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Combank Q facts > Combank 5 > Flashcards

Combank 5 Flashcards

1
Q

T scores greater than -1 are considered?

A

Normal

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2
Q

T scores between -1 and -2.5 are considered?

A

Osteopenic

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3
Q

T scores less than -2.5 are considered?

A

Osteoporotic

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4
Q

What is the function of Calcium acetate and when is it used?

A

It is a phosphorus binder that causes the phosphorus consumed to be excreted in the stool; used to manage hyperphosphatemia in end stage renal failure

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5
Q

In what class of drugs is raloxifene and what does it do? What risk does it carry?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs); decrease osteoclast function of estrogen; carries increased risk for DVT

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6
Q

What is Dupuytren’s contracture?

A

A painless thickening and contracture of tissue beneath the skin on the palm of the hand and fingers, one or both hands can be affected. Typically, a painless nodule develops in the connective tissue below the skin on the palm side of the hand. Over time, it thickens into a cord-like band and leads to an inability to extend or straighten the fingers

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7
Q

Classical Dupuytren’s contracture most commonly involve which digits?

A

Fourth and fifth

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8
Q

What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies which present as joint pain in the absence of rheumatoid factor and ANA?

A

ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter’s syndrome and psoriatic arthritis

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9
Q

Name the condition - a complex immune mediated d/o that presents as inflammatory plaques on the skin characterized by silver scaling plaques

A

Psoriasis

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10
Q

What is adenomyosis and how do patients usually present?

A

presence of endometrium within the myometrium; usually present with unusually painful and hemorrhagic menses

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11
Q

What is premature ovarian failure?

A

when a woman shows signs of menopause before 40 years of age

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12
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

an abnormal invasion of the chorionic villi into the myometrium of the uterus

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13
Q

The development of an early onset of breast and ovarian cancer is associated with the deletion of what gene?

A

tumor suppressor gene BRCA1

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14
Q

What type of inheritance pattern does BRCA1 have?

A

autosomal dominant

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15
Q

This is a tumor suppressor gene that is associated with the development of retinoblastomas and osteosarcomas

A

Retinoblastoma

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16
Q

Patients with a genetic mutation of p53 can develop what syndrome?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome; leads to the development of various malignancies at an early age, including breast cancer, sarcomas, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinomas

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17
Q

What is the p53 tumor suppressor gene located and what is its function?

A

located on chromosome 17; normal function of p53 is regulation of the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint; p53 delays cell cycle progression and permits opportunity for DNA repair or initiation of apoptosis

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18
Q

What is HER2?

A

An oncogene that has intracellular tyrosine kinase activity

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19
Q

Breast cancer with positive HER2 expression is treated with?

A

Trastuzumab

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20
Q

Treatment with which antibiotic is notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clindamycin

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21
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis can treated with?

A

Either metronidazole or oral vancomycin

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22
Q

In order to treat Clostridium difficile should vancomycin be given orally or IV?

A

orally

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23
Q

How does GERD occur?

A

tone of the lower esophageal sphincter decreases and gastric material is allowed to reflux back into the esophagus

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24
Q

Why are beta-adrenergic agonists unlikely to contribute to GERD?

A

b/c they have been demonstrated to maintain the constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter

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25
Q

What substances are capable of decreasing the constrictive tone of the lower esophageal sphincter and consequently increasing the risk for GERD?

A

fats, alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, and calcium channel blockers

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26
Q

Duchene muscular dystrophy has what type of inheritance?

A

x-linked recessive

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27
Q

What is Gower’s maneuver?

A

use of arms to help themselves climb up

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28
Q

How is Becker muscular dystrophy different from Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

symptoms present later in life (5-15 years)

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29
Q

What is Gaucher disease?

A

lysosomal storage disease characterized by hematologic abnormalities, organomegaly and skeletal involvement

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30
Q

What enzyme is elevated in Duchene Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Creatine phosphokinase

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31
Q

In what class of drugs are Tamoxifen and raloxifene?

A

selective estrogen receptor modulators

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32
Q

What is the difference between Tamoxifen and raloxifene?

A

Tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer because it is a partial agonist on the endometrium; raloxifene does not increase the risk of endometrial cancer because it is an endometrial antagonist

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33
Q

Elevated alkaline phosphatase is a sign of ?

A

increased bone turnover

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34
Q

Why do thiazide diuretics induce hyperuricemia?

A

they increase urate reabsorption

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35
Q

In what drug class does amlopidine belong and what is it used to treat?

A

long-acting dihydropyridine-type (DHP) calcium channel blocker; used to treat HTN by relaxing arterial smooth muscle

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36
Q

How does amlodipine affect uric acid levels?

A

decreases serum uric acid by blocking the reabsorption of urate

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37
Q

Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent cystals and a WBC count of 10,000 cells/uL are found in?

A

pseudogout

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38
Q

Straw-colored, normally viscous aspirate with moderal WBCs is characteristic of?

A

Osteoarthritis

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39
Q

Turbid, runny fluid with high WBCs describes?

A

joint aspirate of RA

40
Q

Allopurinol should not be used to treat what condition?

A

acute gout – may exacerbate the condition

41
Q

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) causes what type of diarrhea?

A

copious watery, non-bloody diarrhea; can cause dehydration; travelers

42
Q

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?

A

watery, non-bloody diarrhea in infants and children, not associated with fevers

43
Q

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?

A

causes blood diarrhea, most commonly in children, commonly acquired by eating ground beef or unpasteurized milk (also from petting zoos)

44
Q

In EHEC the fact that the bacteria does not invade the gastric wall means?

A

neither fever or white blood cells in a stool sample are present with EHEC

45
Q

This syndrome is thought of as Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) with malignant CNS tumors (predominantly medulloblastomas and astrocytomas)

A

Turcot’s syndrome

46
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

AD syndrome of benign hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract; these hamartomas are commonly found in the small and large intestine

47
Q

What is a unique feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

hyperpigmented buccal mucosa

48
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome holds a 50% increased risk of what cancers?

A

colorectal, breast, and gynecological cancers

49
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis coli colon cancer (HNPCC) is also known as?

A

Lynch syndrome

50
Q

What is HNPCC (Lynch Syndrome)?

A

AD mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes that leads to colorectal cancer in approximately 80% of the patients with the genetic mutation

51
Q

How does Lynch Syndrome differ from FAP?

A

Lynch syndrome does not correlate with the phenotype of multiple colorectal polyps and can lead to malignancy even in the absence of adenomatosis of the colon and/or rectum

52
Q

What is Gardner Syndrome?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis with the addition of extracolonic manifestations including desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts

53
Q

What is the deficient enzyme in Fructose intolerance?

A

Adolase B

54
Q

What is the deficient enzyme in Essential Fructosuria?

A

Fructokinase

55
Q

What is deficient in Galactosemia?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

56
Q

Proglottids are associated with?

A

tapeworms such as Taenia solium

57
Q

Pin-shaped helminths describes?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

58
Q

Motile uni-nuclear trophozoites describes mobile protozoa known as?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

59
Q

Central karyosome, “Ring and Dot” describes the cyst of?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

60
Q

What is the DOC for giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

61
Q

DOC for tapeworms such as Taenia solium

A

Praziquantel

62
Q

DOC for Enterobius vermicularis

A

Albendazole

63
Q

A biopsy of the jejunum in a patient with celiac disease would show what characteristic?

A

blunted villi

64
Q

What should be avoided in patients on metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram like reaction?

A

Alcohol

65
Q

GET GAP on the Metro

A

Metronidazole is used to treat Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes (Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces) and H. pylori

66
Q

DOC for metronidazole resistant giardiasis

A

Quinacrine

67
Q

What is the tumor marker for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA

68
Q

Serial S-100 is used to track what condition?

A

melanoma

69
Q

What is the tumor marker for ovarian carcinoma?

A

CA-125

70
Q

What is a Krukenberg tumor?

A

bilateral ovarian metastasis from GI tract adenocarcinoma

71
Q

What is characteristic of a Krukenberg tumor histologically?

A

mucin-producing signet ring cells

72
Q

Where is osteosarcoma usually found, what appearance does it have and what is the prognosis?

A

found in the metaphysis of long bones; characteristic sunburst appearance; poor prognosis

73
Q

What is the predisposing factor for development of osteosarcoma?

A

Familial retinoblastoma

74
Q

The tumor suppressor gene Rb normally inhibits what?

A

G1 to S progression in the cell cycle; if mutation of Rb exists then unrestrained cell growth occurs

75
Q

How do PPI’s (end in -prazole) work?

A

by blocking the production of acid via inhibition of parietal cell H+/K+ ATPases

76
Q

What is struma ovarii?

A

a rare ovarian tumor consisting of ectopic thyroid tissue; causes elevation of thyroid hormones in up to 15% of patients

77
Q

These cysts form as a result of overstimulation from high hCG levels or hypersensitivity to hCG

A

Theca lutein cysts also called lutein cysts

78
Q

What is Meigs’ syndrome?

A

Triad of ovarian fibroma with ascites and pleural effusion

79
Q

An adnexal mass consisting of hypertrophied myometrial tissue represents a?

A

leiomyoma – also known as a fibroid

80
Q

What ligament is commonly injured during athletics from twisting or hyperextension?

A

ACL

81
Q

Where does the ACL originate?

A

posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts on the anteromedial aspect of the tibial plateau

82
Q

Name the bug: a spore forming, anaerobic Gram-positive rod that causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

83
Q

This genus of bacteria are aerobic, gram positive rods that also form spores

A

Bacillus

84
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

bluish hue in the vaginal mucosa; usually the first physical sign of pregnancy in the first few weeks

85
Q

T/F Warfarin is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

A

T; under pregnancy category X

86
Q

What are tophi?

A

chalky white uric acid deposits under the skin found in patients with gout

87
Q

Cloudy purulent synovial fluid indicates?

A

septic arthritis

88
Q

How does joint aspiration differ for gout and pseudogout?

A

Negative birefringence for gout and positive birefringence for pseudogout

89
Q

What is the DOC for acute gout attacks?

A

Indomethacin

90
Q

What is used to treat chronic gout and to prevent future attacks by decreasing uric acid production?

A

Allopurinol

91
Q

How does allopurinol work?

A

acts on purine catabolism; inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase which converts hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid

92
Q

Schistosoma, Clonorchis sinensis and Paragonimus westermani are all?

A

trematodes (flukes)

93
Q

Taenia solium, Diphylllobothrium latum and Echinococcus granulosus are all?

A

cestodes (tapeworms); hermaphrodites

94
Q

Enterobius vermicularis is a?

A

pinworm (nematode); they are dioecious (separate male and female organisms)

95
Q

How do bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis?

A

inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption by binding to hydroxyapatite and interfering with osteoclastic adherence

Combank Q facts (11 decks)

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