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EAWS:) > Common Core > Flashcards

Common Core Flashcards

1
Q

PACOM

A

US Pacific Command

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2
Q

Location of PACOM?

A

Camp smith, Hawaii

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3
Q

EUCOM

A

US European Command

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4
Q

Location of EUCOM?

A

Stuttgart, Germany

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5
Q

SOUTHCOM

A

US Southern command

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6
Q

Location of southcom?

A

Miami, Florida

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7
Q

CENTCOM

A

US central command

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8
Q

Location of CENTCOM?

A

Tampa Bay, Florida

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9
Q

NORTHCOM

A

US Northern command

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10
Q

Location of Northern command?

A

Colorado Springs, Colorado

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11
Q

SOCOM

A

US Special Operation command

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12
Q

Location of SOCOM?

A

Tampa bay , Florida

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13
Q

TRANSCOM

A

US Transportation Command

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14
Q

Location of TRANSCOM?

A

Scott Airforce Base, Illinois

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15
Q

STRATCOM

A

US Strategic Command

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16
Q

Location of STRATCOM

A

Offutt Air Force Base, Nebraska

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17
Q

AFRICOM

A

US Africa Command

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18
Q

Location of AFRICOM?

A

Stuttgart, Germany

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19
Q

2nd Fleet

A

Operates in the Atlantic Ocean located in Norfolk Virginia

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20
Q

3rd Fleet

A

Operated in Eastern Pacific Ocean located in San Diego, CA

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21
Q

4th Fleet

A

Operates in the Caribbean, Central and South America Located in Mayport, Florida

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22
Q

5th Fleet

A

Operates in the Arabian Gulf/Indian Ocean/Persian Gulf located in Manama, Bahrain

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23
Q

6th Fleet

A

Operates in the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea located in Gaeta, Italy

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24
Q

7th Fleet

A

Operates in the Western Pacific /Indian Ocean located in Yokosuka, Japan

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25
Q

10th Fleet

A

Operates in conjunction with the 2nd through 7th Fleets .

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26
Q

3 objectives of First Aid?

A

Maintain breathing
Stop bleeding
Prevent or treat for shock

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27
Q

Basic wounds

A

11 basic wounds

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28
Q

What are the 11 basic wounds ?

A
  1. Fractures
  2. Sucking chest wound
  3. Abdominal Evisceration
  4. Massive Hemorrhage with Amputation
  5. Laceration
  6. Electrical Shock
  7. Smoke inhalation
  8. Burns
  9. Hypothermia
  10. Heat stress
  11. Puncture wound
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29
Q

Kinds of fracture?

A

Open and closed

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30
Q

Assessing CAB?

A

Circulation
Airway
Breathing

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31
Q

How many compressions / breaths?

A

30 compressions/2 breaths

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32
Q

How to apply Tourniquet?

A

2-3 inches above the wound , -never over a joint and never -release a tourniquet once applied.

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33
Q

What to do for electrical shock?

A
  • secure the power source

- If it cant be secured , use a Non-conductive object to move casualty away from source .

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34
Q

First line treatment for smoke Inhalation?

A

Oxygen

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35
Q

1st degree burn

A

Red skin, mild pain

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36
Q

2nd degree burn

A

Red skin, blisters, severe pain

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37
Q

3rd degree burn

A

Charred black skin/tissue , may or may not be painful due to nerve damage

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38
Q

Identifying a penetrating object

A

Do not remove it

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39
Q

3 ways to control bleeding

A
  • direct pressure
  • pressure points
  • tourniquet
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40
Q

When a bone is forcibly removed from its joint is called?

A

Dislocation

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41
Q

Injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint are called?

A

Sprains

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42
Q

Adult CPR

A

Deliver first 30 compressions .

  • Must be at least 2 inches deep at are of at least 100 per minute
  • complete 5 cycles
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43
Q

Operational Risk Management

(ORM) is what?

A

Decision making tool used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

  • used on and off duty
  • requires a constant review for new hazards or engineering controls.
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44
Q

5 steps for ORM process?

A
  • identify hazard
  • Assess hazard
  • make risk decisions
  • implement controls
  • supervise
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45
Q

3 different MISHAP classes

A
  • Class A results in material property damage of 2 million$ or more.
  • Class B results in 500k$ or more but less than 2million $
  • Class C results in 50k$ or more but less than 500k$
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46
Q

PPE

A

Program was established as a last line of defense in the event of equipment breakdown,failure, misuse to include hazardous environments and working conditions that exposes worker to hazard.

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47
Q

Aviation MISHAPS

A
  • Human Error
  • maintenance and support factors
  • Administrative and supervisory factors
  • Material failure or malfunction
  • Environmental Factors
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48
Q

CBR

A

Chemical, biological, Radiological warfare

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49
Q

The use of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to physiological effect is called?

A

Chemical Warfare

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50
Q

Types of Chemical Agents

A
  • Nerve agent
  • blister agent
  • blood agent
  • choking agent
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51
Q

What detects the presence of liquid chemical agents?

A

M9 Chemical Agent Detector paper

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52
Q

What color does the M9 Agent Detector Paper turn when liquid chemical agents are present?

A

Red

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53
Q

What is used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties ?

A

Atropine

2 - PAM-Chloride auto injector

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54
Q

The use of agents to cause disease , sickness , or death to reduce combat forces is called ?

A

Biological warfare

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55
Q

Biological agents

A
  • Pathogens

- Toxins

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56
Q

Individual Protective Equipment for Chemical / Biological warfare?

A
  • MCU-2P with (C2 canister Filter)
  • Advanced chemical protective garment
  • Chemical gloves and liners
  • chemical over boots and laces
  • Skin decontamination kit
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57
Q

To produce widespread injury and death to all life is what kind of warfare?

A

Radiological warfare

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58
Q

Types of nuclear explosions

A
  • High Altitude Air burst in excess of 100,000 feet.
  • surface burst
  • shallow underwater burst
  • Deep water burst
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59
Q

MOPP

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

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60
Q

MOPP level 1

A

Afloat- mask. Gloves readily available

Ashore-Don protective equipment, M9 tape

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61
Q

MOPP level 2

A

Afloat-Mask carried. Decon supplies stage

Ashore-don protective over - boots

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62
Q

MOPP level 3

A

Afloat- GQ, install filter, don over-boots

Ashore- Fill canteens. Activate decon stations

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63
Q

MOPP level 4

A

Afloat- don mask/hood,gloves, circle William, countermeasure washdown

Ashore-gloves with liners, untie now in retention cord, loop between legs and secure web belt

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64
Q

Primary duty of a firefighter

A

Save lives

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65
Q

What allows the fire to both sustain itself and grow ?

A

Chemical chain reaction.

4th element to a fire

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66
Q

A series of measure designed to increase the level of a units defense against terrorist attacks is called?

A

Force protection conditions

FPCON

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67
Q

AFFF

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam

-unlimited shelf life when stored in protected area. 3% and 6% AFFF approved for naval use

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68
Q

Halon 1211

A

Colorless, faintly sweet smell, electrical non conductive has that leaves no residue to clean up. Removes chemical chain reaction

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69
Q

CO2

A

Carbon dioxide
Colorless, odorless gas.
Removes the oxygen that supports the fire

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70
Q

PKP

A

Potassium Bicarbonate.
Purple - K - Powder
Extinguished flame by breaking combustion chain.
No cooling capabilities reflash can occur

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71
Q

Effective agents for Class Alpha Fires

A

H2O

AFFF

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72
Q

Effective agents for Class Bravo fires?

A

AFFF
Halon 1211
PKP
CO2

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73
Q

Effective Agents for Class Charlie fires?

A

Energized- CO2,Halon, PKP, H2O in fog patterns at 4 ft.

De- Energized- treat as Class A,B,C, or D fire

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74
Q

Effective Agents for Class Delta fires?

A

H2O in large quantities at high velocity fog.

Small explosions may occur so apply water form safe distance

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75
Q

Safety equipment for flight deck

A
  • Flight deck ( steel toed ) safety shoes
  • cranial impact helmet
  • protective eye goggles
  • leather gloves
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76
Q

Runways

A

Paved areas used for aircraft takeoff and landing

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77
Q

Threshold markings

A

Parallel stripes at end of runways .

Stripes are 12 ft. Wide by 150 ft. Long and designates the landing area.

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78
Q

Overrun area

A

Paved or unpaved section on the ends of the runways. Provides an effective deceleration area or aborting or overshooting aircraft .

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79
Q

MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier

A

Designed to stop tricycle landing gear aircraft with no tail hooks.
Always in standby in case an about takeoff or overrun landing

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80
Q

Taxiways

A

Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways , and airfield services

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81
Q

Parking apron

A

Used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft.

Connected to the runways by taxiways

82
Q

Compass calibration pad

Compass Rose

A

Paved area in a magnetically quiet area where aircraft compass is calibrated

83
Q

Runway numbering system

A

Runways numbered in relation to magnetic heading rounded off to nearest 10 degrees.

Ex: runway of 250 degrees is runway 25.
If 2 runways whose centerline is parallel , runway will be 25L or 25R. If 3 parallel runways , C- center is added.

84
Q

Airfield rotating beacon

A

Used to identify the airports location.

It rotates clockwise at constant speed and military airfields use 2 white lights and 1 green flashing 12-15 times per minute

85
Q

Yellow Jersey

A
  • Aircraft Handling Officer
  • Flight deck officer
  • Catapult officer
  • Air Bos’n
  • Arresting gear officer
  • Plane directors
86
Q

White Jersey

A
  • Safety Department
  • Air Transport Officer
  • Landing Signal Officer
  • Squadron Plane Instructors( trouble shooter)
  • medical
87
Q

Brown Jerseys

A

Plane Captains

88
Q

Blue Jerseys

A
  • Aircraft Handling and chock and chain crewman.

- elevator operators

89
Q

Green Jerseys

A
  • Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel
  • Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel
  • Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man
  • photographers
90
Q

Red Jerseys

A
  • Crash and salvage
  • Explosive Ordinance Disposal
  • Ordinance Handling personnel
91
Q

Purple Jerseys

A

Aviation Fuel Crew

92
Q

Bomb Jettison Ramp

A

Designated to eliminate loose ordinance .

93
Q

Steam Smothering

A

Identified by an 18” black stripe with a 3” white “ STEAM” stencil

94
Q

Categories of Aircraft Tie - downs

A

-Up to 45 knots- initial tie down is minimum 6 chains and used immediately prior to, in between, or immediately after flight.

  • Up to 45 knots- normal weather tie- down is 9 chains.
  • 46 to 60 knots- moderate weather tie- down is 14 chains.
  • Above 60 knots- heavy weather tie-down is 20 chains.
95
Q

FPCON Normal

A

Applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture

96
Q

FPCON ALPHA

A

Applies when an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities are unpredictable

97
Q

FPCON BRAVO

A

Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of territory activity exists.

98
Q

FPCON CHARLIE

A

Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.

99
Q

FPCON DELTA

A

Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred .

100
Q

DEFCON

A

Defense readiness condition is an alert posture used by the United Stated Armed Forces .

  • Developed by joint chief of staffs .
  • Has 5 graduated levels of readiness
101
Q

DEFCON 5

A

Normal peace readiness

102
Q

DEFCON 4

A

Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures

103
Q

DEFCON 3

A

Increase in force readiness above normal readiness

104
Q

DEFCON 2

A

Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum

105
Q

DEFCON 1

A

Maximum force readiness

106
Q

3 maintenance levels in NAMP?

A
  • O level
  • I level
  • D level
107
Q

O- level in NAMP?

A

Maintain aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.

108
Q

I- level in NAMP?

A

Mission is to enhance and sustain combat readiness and mission capabilities

109
Q

D- level in NAMP?

A

Ensure flying integrity of airframes and flight systems.

110
Q

2 types of maintenance described in NAMP?

A

Rework and upkeep

111
Q

Rework

A

Restorative or additive work performed on aircraft and equipment

112
Q

Upkeep

A

Preventive , restorative , or additive work performed on aircraft and equipment

113
Q

FCF

A

Functional Check Flight
-used to determine whether the airframe, accessories, and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards.

114
Q

SFF

A

Safe For Flight
-material condition of an aircraft which, considering mission requirements and environmental conditions, permit it to be launched , flown and landed safely and ensures aircrew has minimum operable equipment

115
Q

NATOPS

A
  • Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization.
  • program is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate.
116
Q

NATOPS terms and phrases

A
  • warning
  • caution
  • note
  • shall
  • should
  • may
  • will
117
Q

Warning

A

Operating procedure , practice , or condition that may result in injury

118
Q

Caution

A

Operating procedure , practice, or condition that may result in damage of equipment if not followed

119
Q

Note

A

An operating procedure , practice, or condition that must be emphasized .

120
Q

Shall

A

Means a procedure that is mandatory

121
Q

Should

A

Means a procedure that is recommended

122
Q

May

A

May and need not mean the procedure is optional

123
Q

Will

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

124
Q

November 14, 1910

A
  • First take off from a ship
  • Eugene Ely a civilian pilot took off a 50-hp Curtiss plane from a wooden platform built on the bow of USS BIRMINGHAM. (CL2)
  • Ship was anchored in Hampton Roads, VA. And Ely landed safely in Willoughby Spit.
125
Q

May 8, 1911

A

Captain W.I. Chambers prepared requisitions for 2 Curtiss biplanes.

  • Requisitions lacked signatures from the chief of the bureau of Navigation but they did indicate capt. chambers decision as to which airplanes the navy should purchase.
  • BIRTHDAY OF NAVAL AVIATION
126
Q

June 20, 1913

A

Ensign William Billingsley piloting the B2 at 1600 ft. Over the water near Annaplois, Md. fell to his death.
- first fatality of naval aviation

127
Q

March 20, 1922

A

-the Jupiter , a former coal carrier, was converted to the navy’s first carrier. The “ USS LANGLEY”

128
Q

1948

A

Navy first commissioned helicopter squadron.

  • ( HU-1)
  • first carrier landing was made by a US navy jet
  • (FJ-1 Fury ) lands aboard the USS Boxer)
129
Q

May 5, 1961

A

Naval aviator Alan shepherd became first American to go into space at a flight 116 miles high and 302 miles down range before being recovered by a navy HUS-1 helicopter and USS Lake Champlain

130
Q

July 20-21, 1969

A

Naval Aviator Neil Armstrong walked m on the moon

131
Q

1994

A

First female naval aviator to pass fleet carrier qualifications in combat aircraft.

132
Q

May 7-8, 1942

A

-CORAL SEA

Worlds first carrier vs. carrier battle . USS Lexington was sunk and the USS Yorktown was damaged. Both sides withdrew.

133
Q

June 3-5, 1942

A

-MIDWAY
It was the turning point of the pacific war. US had 3 carriers and no battle ships.
- Admiral Nimitz positioned 3 carriers , the USS Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown our of Japanese range.
-Japanese planes sank the USS Yorktown
-US sank all 4 Japanese carriers

134
Q

November 13-15, 1942

A
  • GUADACANAL
  • 3 days of bitter fighting , Japanese naval forces retreated and US marines secured the island of Guadalcanal.
  • USS Juneau was involved in battle.
  • 5 Sullivan brothers from Waterloo , IOWA stayed together on ship. Navy policy was to put family members on different ships .
  • Sullivan’s and 700 others were lost after being torpedoed. A ship was named in their honor.
135
Q

2001

A
  1. Sept. 11, 2001- hijackers flew 2 767 airliners into the twin Workd Trade Center.
    - (2) Boeing 757s were also hijacked and (1)flew into the pentagon and the other in southern Pennsylvania.
    -3000 people from 80 nations killed.
136
Q

September 30, 2001

A

US flag that was raised over the rubble of the World Trade Center was hoisted onboard the USS Theodore Roosevelt.

137
Q

October 7, 2001

A

Operation Enduring Freedom commences, and aircraft from the USS Enterprise launches the first strike of the war in retaliation of the terrorist attacks.

138
Q

November 25, 2001

A

The longest amphibious aerial assault in history.

-Marine aground units are airlifted from the Arabian Sea and into Kandahar Afghanistan, as the taliban collapses.

139
Q

Reconnaissance/surveillance

A

Search for interception,recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.

140
Q

Anti submarine

A

Used to locate and destroy submarines.

141
Q

Amphibious assault

A

Taking of an area of land where land and sea meet

142
Q

Logistics support

A

Transport of troops, personnel, and cargo or equipment where needed by military

143
Q

Search and Rescue

A

Aircraft or helicopters assigned to search and rescue downed , stranded, or disabled military personnel rather land or sea

144
Q

Mine warfare

A

Use of ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines

145
Q

First Aircraft Carrier

A
  • USS Langley
  • March 20, 1922
  • the Jupiter , a former coal carrier converted to the USS Langley ( CV-1)
146
Q

First Jet Powered Naval Aircraft

A
  • (FH-1) Phantom
  • July 21, 1946
  • first Test flight made by CDR James Davidson and a successful take-off and landing from the USS Franklin D. Roosevelt. (CVB-42).
147
Q

March 10, 1948

A

-(FJ-1) Fury made the navy’s first operational landings and takeoffs at sea onboard he USS Boxer.( CV 21)

148
Q

First Naval Aviator In Space

A

-Alan Shepherd on May 5, 1961

149
Q

1st MCPON

A

MCPON Delbert Black

-Jan. 13, 1967 thru Apr. 01, 1971

150
Q

How many MCPONS in Navy history

A

15.

- 15 MCPON is MCPON Russel Smith

151
Q

The sailors creed was written by

A

Blue Ribbon Recruit Training Panel In 1993 at the direction of the CNO Admiral Frank Kelso .
-he participated in the final edit of the working and then directed that every recruit commit to it by memory.

152
Q

Navy core values

A

Honor- I will bear true faith and allegiance

Courage- I will support and defend

Commitment- I will obey the orders

153
Q

Oldest US Navy commissioned Vessel

A

USS Constitution , named Brian president George Washington.

-AKA Old Ironside

154
Q

October 13, 1775

A
  • THE NAVYS BIRTHDAY.
  • the second continental congress authorized the purchase of 2 navy vessels. The first commander in chief was Esek Hopkins and put the first squadron of the continental navy at sea In February 1776.
155
Q

Hand salute

A

Began in the days of chivalry when it was customary for knights dressed in armor to raise their visors to friends for identification. Junior rank was to make the first gesture .

156
Q

Gun Salute

A

Used to honor individuals, nations, and certain national holidays .
-they always consist of odd number of guns, ranging from 5 for a vice consul to 21 for the POTUS and for rulers of foreign nations recognized by the US.

157
Q

What days do we offer a 21 gun salute ? And what time and interval?

A

Presidents’ Day
Memorial Day
Independence Day
- fires at 1 minute intervals. Commencing at 1200 and ends at 1220.

158
Q

Colors

A

Hoisting and lowering of the national flag at 0800 and sunset..
- known as morning and evening colors.

159
Q

TR is the what class carrier ?

A

Fourth Nimitz class carries made

160
Q

When was the TR commissioned

A

October 25, 1986

161
Q

Captain Paul W. parcells

A

TRs first COMMANDING Officer

162
Q

Former TR command Mastwr chiefs to become MCPONS?

A
  • Duane R. Bushey

- James L. Herdt

163
Q

What is TR family Motto?

A

He who has planted will preserve

164
Q

Mooring line in outer ring has how many strands and why?

A

58 strands . TR was born in 1858

165
Q

What are the 3 types of motions for flight ?

A
  • Linear motion
  • Angular motion
  • General motion
166
Q

Newton’s first law of motion

A

Inertia- an object at rest will remain at rest

167
Q

Newton’s second law of motion

A

Force-if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon an external force, the change of motion or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
—The acceleration of the object will be directly impacted by the size of the external object.

168
Q

Newton’s third law of motion ?

A

Action and reaction- for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

169
Q

Bernoulli’s principle states that?

A

When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube , the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and it’s pressure decreased.

170
Q

4 forces that affect flight ?

A

Lift
Weight
Drag
Thrust

171
Q

Aircraft Axis

A

Longitudinal ( roll)
Lateral ( pitch)
Vertical (yaw)

172
Q

Fixed aircraft Axis?

A

Ailerons( roll)- longitudinal
Elevators (pitch)- lateral
Rudder (yaw)- vertical

173
Q

Rotary aircraft Axis?

A

The cyclic stick ( roll/pitch)- longitudinal and lateral.

Tail rotor ( yaw)- vertical

174
Q

Different engine systems?

A

Turbojet
Turbo shaft
Turboprop
Turbofan

175
Q

Turbojet

A

Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity

176
Q

Turbo shaft

A

Delivers power through the shaft to drive something other than the propeller

177
Q

Turboprop

A

Converting majority of the gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller

178
Q

Turbofan

A

Same as turboprop except the propeller is replaced by a duct- enclosed axial-flow fan

179
Q

HSC

A

Helicopter Sea Combat

-perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and SAR missions.

180
Q

HSM

A

Helicopter Maritime Strike

-antisubmarine and anti surface warfare. Logistics and rescue

181
Q

HT

A

Helicopter Training

- basic and advanced training for student naval aviators for rotary aircraft

182
Q

VAQ

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare
- fixes wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems

183
Q

VAW

A

Carrier airborne early warning

-fixed wing squadrons that provide early warning against weather , missiles, shipping, and aircraft

184
Q

VC

A

Fleet composite

-fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for fleet

185
Q

VFA

A

Strike fighter

-fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions

186
Q

VP

A

Patrol

-fixed wing land based squadrons that perform anti submarine warfare, anti surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.

187
Q

VQ

A

Fleet Air Reconnaissance
- fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording , and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy

188
Q

VR

A

Aircraft Logistics Support

-fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies

189
Q

VRC

A

Carrier Logistics Support

Fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for Carrier onboard delivery

190
Q

VT

A

Training

-fixed wing squadrons that provide basic and advanced training for naval student aviators

191
Q

VX/VXE

A

Air test and Evaluation

-fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment .

192
Q

3 types of hangars used in naval Aviation?

A

Type 1, 2 , and 3

193
Q

Type 1 hangar

A

Designed for carrier aircraft but can be used for rotary and and smaller aircraft

194
Q

Type 2 hangar

A

Provides for US Marine Corps Aviation. Also to accommodate CH-53 Hilo’s. V-22 Ospreys, and C-130 Hercules aircraft

195
Q

Type 3 hangar

A

Designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft

196
Q

October 2010

A

The CNO signed the Navy Energy Vision

197
Q

Navy Energy Vision sets the goal to ensure the navy does what?

A
  • Values energy as a strategic resource
  • understands how energy security is vital to executing the Navy’s Mission
  • is resilient to any future energy challenge
198
Q

Commanding officer of TR?

A

Capt. Brett Crozier

198
Q

Executive officer for TR?

A

Capt. Pete Riebe

199
Q

CMC for TR?

A

CMDCM Micheal Mashburn

EAWS:) (10 decks)

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