Combo Test Flashcards

1
Q

The construction of a Knight LSO consists of:

A

Paraspinal bars, lateral bars, pelvic band, thoracic band

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2
Q

Four part burst fracture of C1 is commonly called:

A

Jeffersons Fracture

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3
Q

A wrist driven wrist hand orthosis is designed to mechanically assist patients to achieve what type of prehension?

A

Three Point Prehension

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4
Q

The forces applied by traction systems are:

A

Distractive

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5
Q

When seating a patient, the first priority should be to stabilize:

A

The pelvis and torso

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6
Q

To prevent pin penetration through the skull and not the brain:

A

Properly adjusted torque drivers should be used

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7
Q

The cardinal plane that evenly divides the human body from front to back is:

A

The coronal plane

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8
Q

The null vertebra is:

A

Level at/near the center of the curve

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9
Q

An appropriate foot orthosis for a rigid subtalar varus foot would:

A

Include a medial wedge

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10
Q

Appropriate treatment for T11-L2 compression fractures include:

A

The Jewett hyperextension orthosis

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11
Q

Dynamic forces are introduced to orthotic intervention for two primary purposes. What are these two primary purposes?

A

Substitute and correct motion

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12
Q

What wrist position is considered to be the resting position?

A

10 degrees of extension

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13
Q

The radial extension component of the short opponenes hand orthosis comes in contact primarily with what part of the hand?

A

The 2nd metacarpal joint

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14
Q

Genu valgum describes a knee joint that

A

Is excessively angled medially

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15
Q

The demonstrated MMT grade of 4 would indicate:

A

The patient is able to move against gravity and some manual resistance

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16
Q

The ratchet wrist hand orthosis assists quadriplegics in achieving prehension to perform some tasks. What spinal cord injury level is appropriate for consideration of a ratchet versus a wrist driven WHO?

A

C5

17
Q

Which fibular landmark is of particular interests in relation to the peroneal nerve?

A

The neck

18
Q

The Denis 3 Column System includes consideration of:

A
  • the severity of spinal injury
  • the location of spinal injury
  • the stability of spinal injury
19
Q

The largest bones of the pelvic extremity are:

A

The femur, the tibia, and the fibula

20
Q

The goals of orthotic treatment are to control:

A
  • pain
  • motion
  • deformity
21
Q

Foot pronation is a combination of:

A

Calcaneal eversion, calcaneal abduction, calcaneal dorsiflexion

22
Q

Proper AFO design must:

A

Correct flexible deformity

23
Q

Which cervical thoracic orthosis is particularly well-suited for application on supine patients?

A

The SOMI

24
Q

MRI technology is used primarily for imaging:

A

Soft tissue

25
Q

The Ortolani Test involves:

A

Relocation of a dislocated hip

26
Q

Intrinsic stability of the spinal column is provided by:

A

Bones, discs, and ligaments

27
Q

Fluctuating edema can be accommodated by:

A

A conventional AFO with custom shoes

28
Q

What advantages does a fracture orthosis offer over a fracture cast?

A
  • it can be opened for hygiene
  • it can be opened for dressing changes
  • it can be adjusted for edemous changes
29
Q

One disadvantage of offset knee joints is

A

The possible unintentional unlocking on uneven terrain

30
Q

The distal palmar trim line for the plastic WHO is trimmed to:

A

A point just proximal to the distal palmar crease

31
Q

Name the knee joint ligament that is most often injured in athletic activities that involve planting the foot and turning or twisting.

A

Anterior Cruciate

32
Q

Many spinous processes align:

A

With the level of the next inferior vertebral body

33
Q

Spinal orthoses offer biomechanical control including:

A
  • three point pressure systems
  • fluid compression and distraction
  • skeletal fixation and kinesthetic reminders
34
Q

The primary function of the intervertebral disc is

A

Absorption of compressive forces in spinal column