Commercial Flashcards

1
Q

Commercial Pilot Eligibility (#)

A

1) 18 yrs
2) English
3) At least a PPL
3) Endorsement and pass Knowledge Test
5) Endorsement for required training and preparedness for practical
6) Experience requirements
7) Practical test

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2
Q

Document requirement to serve as crewmember (#)

A

1) Pilot cert
2) Medical cert
3) Photo ID
4) FI cert

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3
Q

Day Currency

A

3 T/O and Landings within 90 days as sole manipulator in same category, class, and type.
Tailwheel = full stop.

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4
Q

Night Currency

A

+- 1 hour of sunset
3 T/O and Landings, FULL STOP, within 90 days as sole manipulator in same category, class, and type.

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5
Q

Flight Review - frequency, time, content, exceptions

A

24 months by an authorized instructor
1 hour of flight and 1 hour of ground
Pt 91 flight rules and maneuvers
No necessary if: cert, rating, including FI

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6
Q

Conditions to logging Training Received

A

May log when received from an authorized instructor and endorsed, with description.

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7
Q

Required Logbook Data (#)

A

1) Date
2) Flight time
3) Departure and arrival
4) Type and ID of aircraft
5) Name of safety pilot, if required
6) Type of training
7) Conditions of flight

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8
Q

When can a pilot log PIC? (#)

A

1) Sole manipulator of controls
2) Sole occupant of aircraft
3) Acting as PIC in two-pilot

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9
Q

Logbook - Types of Training (#)

A

1) Solo
2) PIC
3) SIC

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10
Q

Logbook - Conditions of Flight (#)

A

1) Day or night
2) Actual instument
3) Simulated instrument

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11
Q

Logbook - Instrument Time Definition

A

May log instument time only for that portion of the flight when a person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments

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12
Q

Commercial Privileges

A

Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with the FARs that apply to the operation

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13
Q

Commercial Limitations

A

If no IR, not allowed carraige for hire if XC > 50 miles or night

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14
Q

First Class Med Required

A

Exercising PIC under ATP

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15
Q

Second Class Med Required (#)

A

Exercising (a) SIC under ATP or (b) commercial

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16
Q

Third Class Med Required (3)

A

1) PPL, Rec, or Student
2) FI
3) Practical test AND DPE

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17
Q

First Class Expiration <40 on date of exam

A

Last day of
12th month for 1st and 2nd
60th month for 3rd class

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18
Q

First Class Expiration >40 on date of exam

A

Last day of
6th month for 1st
12th month for 2nd
24th month for 3rd

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19
Q

Do you need your logbook?

A

Not in plane, but if asked by enforcement

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20
Q

Basic med requirements (#)

A

1) US DL
2) Medical > 2006
3) Not revoked or denied
4) Med course within 24 months
5) MEd exam <48 month
6) Care and treatment of a phsyician
7) National Driver Register check

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21
Q

Basic Med Aircraft and Operating Restrictions (#)

A

1) Aircraft <=6 occupants
2) <= 6k lbs
3) Carry <= 5 pax
4) VFR or IFR, but <18k and <250kts
5) Not for compensation

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22
Q

Currency vs Proficiency

A

currency = minimum required by law; profieciency = safe and competent

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23
Q

Removing or installing equipment not on equipment list requires

A

New empty weight and CG

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24
Q

Repairs and alterations types (#)

A

1) Major (requiring FAA)
2) Minor (A&P)

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25
Q

Required Documents

A

ARROW
1) Airworthiness
2) Registration
3) Radio operators (if intl)
4) Operating Limitations (AFM/POH)
5) Weight and balance certificate

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26
Q

Duration of registration certificates

A

Seven Years

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27
Q

Required Inspections

A

AV1ATES
1) Annual
2) VOR within 30 days, logbook
3) 100 hour
4) Altimeter/pitot 24 months
5) Transponder 24 month
6) ELT 12 months

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28
Q

Types of Airworthiness Directives (#)

A

1) Standard AD
2) Emergency AD
3) Special or Service Bulletins

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29
Q

Added Cert Required for Annual Maintenance Inspection

A

A&P who holds an Inspection Authorization

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30
Q

Preventative maintenance restriction

A

Doesn’t involve complex assembly

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31
Q

Equipment Decision Tree

A

KOEL or MEL
91.205 … TOMATO FFLAMES and FLAPS

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32
Q

VFR Required Equipment

A

TOMATO FFLAMES
Tachometer for each engine
Oil pressure gauge for each engine
Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
Airspeed Indicator
Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine
Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine
Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank
Flotation gear (if operated for hire over water beyond power-off glide distance from shore)
Landing gear position indicator
Altimeter
Magnetic compass
Emergency Locator Transmitter
Safety belts/Shoulder Harnesses

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33
Q

VFR Night Required Equipment

A

FLAPS
Fuses (if required)
Landing Light (Electric)
Anti-Collision Lights
Position Lights
Source of electricity for all installed electrical and radio equipment

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34
Q

Weather Sources (#)

A

1) FSS
2) Aviationweather.gov
3) Foreflight
4) Windy

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35
Q

Weather Products (#)

A

1) Surface analysis chart
2) GFA (ceilings, winds, freezing, temps, etc, thunderstorms, etc) (18 hours)
3) METARs and TAFS (24 hour)
4) PiReps
5) Prog Charts (7 days)
6) Forecast disucssions
7) IWAs … AIRMETS and SIGMETS, Convective SIGMETS

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36
Q

Types of AIRMETS (3)

A

1) Sierra - IFR
2) Tango - Turb and winds
3) Zulu - Ice

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37
Q

Relevant atmoshperic levels for aviation (#)

A

1) Troposhpere (~36k ft, temp decreases with height)
2) Tropopause
3) Straosphere (up to 31 miles high, temp increases with height)

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38
Q

Standard Atmosphere

A

59F/15C, 29.92” Hg

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39
Q

Farenheit to Celsius

A

°F = °C × (9/5) + 32

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40
Q

Coriolis deflection above equator

A

To the right

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41
Q

Temp change per 1000 feet

A

2C

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42
Q

Necessary conditions for precip (#)

A

1) Water 2) Lifting 3) Nuclei

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43
Q

Front definition

A

Boundary between two air masses

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44
Q

Cold front characteristics (#)

A

1) Steep
2) Move faster
3) Steep, showery clouds right behind it

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45
Q

Warm front characteristics (#)

A

1) Sloped
2) Slower
3) Layered, stratiform clouds well behind it. Can be embeded as you get closer to the transition layer.

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46
Q

Ocluded front description

A

Cold front catches up to another cold front, pushing the warm front above both.

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47
Q

Sources of vertical lifting

A

1) Orographic
2) Frontal
3) Thermal

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48
Q

High Cloud height and types (#)

A

> 16.5k
1) Cirrus
2) Cirrocumulus
3) Cirrostratus

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49
Q

Middle Cloud height and types (#)

A

> 6.5k
1) Altocumulus
2) Altocumulus Lenticularis
3) Altostratus
4) Nimbostratus

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50
Q

Low Cloud height and types (#)

A

SFC
1) Cumulus
2) Stratocumulus
3) Stratus
4) Cumulonimbus

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51
Q

Types of turbulence (#)

A

1) Convective
2) Mechanical
3) Wind Shear

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52
Q

Phases of a thunderstorm (#)

A

1) Developing
2) Mature
3) Dissipating

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53
Q

Types of Ice (#)

A

1) Rime
2) Clear
3) Mixed

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54
Q

Types of fog (#)

A

1) Radiation
2) Mountain
3) Advection
4) Upslope
5) Frontal
6) Steam
7) Freezing

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55
Q

Risk Checklist (#)

A

PAVE
1) Pilot
2) Aircraft
3) Evironment
4) External pressures

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56
Q

Class E Vis and Cloud

A

<10k, 3512
>10k, 5111

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57
Q

Class D Shape

A

4nm, 2500ft

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58
Q

Class D Vis and Cloud

A

3512

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59
Q

Class C Shape

A

Layer cake, 5nm core sfc to 4k, 10nm shelf 1200 to 4k

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60
Q

Transponder Requirements (#)

A

1) >10k
2) Class B and veil (30nm)
3) Class C and above
4) Within 10 miles of certain airports
5) ADIZ

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61
Q

Airspeeds (#)

A

1) <250, <10k
2) <200 within 4 miles and <2500AGL of C and D
3) <200 under Class B

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62
Q

Class E Shape

A

14.5-18k, 700 or 1200 AGL to 18k near airports, surface extensions, airways

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63
Q

Class C Vis and Cloud

A

3512

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64
Q

Student Pilot not allowed in which airspace

A

Class A, Class B (although can get endorsement)

65
Q

Airspace that does not require radio comm

A

Class G and Class E

66
Q

Class B Shape

A

Upside down wedding cake, 10k MSL

67
Q

Class B viz and cloud

A

3SM, clear of clouds

68
Q

Glass G viz and cloud

A

<1200 AGL Day - 1SM, clear of clouds
<1200 AGL Night - 3512
<10k Day - 1512
<10k Night - 3512
>10k - 5111

69
Q

Special Use Airspace (#)

A

1) Prohibited
2) Restricted (permissions)
3) Warning / Alert / Control Firing / MOA
4) SFRA
5) TFR

70
Q

Required preflight for all flights

A

Runway lengths and TO/Landing information

71
Q

Required for IFR or XC flights (#)

A

1) Weather
2) Fuel
3) Altternatives
4) Traffic delays

72
Q

Pressure altitude formula

A

1,000(29.92-Current Altimeter Setting) + Elevation

73
Q

Density altitude formula

A

DA = 120(Current Temperature-15oC) + PA

74
Q

Less dense air impacts (#)

A

1) Power
2) Thrust
3) Lift

75
Q

Forward loading impact (#)

A

1) Acts heavier, so slower
2) Slower needs more nose up trim, requiring more offseting tail, increasing loading
3) Increased loading requires higher AOA, producing a higher stall speed
4) Longer CG arm makes elevator more controllable

76
Q

Aft loading impact (#)

A

1) Acts lighter, so faster
2) Faster needs less nose up trim, requiring less offseting tail, decreasing loading
3) Deacreased loading requires lower AOA, producing a lower stall speed
4) Shorter CG arm makes elevator less controllable and harder to recover from stall

77
Q

Longitudinal axis description and controlled by

A

Roll around length of plane, aeilerons

78
Q

Lateral axis description and controlled by

A

Pitch around length of wings, elevator

79
Q

Vertical axis description and controlled by

A

Yaw around center, rudder

80
Q

Two drags, and highest at what speeds

A

Parasitic drag higher at high speeds
INdusced drag higher at lower speeds

81
Q

Two types of energy

A

Kinetic (speed) and Potential (altitude)

82
Q

Four stroke operating cycle (#)

A

1) Intake
2) Compression
3) Power
4) Exhaust

83
Q

1” HG equal to

84
Q

Altimeter error saying

A

From hot to cold, or from high to low, look out below!

85
Q

Emergency procedures acronym

A

MATL
1) Maintain control
2) Analyze
3) Take action
4) Land as soon as conditions permit

86
Q

Types of Hypoxia (#)

A

1) Hypoxic - environment
2) Hypemic - transport (CO)
3) Stagnant - g forces, heart failure
4) Histotoxic - narcotics and poison

87
Q

Hypoxia symptoms

A

Headaches, blue lips/fingers, euphoria, timgling, lightheaded, drowsiness

88
Q

Hyperventilation cause

A

Not enough CO2

89
Q

Illusions that you are higher than you are (#)

A

1) Narrow runway
2) Upsloped runway
3) Featurless terrain
4) Visibility (also looks further away)

90
Q

Scuba wait time

A

12 hours, 8K feet; 24 hours > 8k feet

91
Q

Alcohol and drug regulations (#)

A

1) 8 hours
2) influence of alcohol
3) .04
4) drug that affects faculties

92
Q

ADM process (#)

A

1) Define
2) Course of action
3) Implement
4) Evaluate

93
Q

Hazardous attitudes (#)

A

1) Anti-authority
2) Impulsivity
3) Invulnerabiolity
4) Macho
5) Resignation

94
Q

Briefing requirements

A

Operation of seatbelts

95
Q

Two main types of NOTAMS

A

1) D … airports and nav aids
2) FDC … IFR and TFR

96
Q

Precision approach runway markings (#)

A

1) Threshold
2) Aiming point, 1k feet
3) RTDZ markings in 500’ increments

97
Q

Taxiway Edge Light Color

98
Q

Taxiway Center Color

99
Q

REIL # and Color

A

Two, white, flashing; green for displaced threshold

100
Q

Runway Edge Light Color

A

White (Yellow for last 2k)

101
Q

End of runway light color

102
Q

Pilot controlled lighting … clicks

A

3 for low, 5 for medium, 7 for high

103
Q

Ground control … quartering headwind

A

Fly level into the wind (elevator neutral)

104
Q

Ground control … quartering tailwind

A

Dive away from wind

105
Q

Worst wake turbulence config

A

Heavy, slow, clean

106
Q

Wake turbulence sink rate

A

300-500 ft/min, stopping at 500-900ft below

107
Q

Worst wind for wake turbulence

A

1-5kts, quartering tailwind

108
Q

Light Gun Solid Green (Ground and Air)

A

Cleared for Takeoff or Landing

109
Q

Light Gun Blinking Green (Ground and Air)

A

Cleared for Taxi
Return For Landing

110
Q

Light Gun Solid Red (Ground and Air)

A

Stop
Give way and circle

111
Q

Light Gun Blinking Red (Ground and Air)

A

Leave runway
Airport unsafe, do not land

112
Q

Light Gun White (Ground and Air)

A

Return to starting point, N/A

113
Q

Light Gun Green Red Alternating (Ground and Air)

A

Exercise extreme caution

114
Q

Lost Comms Emergency Transponder

115
Q

Emergency Transponder Code

116
Q

Definition of accident

A

From boarding to disembarking, serious injury or substantial damage

117
Q

Converging aircraft right of way, same category

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

118
Q

Converging aircraft right of way, different category

A

Balloon, glider, airship, refueling, towing

119
Q

Converging aircraft, head on

A

Each to the right

120
Q

Overtaking right of way

A

Overtake to the right

121
Q

Right of way when approaching airport

A

Lower aircraft

122
Q

P Factor

A

Down blade has more thrust, yawing to left

123
Q

P Factor Highest When

A

High AOA and High Power

124
Q

Minimum speed for hydroplaning

A

Square root of tire pressure times 9

125
Q

LAHSO minimums

A

100’ ceiling and 3SM viz

126
Q

MSA Over Congested

A

1000’ above highest obstacle withing 2000’ feet

127
Q

MSA Over Non-Congested

A

500’ AGL unless water/rural, no closer than 500’ to any person or structure

128
Q

Spin recovery

A

PARE
1) Power idle
2) Ailerons neutral
3) Rudder opposite
4) Elevator forward

129
Q

Maneuvering Speed

A

Max speed at which the aircraft will stall prior to damaging the airframe

130
Q

As weight increases, what happens to Va?

131
Q

Max gross weight change to VA formula

A

VA (at max⁡〖gross weight) × √(Actual Gross Weight ÷Max Gross Weight) 〗

132
Q

Load factor at 60 degree bank

133
Q

GA Airplane G max

134
Q

What produces the highest rate of turn?

A

High bank angle and slow speed

135
Q

Pilotage Definition

A

Nav by landmarks or checkpoints

136
Q

Dead Reconking definition

A

Nav by calculations

137
Q

Iogenic line definition

A

Lines of same magnetic variation

138
Q

Magnetic Deviation vs Variation

A

Deviation = local

139
Q

Magnetic Correction Saying

A

East is least (subtract from true), west is best (add to true)

140
Q

North/South magnetic errors

A

Compass pulls to the North. So, turning away from North, lags. Towards North, leads

141
Q

Acceleration magnetic errors

A

ANDS … Accelerate North, Decelerate South (only on E and W headings)

142
Q

Five Cs of Lost Aircraft

A

1) Climb
2) Confess
3) Circle
4) Comply
5) Communicate

143
Q

IFR tolerances for VOR Checks

A

+- 4 deg fofr Ground, +-6 deg for airborne

144
Q

What tells you what radial you are on for a VOR?

A

Rotate OBS until needle is centered and FROM

145
Q

How many sattelites necessary for GPS?

A

Four, but 5th for RAIM

146
Q

IFR Alternate Required When?

A

1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA (at the listed destination), the ceiling will be at least 2,000′ AGL, and the visibility will be at least 3 SM.

147
Q

Describe region of reverse command

A

Left of L/Dmax, where drag increases with slower speeds, so you need more power.

148
Q

Left turning tendency causes (4)

A

1) Torque
2) Slipstream
3) Gyroscopic
4) P Factor

149
Q

Where on a wing stalls first? Why?

A

Root, so that aileron effectiveness is maintained

150
Q

Types of stalls (#)

A

1) Secondary
2) Accelerated
3) Cross control
4) Elevator trim
5) Spin

151
Q

O2 Reqs

A

1.5-14k … 30 min, > 14k crew, 15k for passengers; FL250 requires 10 min for each occupant

152
Q

Situations requiring Emergency Descent

A

Fire, smoke, pressure, medical

153
Q

Emergency Acronym

A

ABCD
A - Aviate
B - Best landing spot
C - Checklists
d - Distress call

154
Q

SF50 Vg

155
Q

Minimum sink airspeed

A

A few knots less than Vg

156
Q

Impact of static system blocked

A

Altimeter freezes at that altitude; airspeed above indicates lower than actual; VSI zero

157
Q

Empty weight with options and unuasable fuel

A

Basic Empty Weight (a step up from Standard Empty Weight)

158
Q

Weight of everything except fuel

A

Zero Fuel Weight

159
Q

Useful Load

A

Max Gross minus Basic Empty Weight