Coumadin (Warfarin)

A

anticoagulant

(Warfarin competitively inhibits the vitamin K epoxide reductase complex 1 (VKORC1), an essential enzyme for activating the vitamin K available in the body. Through this mechanism, warfarin can deplete functional vitamin K reserves and thereby reduce the synthesis of active clotting factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compazine (Prochlorperazine)

A

antiemetic

(It mainly works by depressing the chemoreceptor trigger zone and blocking D2 dopamine receptors in the brain. It was shown to also block histaminergic, cholinergic and noradrenergic receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Decadron (Dexamethasone)

A

steroid; anti-inflammatory

(Dexamethasone is a potent glucocorticoid with very little if any, mineralocorticoid activity. [5] Dexamethasone’s effect on the body occurs in a variety of ways. It works by suppressing the migration of neutrophils and decreasing lymphocyte colony proliferation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dextrose (D10)

A

form of glucose

(Some tissues can also use fat or protein as an energy source but others, such as the brain and red blood cells, only use glucose. Dextrose in intravenous fluids undergoes oxidation to carbon dioxide and water, and quickly provides fluid and calories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Digoxin (Lanoxin)

A

antiarrhythmic

(Digoxin induces an increase in intracellular sodium that will drive an influx of calcium in the heart and cause an increase in contractility. Cardiac output increases with a subsequent decrease in ventricular filling pressures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dilantin (Phenytoin)

A

anti-epileptic drug

(Phenytoin is believed to protect against seizures by causing voltage-dependent block of voltage gated sodium channels. This blocks sustained high frequency repetitive firing of action potentials)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dilaudid (Hydromorphone)

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(The principal therapeutic action of hydromorphone is analgesia. Like all full opioid agonists, there is no ceiling effect for analgesia with morphine. Clinically, dosage is titrated to provide adequate analgesia and may be limited by adverse reactions, including respiratory and CNS depression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

A

calcium channel blocker that is often used to treat atrial fibrillation

(inhibits the inflow of calcium ions into the cardiac muscle during depolarization. Reduced intracellular calcium concentrations increase smooth muscle relaxation, resulting in arterial vasodilation and decreased blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dopamine (Intropin)

A

blood pressure support that can treat symptoms of shock by improving blood flow

(interacts with specific membrane receptors to produce its effects. These effects are terminated by re-uptake into the presynaptic neuron by a dopamine transporter, or by metabolic inactivation by monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) or catechol-0-methyltransferase (COMT)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

A

blood pressure support and vasoconstrictor

(Through its action on alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine induces increased vascular smooth muscle contraction, pupillary dilator muscle contraction, and intestinal sphincter muscle contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Etomidate (Amidate)

A

short-acting intravenous anesthetic agent

(It produces its effect by acting as a positive allosteric modulator on the γ-aminobutyric acid type A receptor and thus enhancing the effect of the inhibitory neurotransmitter γ-aminobutyric acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fentanyl

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid agonist, which acts primarily at the μ-opioid receptor. It is 100 times more potent than morphine resulting in an estimated conversion ratio of 1 to 100 to provide an equal degree of analgesia)

24
Q

Flagyl (Metronidazole)

A

antibiotic

(Metronidazole diffuses into the organism, inhibits protein synthesis by interacting with DNA, and causes a loss of helical DNA structure and strand breakage. Therefore, it causes cell death in susceptible organisms)

25
Q

Haldol (Haloperidol)

A

antipsychotic

(It is believed that haloperidol competitively blocks post-synaptic dopamine (D2) receptors in the brain, eliminating dopamine neurotransmission and leading to the relief of delusions and hallucinations that are commonly associated with psychosis)

26
Q

Heparin (Lovenox)

A

anticoagulant

(Heparin is a sulfated polysaccharide with a molecular weight range of 3000 to 30 000 Da (mean, 15 000 Da). It produces its major anticoagulant effect by inactivating thrombin and activated factor X (factor Xa) through an antithrombin (AT)-dependent mechanism)

27
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide, HydroDiuril, and Oretic)

A

diuretic used to treat hypertension

(Hydrochlorothiazide inhibits sodium chloride transport in the distal convoluted tubule. More sodium is then excreted in the kidney with accompanying fluid. Pharmacological effects begin in about 2 hours after an oral dose, peak in 4 hours, and lasts for about 6 to 12 hours)

28
Q

Ibuprofen (Motrin or Advil)

A

anti-inflammatory and fever reducer

(The main mechanism of action of ibuprofen is the non-selective, reversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase enzymes COX-1 and COX-2)

29
Q

Insulin (Novolog, Humulin, etc.)

A

used to treat diabetes by lowering the levels of blood glucose

(Insulin stimulation of glucose uptake occurs through translocation of GLUT4-containing storage vesicles (GSVs) to the plasma membrane. The resultant increase in intracellular glucose-6-phosphate production, together with a coordinated dephosphorylation of glycogen metabolic proteins, enables net glycogen synthesis)

30
Q

Cephalexin (Keflex)

A

antibiotic

(Cephalexin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading breakdown and eventualy cell death. Well absorbed from the upper gastrointestinal tract with nearly 100% oral bioavailability. Cephalexin is not absorbed in the stomach but is absorbed in the upper intestine)

31
Q

Ketamine (Ketalar)

A

general anesthetic

32
Q

Lasix (Furosemide)

A

diuretic

(Furosemide, like other loop diuretics, acts by inhibiting the luminal Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, by binding to the Na-K-2Cl transporter, thus causing more sodium, chloride, and potassium to be excreted in the urine)

33
Q

Lisinopril (Zestril and Privinil)

A

ACE inhibitor; treats hypertension and heart failure

(Lisinopril inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in human subjects and animals. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor substance, angiotensin II. Angiotensin II also stimulates aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex)

34
Q

Levaquin (Levofloxacin)

A

antibiotic

(The mechanism of action of levofloxacin and other fluoroquinolone antimicrobials involves inhibition of bacterial topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase (both of which are type II topoisomerases), enzymes required for DNA replication, transcription, repair and recombination)

35
Q

Lidocaine

A

local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic

(Lidocaine can block Na+ and K+ ion channels and regulate intracellular and extracellular calcium concentrations through other ligand-gated ion channels. Lidocaine was the first sodium channel blocker to be identified. Its main mechanism of action is blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels (VGSC/NaVs)).

36
Q

Marcaine (Bupivacaine)

A

local anesthetic

(Bupivacaine blocks the generation and the conduction of nerve impulses, presumably by increasing the threshold for electrical excitation in the nerve, by slowing the propagation of the nerve impulse, and by reducing the rate of rise of the action potential).

37
Q

Methadone

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever that can be used to treat narcotic drug addiction

(Methadone is a synthetic opioid analgesic with full agonist activity at the µ-opioid receptor. While agonism of the µ-opioid receptor is the primary mechanism of action for the treatment of pain, methadone also acts as an agonist of κ- and σ-opioid receptors within the central and peripheral nervous systems)

38
Q

Metoprolol (Lopressor and Toprol XL)

A

beta-blocker that is used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure

(Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-1-adrenergic receptor inhibitor that competitively blocks beta1-receptors with minimal or no effects on beta-2 receptors at oral doses of less than 100 mg in adults. It decreases cardiac output by negative inotropic and chronotropic effects).

39
Q

Morphine

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(The net effect of morphine is the activation of descending inhibitory pathways of the CNS as well as inhibition of the nociceptive afferent neurons of the PNS, which leads to an overall reduction of the nociceptive transmission)

40
Q

Narcan (Naloxone)

A

opiate receptor blocker; treats narcotic overdose

(It is an opioid antagonist—meaning that it binds to opioid receptors and can reverse and block the effects of other opioids, such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone. Administered when a patient is showing signs of opioid overdose, naloxone is a temporary treatment and its effects do not last long)

41
Q

Norco (Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen)

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(Hydrocodone is full opioid agonist with relative selectivity for the mu-opioid (μ) receptor, although it can interact with other opioid receptors at higher doses. The principal therapeutic action of hydrocodone is analgesia)

42
Q

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

A

relaxes vascular smooth muscle and is used to treat chest pain by dilating the coronary arteries

(As with other nitrates used to treat anginal chest pain, nitroglycerin converts to nitric oxide (NO) in the body. NO then activates the enzyme guanylyl cyclase, which converts guanosine triphosphate (GTP) to guanosine 3’,5’-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle and other tissues).

43
Q

Oxycontin (oxycodone)

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(Oxycodone has the same mechanism of action as other opioids: binding to a receptor, inhibition of adenylyl-cyclase and hyperpolarisation of neurons, and decreased excitability)

44
Q

Percocet (oxycodone acetaminophen)

A

narcotic - opioid pain reliever

(Oxycodone produces respiratory depression by direct action on brain stem respiratory centers. The respiratory depression involves a reduction in the responsiveness of the brain stem respiratory centers to both increases in carbon dioxide tension and electrical stimulation)

45
Q

Phenergan (Promethazine)

A

antihistamine that is also used to treat nausea

(Promethazine is a an antagonist of histamine H1, post-synaptic mesolimbic dopamine, alpha adrenergic, muscarinic, and NMDA receptors. The antihistamine action is used to treat allergic reactions. Antagonism of muscarinic and NMDA receptors contribute to its use as a sleep aid, as well as for anxiety and tension)

46
Q

Plavix (Clopidogrel)

A

anticoagulant

(The active metabolite of clopidogrel selectively inhibits the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its platelet P2Y12 receptor and the subsequent ADP- mediated activation of the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, thereby inhibiting platelet aggregation. This action is irreversible)

47
Q

Prednisone (Deltasone)

A

steroid that is also used as an anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressant

(Prednisone decreases inflammation via suppression of the migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and reversing increased capillary permeability. It also suppresses the immune system by reducing the activity and the volume of the immune system)

48
Q

Propofol (Diprivan)

A

general anesthetic

(A widely used intravenous anesthetic that acts by enhancing GABAergic inhibitory activity in the brain. Propofol can directly activate the GABAA receptor or, when coapplied with GABA or other agonists, potentiate the response to the transmitter)

49
Q

Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)

A

antibiotic

(Ceftriaxone is a bactericidal agent that acts by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis. Ceftriaxone has activity in the presence of some beta-lac- tamases, both penicillinases and cephalosporinases, of Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria)

50
Q

Simvistatin (Zocor)

A

treats high cholesterol

(Using acetyl-CoA as a substrate, mevalonic acid is formed, and subsequent reactions lead to the formation of cholesterol. Simvastatin acts on the rate-limiting step and serves as an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, consequently leading to decreased cholesterol concentrations)

51
Q

Solumedrol (Methylprednisolone)

A

steroid that is also used as an anti-inflammatory

(By reversing capillary permeability, suppressing the migration of fibroblasts and polymorphonuclear leukocytes, controlling the rate of protein synthesis, and stabilizing lysosomes at the cellular level, methylprednisolone may control or prevent inflammation through these actions as well)

52
Q

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

A

diuretic used to treat hypertension

(A specific pharmacologic antagonist of aldosterone, acting primarily through competitive binding of receptors at the aldosterone-dependent sodium-potassium exchange site in the distal convoluted renal tubule)

53
Q

Succinylcholine (Sux)

A

paralytic that is used to induce muscle relaxation and short-term paralysis

(A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, succinylcholine adheres to post-synaptic cholinergic receptors of the motor endplate, inducing continuous disruption that results in transient fasciculations or involuntary muscle contractions and subsequent skeletal muscle paralysis)

54
Q

Toradol (Ketorolac Tromethamine)

A

anti-inflammatory

(A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used to treat moderately severe pain and inflammation, usually after surgery. Toradol works by blocking the production of prostaglandins, compounds that cause pain, fever, and inflammation)

55
Q

TPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator)

A

thrombolytic used to dissolve blood clots

(tPA attaches to the fibrin on the clot surface. It activates the fibrin-bound plasminogen. Plasmin is subsequently cleaved from the plasminogen affiliated with the fibrin. The plasmin breaks up the molecules of fibrin, and the clot dissolves)

56
Q

Xanax (Alprazolam)

A

benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety

(Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that binds γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) type-A receptors (GABAARs) to enhance their inhibitory effect on neurotransmission, specifically in the brain)

57
Q

Versed (Midazolam)

A

sedative

(Midazolam acts on glycine receptors and produces a muscle-relaxing effect. Almost all the pharmacologic effects, including sedation, anxiolysis, anterograde amnesia, and anticonvulsant effect, can are explainable through its action on GABA receptors)

58
Q

Zofran (Ondansetron)

A

antiemetic

(Ondansetron is used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery. Ondansetron is in a class of medications called serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonists. It works by blocking the action of serotonin, a natural substance that may cause nausea and vomiting)

59
Q

Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam)

A

antibiotic

(Piperacillin sodium exerts bactericidal activity by inhibiting septum formation and cell wall synthesis of susceptible bacteria. In vitro, piperacillin is active against a variety of gram-positive and gram-negative aerobic and anaerobic bacteria)