Commercial Flashcards

1
Q

Commercial Pilot Eligibility (#)

A

1) 18 yrs
2) English
3) At least a PPL
3) Endorsement and pass Knowledge Test
5) Endorsement for required training and preparedness for practical
6) Experience requirements
7) Practical test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Document requirement to serve as crewmember (#)

A

1) Pilot cert
2) Medical cert
3) Photo ID
4) FI cert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Day Currency

A

3 T/O and Landings within 90 days as sole manipulator in same category, class, and type.
Tailwheel = full stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Night Currency

A

+- 1 hour of sunset
3 T/O and Landings, FULL STOP, within 90 days as sole manipulator in same category, class, and type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Flight Review - frequency, time, content, exceptions

A

24 months by an authorized instructor
1 hour of flight and 1 hour of ground
Pt 91 flight rules and maneuvers
No necessary if: cert, rating, including FI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Conditions to logging Training Received

A

May log when received from an authorized instructor and endorsed, with description.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Required Logbook Data (#)

A

1) Date
2) Flight time
3) Departure and arrival
4) Type and ID of aircraft
5) Name of safety pilot, if required
6) Type of training
7) Conditions of flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When can a pilot log PIC? (#)

A

1) Sole manipulator of controls
2) Sole occupant of aircraft
3) Acting as PIC in two-pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Logbook - Types of Training (#)

A

1) Solo
2) PIC
3) SIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Logbook - Conditions of Flight (#)

A

1) Day or night
2) Actual instument
3) Simulated instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Logbook - Instrument Time Definition

A

May log instument time only for that portion of the flight when a person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Commercial Privileges

A

Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with the FARs that apply to the operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Commercial Limitations

A

If no IR, not allowed carraige for hire if XC > 50 miles or night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First Class Med Required

A

Exercising PIC under ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Second Class Med Required (#)

A

Exercising (a) SIC under ATP or (b) commercial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Third Class Med Required (3)

A

1) PPL, Rec, or Student
2) FI
3) Practical test AND DPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First Class Expiration <40 on date of exam

A

Last day of
12th month for 1st and 2nd
60th month for 3rd class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

First Class Expiration >40 on date of exam

A

Last day of
6th month for 1st
12th month for 2nd
24th month for 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Do you need your logbook?

A

Not in plane, but if asked by enforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basic med requirements (#)

A

1) US DL
2) Medical > 2006
3) Not revoked or denied
4) Med course within 24 months
5) MEd exam <48 month
6) Care and treatment of a phsyician
7) National Driver Register check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Basic Med Aircraft and Operating Restrictions (#)

A

1) Aircraft <=6 occupants
2) <= 6k lbs
3) Carry <= 5 pax
4) VFR or IFR, but <18k and <250kts
5) Not for compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Currency vs Proficiency

A

currency = minimum required by law; profieciency = safe and competent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Removing or installing equipment not on equipment list requires

A

New empty weight and CG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Repairs and alterations types (#)

A

1) Major (requiring FAA)
2) Minor (A&P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Required Documents
ARROW 1) Airworthiness 2) Registration 3) Radio operators (if intl) 4) Operating Limitations (AFM/POH) 5) Weight and balance certificate
26
Duration of registration certificates
Seven Years
27
Required Inspections
AV1ATES 1) Annual 2) VOR within 30 days, logbook 3) 100 hour 4) Altimeter/pitot 24 months 5) Transponder 24 month 6) ELT 12 months
28
Types of Airworthiness Directives (#)
1) Standard AD 2) Emergency AD 3) Special or Service Bulletins
29
Added Cert Required for Annual Maintenance Inspection
A&P who holds an Inspection Authorization
30
Preventative maintenance restriction
Doesn't involve complex assembly
31
Equipment Decision Tree
KOEL or MEL 91.205 ... TOMATO FFLAMES and FLAPS
32
VFR Required Equipment
TOMATO FFLAMES Tachometer for each engine Oil pressure gauge for each engine Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine Airspeed Indicator Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank Flotation gear (if operated for hire over water beyond power-off glide distance from shore) Landing gear position indicator Altimeter Magnetic compass Emergency Locator Transmitter Safety belts/Shoulder Harnesses
33
VFR Night Required Equipment
FLAPS Fuses (if required) Landing Light (Electric) Anti-Collision Lights Position Lights Source of electricity for all installed electrical and radio equipment
34
Weather Sources (#)
1) FSS 2) Aviationweather.gov 3) Foreflight 4) Windy
35
Weather Products (#)
1) Surface analysis chart 2) GFA (ceilings, winds, freezing, temps, etc, thunderstorms, etc) (18 hours) 3) METARs and TAFS (24 hour) 4) PiReps 5) Prog Charts (7 days) 6) Forecast disucssions 7) IWAs ... AIRMETS and SIGMETS, Convective SIGMETS
36
Types of AIRMETS (3)
1) Sierra - IFR 2) Tango - Turb and winds 3) Zulu - Ice
37
Relevant atmoshperic levels for aviation (#)
1) Troposhpere (~36k ft, temp decreases with height) 2) Tropopause 3) Straosphere (up to 31 miles high, temp increases with height)
38
Standard Atmosphere
59F/15C, 29.92” Hg
39
Farenheit to Celsius
°F = °C × (9/5) + 32
40
Coriolis deflection above equator
To the right
41
Temp change per 1000 feet
2C
42
Necessary conditions for precip (#)
1) Water 2) Lifting 3) Nuclei
43
Front definition
Boundary between two air masses
44
Cold front characteristics (#)
1) Steep 2) Move faster 3) Steep, showery clouds right behind it
45
Warm front characteristics (#)
1) Sloped 2) Slower 3) Layered, stratiform clouds well behind it. Can be embeded as you get closer to the transition layer.
46
Ocluded front description
Cold front catches up to another cold front, pushing the warm front above both.
47
Sources of vertical lifting
1) Orographic 2) Frontal 3) Thermal
48
High Cloud height and types (#)
>16.5k 1) Cirrus 2) Cirrocumulus 3) Cirrostratus
49
Middle Cloud height and types (#)
>6.5k 1) Altocumulus 2) Altocumulus Lenticularis 3) Altostratus 4) Nimbostratus
50
Low Cloud height and types (#)
SFC 1) Cumulus 2) Stratocumulus 3) Stratus 4) Cumulonimbus
51
Types of turbulence (#)
1) Convective 2) Mechanical 3) Wind Shear
52
Phases of a thunderstorm (#)
1) Developing 2) Mature 3) Dissipating
53
Types of Ice (#)
1) Rime 2) Clear 3) Mixed
54
Types of fog (#)
1) Radiation 2) Mountain 3) Advection 4) Upslope 5) Frontal 6) Steam 7) Freezing
55
Risk Checklist (#)
PAVE 1) Pilot 2) Aircraft 3) Evironment 4) External pressures
56
Class E Vis and Cloud
<10k, 3512 >10k, 5111
57
Class D Shape
4nm, 2500ft
58
Class D Vis and Cloud
3512
59
Class C Shape
Layer cake, 5nm core sfc to 4k, 10nm shelf 1200 to 4k
60
Transponder Requirements (#)
1) >10k 2) Class B and veil (30nm) 3) Class C and above 4) Within 10 miles of certain airports 5) ADIZ
61
Airspeeds (#)
1) <250, <10k 2) <200 within 4 miles and <2500AGL of C and D 3) <200 under Class B
62
Class E Shape
14.5-18k, 700 or 1200 AGL to 18k near airports, surface extensions, airways
63
Class C Vis and Cloud
3512
64
Student Pilot not allowed in which airspace
Class A, Class B (although can get endorsement)
65
Airspace that does not require radio comm
Class G and Class E
66
Class B Shape
Upside down wedding cake, 10k MSL
67
Class B viz and cloud
3SM, clear of clouds
68
Glass G viz and cloud
<1200 AGL Day - 1SM, clear of clouds <1200 AGL Night - 3512 <10k Day - 1512 <10k Night - 3512 >10k - 5111
69
Special Use Airspace (#)
1) Prohibited 2) Restricted (permissions) 3) Warning / Alert / Control Firing / MOA 4) SFRA 5) TFR
70
Required preflight for all flights
Runway lengths and TO/Landing information
71
Required for IFR or XC flights (#)
1) Weather 2) Fuel 3) Altternatives 4) Traffic delays
72
Pressure altitude formula
1,000(29.92-Current Altimeter Setting) + Elevation
73
Density altitude formula
DA = 120(Current Temperature-15oC) + PA
74
Less dense air impacts (#)
1) Power 2) Thrust 3) Lift
75
Forward loading impact (#)
1) Acts heavier, so slower 2) Slower needs more nose up trim, requiring more offseting tail, increasing loading 3) Increased loading requires higher AOA, producing a higher stall speed 4) Longer CG arm makes elevator more controllable
76
Aft loading impact (#)
1) Acts lighter, so faster 2) Faster needs less nose up trim, requiring less offseting tail, decreasing loading 3) Deacreased loading requires lower AOA, producing a lower stall speed 4) Shorter CG arm makes elevator less controllable and harder to recover from stall
77
Longitudinal axis description and controlled by
Roll around length of plane, aeilerons
78
Lateral axis description and controlled by
Pitch around length of wings, elevator
79
Vertical axis description and controlled by
Yaw around center, rudder
80
Two drags, and highest at what speeds
Parasitic drag higher at high speeds INdusced drag higher at lower speeds
81
Two types of energy
Kinetic (speed) and Potential (altitude)
82
Four stroke operating cycle (#)
1) Intake 2) Compression 3) Power 4) Exhaust
83
1" HG equal to
1000 feet
84
Altimeter error saying
From hot to cold, or from high to low, look out below!
85
Emergency procedures acronym
MATL 1) Maintain control 2) Analyze 3) Take action 4) Land as soon as conditions permit
86
Types of Hypoxia (#)
1) Hypoxic - environment 2) Hypemic - transport (CO) 3) Stagnant - g forces, heart failure 4) Histotoxic - narcotics and poison
87
Hypoxia symptoms
Headaches, blue lips/fingers, euphoria, timgling, lightheaded, drowsiness
88
Hyperventilation cause
Not enough CO2
89
Illusions that you are higher than you are (#)
1) Narrow runway 2) Upsloped runway 3) Featurless terrain 4) Visibility (also looks further away)
90
Scuba wait time
12 hours, 8K feet; 24 hours > 8k feet
91
Alcohol and drug regulations (#)
1) 8 hours 2) influence of alcohol 3) .04 4) drug that affects faculties
92
ADM process (#)
1) Define 2) Course of action 3) Implement 4) Evaluate
93
Hazardous attitudes (#)
1) Anti-authority 2) Impulsivity 3) Invulnerabiolity 4) Macho 5) Resignation
94
Briefing requirements
Operation of seatbelts
95
Two main types of NOTAMS
1) D ... airports and nav aids 2) FDC ... IFR and TFR
96
Precision approach runway markings (#)
1) Threshold 2) Aiming point, 1k feet 3) RTDZ markings in 500' increments
97
Taxiway Edge Light Color
Blue
98
Taxiway Center Color
Green
99
REIL # and Color
Two, white, flashing; green for displaced threshold
100
Runway Edge Light Color
White (Yellow for last 2k)
101
End of runway light color
Red
102
Pilot controlled lighting ... clicks
3 for low, 5 for medium, 7 for high
103
Ground control ... quartering headwind
Fly level into the wind (elevator neutral)
104
Ground control ... quartering tailwind
Dive away from wind
105
Worst wake turbulence config
Heavy, slow, clean
106
Wake turbulence sink rate
300-500 ft/min, stopping at 500-900ft below
107
Worst wind for wake turbulence
1-5kts, quartering tailwind
108
Light Gun Solid Green (Ground and Air)
Cleared for Takeoff or Landing
109
Light Gun Blinking Green (Ground and Air)
Cleared for Taxi Return For Landing
110
Light Gun Solid Red (Ground and Air)
Stop Give way and circle
111
Light Gun Blinking Red (Ground and Air)
Leave runway Airport unsafe, do not land
112
Light Gun White (Ground and Air)
Return to starting point, N/A
113
Light Gun Green Red Alternating (Ground and Air)
Exercise extreme caution
114
Lost Comms Emergency Transponder
7600
115
Emergency Transponder Code
7700
116
Definition of accident
From boarding to disembarking, serious injury or substantial damage
117
Converging aircraft right of way, same category
The aircraft to the other's right
118
Converging aircraft right of way, different category
Balloon, glider, airship, refueling, towing
119
Converging aircraft, head on
Each to the right
120
Overtaking right of way
Overtake to the right
121
Right of way when approaching airport
Lower aircraft
122
P Factor
Down blade has more thrust, yawing to left
123
P Factor Highest When
High AOA and High Power
124
Minimum speed for hydroplaning
Square root of tire pressure times 9
125
LAHSO minimums
100' ceiling and 3SM viz
126
MSA Over Congested
1000' above highest obstacle withing 2000' feet
127
MSA Over Non-Congested
500' AGL unless water/rural, no closer than 500' to any person or structure
128
Spin recovery
PARE 1) Power idle 2) Ailerons neutral 3) Rudder opposite 4) Elevator forward
129
Maneuvering Speed
Max speed at which the aircraft will stall prior to damaging the airframe
130
As weight increases, what happens to Va?
Increases
131
Max gross weight change to VA formula
VA (at max⁡〖gross weight) × √(Actual Gross Weight ÷Max Gross Weight) 〗
132
Load factor at 60 degree bank
2G
133
GA Airplane G max
3.8G
134
What produces the highest rate of turn?
High bank angle and slow speed
135
Pilotage Definition
Nav by landmarks or checkpoints
136
Dead Reconking definition
Nav by calculations
137
Iogenic line definition
Lines of same magnetic variation
138
Magnetic Deviation vs Variation
Deviation = local
139
Magnetic Correction Saying
East is least (subtract from true), west is best (add to true)
140
North/South magnetic errors
Compass pulls to the North. So, turning away from North, lags. Towards North, leads
141
Acceleration magnetic errors
ANDS ... Accelerate North, Decelerate South (only on E and W headings)
142
Five Cs of Lost Aircraft
1) Climb 2) Confess 3) Circle 4) Comply 5) Communicate
143
IFR tolerances for VOR Checks
+- 4 deg fofr Ground, +-6 deg for airborne
144
What tells you what radial you are on for a VOR?
Rotate OBS until needle is centered and FROM
145
How many sattelites necessary for GPS?
Four, but 5th for RAIM
146
IFR Alternate Required When?
1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA (at the listed destination), the ceiling will be at least 2,000′ AGL, and the visibility will be at least 3 SM.
147
Describe region of reverse command
Left of L/Dmax, where drag increases with slower speeds, so you need more power.
148
Left turning tendency causes (4)
1) Torque 2) Slipstream 3) Gyroscopic 4) P Factor
149
Where on a wing stalls first? Why?
Root, so that aileron effectiveness is maintained
150
Types of stalls (#)
1) Secondary 2) Accelerated 3) Cross control 4) Elevator trim 5) Spin
151
O2 Reqs
1.5-14k ... 30 min, > 14k crew, 15k for passengers; FL250 requires 10 min for each occupant
152
Situations requiring Emergency Descent
Fire, smoke, pressure, medical
153
Emergency Acronym
ABCD A - Aviate B - Best landing spot C - Checklists d - Distress call
154
SF50 Vg
100kts
155
Minimum sink airspeed
A few knots less than Vg
156
Impact of static system blocked
Altimeter freezes at that altitude; airspeed above indicates lower than actual; VSI zero
157
Empty weight with options and unuasable fuel
Basic Empty Weight (a step up from Standard Empty Weight)
158
Weight of everything except fuel
Zero Fuel Weight
159
Useful Load
Max Gross minus Basic Empty Weight