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Reproductive Health > College Network > Flashcards

College Network Flashcards

1
Q

Homologous

A

Fundamentally similar in structure and function

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2
Q

Sex cells are called __________ and are produced by ________.

A

Gametes

Gonads

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3
Q

What are the 3 stages of adolescence and their corresponding ages?

A

Early: 11-14
Middle: 15-17
Late: 18-20

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4
Q

Increase in adrenal gland activity just before puberty.

A

Adrenarche

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5
Q

Average time between breast development and menarche.

A

2.3 years

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6
Q

Female external genitals

A

Vulva

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7
Q

Border between female internal and external genitals.

A

Introitus

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8
Q

From inside to out, name the three layers of the uterus.

A

Endometrium
Myometrium
Parietal peritoneum

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9
Q

Another name for foreskin

A

Prepuce

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10
Q

Which testicle typically hangs lower due to a longer spermatic cord?

A

Left

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11
Q

What are the 2 hormones responsible for stimulating spermatogenesis?

A

FSH - follicle stimulating hormone

LH - Luteinizing hormone

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12
Q

What is the mature follicle being released from the ovary called?

A

Graafian follicle

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13
Q

What are the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle?

A

Follicular phase - immediately following menses thru ovulation.
Luteal phase - ovulation to menses

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14
Q

Cessation of reproductive function

A

Climacteric

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15
Q

Sensate exercises

A

Learning to enjoy touch without sexual intercourse, such as massage.

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16
Q

What are the 4 type of female sexual dysfunction?

A
  1. Orgasmic dysfunction: inability to have an orgasm
  2. Vaginismus: involuntary closing of the vaginal muscles before sex.
  3. Dyspareunia: pain during intercourse due to inadequate lubrication
  4. Vulvodynia: chronic genital pain
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17
Q

Infibulation

A

A form of genital mutilation involving stitching the laboria major together to prevent intercourse.

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18
Q

Contragestion

A

Prevention of implantation

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19
Q

What are the 4 phases of “Rape Trauma Syndrome”?

A
  1. Acute Phase (disorganization)
  2. Outward Adjustment Phase (denial)
  3. Reorganization
  4. Integration and Recovery
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20
Q

What are the 3 parts of a nursing diagnosis?

What are the 2 parts of a “risk” diagnosis?

Readiness diagnosis?
Syndrome diagnosis?

A

Diagnosis, related to, as evidenced by.

Risk for, related to.

Readiness statements and syndrome statements are stand alone statements.

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21
Q

What is the best time during a woman’s cycle to perform BSE?

A

1 week after their menstrual cycle starts.

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22
Q

When is the best time for men to perform TSE?

A

1x per month after a hot shower or bath.

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23
Q

An infertility evaluation should be considered after ___ months of attempting to get pregnant without success?

A

9-12 months

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24
Q

What is a vital nutrient during pregnancy that can be found in leafy greens and prenatal vitamins?

A

Folic acid

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25
Q

What types of vaccines should not be given during pregnancy.

A

No live virus.

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26
Q

How is the beginning of pregnancy calculated?

A

The beginning of the last menstrual cycle.

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27
Q

What is “quickening” and when is it typically experienced?

A

Fetal movements felt by the mother.

Approx. 20 weeks

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28
Q

Gestation

A

Number of weeks since the beginning of the last menstrual period.

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29
Q

Premature labor

A

20-37 weeks

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30
Q

Post-term labor

A

After 42 weeks

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31
Q

Para:
Gravida:

A

Para: number of vaginal births
Gravida: number of pregnancies

e.g. primigravida - 1st pregnancy

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32
Q

How long after ovulation can the ova be fertilized?

A

About 24hrs

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33
Q

The ovum’s hard outer layer is called the _________?

A

zona pellucida

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34
Q

The process of the blastocyst implanting into the uterine wall.

A

nidation

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35
Q

What hormone do pregnancy tests check for?

A

HCG - human chorionic gonadotropin

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36
Q

How many veins/arteries in the umbilical cord and which direction are they traveling?

A

1 vein transporting to the baby

2 arteries transporting from the baby

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37
Q

A special connective tissue called ___________ surrounds the umbilical cord preventing it from compression while in utero.

A

Wharton’s jelly

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38
Q

What are the 3 positive signs of pregnancy?

A
  1. Fetal heart rate detected (120-160 is normal)
  2. Fetal movements palpable by a trained examiner
  3. Ultrasound
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39
Q

A probable sign of pregnancy - a softening of the cervix due to pelvic congestion.

A

Goodell’s sign

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40
Q

A presumptive sign of pregnancy - violet-bluish color of the vaginal mucus membrane.

A

Chadwick’s sign

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41
Q

Pre-pregnancy uterine capacity =

Full term capacity =

A

10ml

5000ml

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42
Q

How much % increase of maternal blood volume?

A

45%

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43
Q

What would be expected in the hematocrit of a pregnant woman?
What is this termed?

A

Slightly lower, as the red blood cell increase is not as great as the plasma increase.
Physiologic anemia of pregnancy

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44
Q

Why is it not unusual to see glucose in the urine during pregnancy?

A

Due to increased glomerular filtration and the inability of the kidneys to reabsorb all of the glucose.

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45
Q

Urinary frequency is experienced in which trimesters?

A

1st and 3rd

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46
Q

What is the term for when fathers experience some of the pregnancy symptoms such as weight gain and nausea?

A

Couvades

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47
Q

Enlarged gestational body

A

Fetal macrosomia

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48
Q

An infant born to an HIV positive mother may initially test positive, but it may be false. Why?

A

HIV tests detect antibodies. The infant HIV test may be detecting maternal antibodies. It may take 15-18 months to clear the maternal antibodies.

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49
Q

What are the TORCH infections that can be serious if contracted during pregnancy?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other (hepatitis and varicella)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus 
Herpes Simplex
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50
Q

This disease is caused by a Protozoa and can be contracted by eating undercooked meat or contact with cat feces.

A

Toxoplasmosis

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51
Q

A pregnant woman is found to have insufficient titer levels of rubella during her 1st trimester. Should she receive the vaccination?

A

No, as it is a live vaccine.

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52
Q

Maternal hypertension prior to 20 weeks gestation or persisting after 12 weeks post-partum.

A

Chronic hypertension

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53
Q

Mild hypertension without proteinuria or signs of pre-eclampsia.

A

Gestational hypertension

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54
Q

New onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation

A

Pre-eclampsia

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55
Q

With eclampsia, HELLP may occur. What does HELLP stand for?

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

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56
Q

What is the only cure for preeclampsia?

A

Delivery

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57
Q

Labor between 20-37 weeks

A

Preterm or premature

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58
Q

If preterm labor is suspected, what should vaginal secretions be tested for?

A

Fetal fibronectin

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59
Q

The use of medications to stop labor

A

Tocolysis

60
Q

Name 3 drugs that may be used to treat preterm labor.

A

Mag sulfate
Indomethacin
Nefedipine

61
Q

Placenta Previa is unlikely to occur before ____ weeks.

A

20 weeks

62
Q

Painless dilation of the cervix without contractions.

A

Incompetent cervix

63
Q

Abnormal proliferation of trophoblast tissue with no viable fetus.

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy)

64
Q

What medication is given to an RH negative mother with an RH positive fetus, to prevent sensitization.

A

RhoGAM

65
Q

What is considered a normal value for glucose tolerance test of a pregnant woman?

A

Below 140

66
Q

This test evaluates the fetus heart rate when the mother moves. A normal response is an increased heart rate.

A

Non-stress test

67
Q

The only absolute maternal contraindication for mag sulfate.

A

Myasthenia gravis

68
Q

What is docusate sodium (colace) used for?

A

Constipation

69
Q

What is Nagele’s rule for calculating estimated delivery date?

A
  1. LMP
  2. Add 1 year
  3. Subtract 3 months
  4. Add 7 days
70
Q

What is McDonald’s method of determining estimated delivery date?

A

Measuring fundal height (distance in centimeters from top of pubis symphysis to top of uterine fundus).
e.g. @26 weeks the fundal height should be 26cm

71
Q

What are striae gravidarum?

A

Stretch marks

72
Q

What is chloasma?

A

Brown pigmented facial areas during pregnancy.

73
Q

What should be the minimum prenatal and pregnancy folic acid intake?

A

400mcg

74
Q

What is the recommended prenatal visit frequency?

A

Every 4 weeks Thru 28 weeks
Every 2 weeks 28-36 weeks
Weekly after 36 weeks

75
Q

At the end of the 3rd trimester, the baby settles, or lowers into the mother’s pelvis.

A

Lightening

76
Q

Describe the 3 stages of labor.

A

Stage 1: beginning of true labor to full dilation
Stage 2: complete dilation through birth of infant
Stage 3: from birth of infant through birth of placenta

77
Q

What are the 3 phases of the 1st stage of labor?

A

Latent
Active
Transition

78
Q

Artificial rupture of membranes.

A

Amniotomy

79
Q

What are the 6 “Cardinal movements” of labor and delivery?

A
  1. Descent
  2. Flexion (of the head)
  3. Internal rotation
  4. Extension
  5. External rotation
  6. Expulsion
80
Q

Placental separation usually occurs within how long after birth?
A placenta is considered retained if not delivered within?

A

5 minutes

30 minutes

81
Q

Vertex presentation

A

Babies occiput is pressing on the cervix with each contraction

82
Q

Type of baby position where 2 parts are presenting such as an arm with the head.

A

Compound presentation

83
Q

Difficult labor

A

Dystocia

84
Q

Failure of cervical dilation and hypotonic uterine dysfunction.

A

Primary uterine inertia

85
Q

Uterine contractions that are too weak or far apart to be effective.

A

Hypotonic uterine dysfunction

86
Q

Stillbirth at 20 weeks or later

A

Fetal death in utero

87
Q

Disorder in which Chorionic villi attach directly to the muscular wall of the uterus. Maternal hemorrhage and failure of the placenta to detach may be complications.

A

Placenta accreta

88
Q

What is dinoprostone (prepadil, cervadil) used for?

A

Softening and effacement of the cervix.

89
Q

Caput succedaneum

A

Scalp edema and bruising

90
Q

What type of c-section is more likely to be performed in an emergency situation? Low transverse, or vertical (classical)?

A

Vertical are easier to deliver and more likely to be used in an emergency setting. They do take longer to heal.

91
Q

Method of birth that encourages home birth for healthy pregnancies.

A

Kitzinger method

92
Q

Light stroking over the abdomen to relieve mild to moderate pain.

A

Effleurage

93
Q

The rapid reduction in size of uterus, following birth.

A

Involution - approx. a 3 week process

94
Q

Uterine debris from birth

A

Lochia

95
Q

RDA of protein for lactating mother the 1st 6 months.

A

65 grams

96
Q

Recommended additional caloric intake for nursing mothers.

A

500 calories/day

97
Q

RDA of calcium

RDA of calcium while nursing

A

800mg

1200mg

98
Q

RDA of vitamin C during lactation

A

95mg

99
Q

Infection of the reproductive tract resulting from birth that occurs anytime up to 6 weeks post partum.

A

Puerperal infections

100
Q

What does the Direct Coombs test test for?

A

Tests cord blood for antibodies (such as RH factor)

101
Q

What is Methergine used for?

A

Stimulating the uterus postpartally, to reduce blood loss.

102
Q

Normal infant weight loss can be up to ____ %

A

5%

103
Q

Average weight gain the 1st year.

A

7kg

104
Q

Similar to fetal alcohol syndrome, this is due to maternal exposure to other illicit substances during pregnancy.

A

Neonatal abstinence syndrome

105
Q

Disease of excessive accumulation of phenylalanine and abnormal metabolism.

A

PKU

Phenylketonuria

106
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia is defined as how much?

A

Above 12mg/dl

107
Q

From birth to 2 months, how often and how much should the bottle fed infant feed?

A

6-8 feedings/ 24hr period, 2-4 ounces each

108
Q

What are the signs of sepsis in an infant?

A

Can be vague.

Hypothermia and neurological deficits.

109
Q

What muscles are being contracted during Kegel exercises?

A

pubococcygeus muscles

110
Q

What is Honan’s sign?

A

Calf pain when dorsiflexing feet.

Could be an indication of thrombophlebitis.

111
Q

What is pyloric stenosis and what gender experiences it more frequently?

A

Obstruction of the pyloric sphincter.

Males

112
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy only occurs in which gender?

A

Males

113
Q

Tay-sach’s disease occurs most commonly in which population group?

A

Jews

114
Q

How does tetralogy of Fallot affect pulmonary blood flow?

A

Decreases it

115
Q

What does the ductus arteriosis connect?

A

Aorta and pulmonary artery

116
Q

This congenital disorder leaves an opening between left and right ventricles.

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

117
Q

What is believed to be the cause of clubbing?

A

Chronic polycythemia due to chronic hypoxia

118
Q

This medication may be used to increase cardiac output in the pediatric chf patient.

A

Digoxin

119
Q

What is a common symptom of digoxin toxicity?

A

Bradycardia

120
Q

What is the drug spironolactone?

A

A diuretic - may be used to treat CHF

121
Q

Do one or both parents need to pass on sickle cell trait in order for the child to have the disease?

Cystic fibrosis?

A

Both. One parent can cause the child to be a carrier though.

Both diseases are autosomal recessive genetic disorders

122
Q

What organ, besides the lungs, does cystic fibrosis affect?

A

Pancreas

123
Q

A pavlik harness is used to treat?

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

124
Q

What is the most common form of club foot?

A 
talipes equinovarus
(Toes pointed down and foot inverted)
125
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy - what gender does it occur in most commonly?

A

It only occurs in males because it is an X-linked disorder

126
Q

Life span of someone with muscular dystrophy

A

Usually not past 30 due to heart or respiratory failure

127
Q

Cleft lip and cleft palate occur more frequently in which population groups?

A

Native American and Asian

128
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

Inflammation of bile ducts leading to stenosis and blockage. Usually fatal by age 2 if not treated.

129
Q

This disease is characterized by decreased motility of the intestine related to the absence of ganglion cells in parts of the colon.

A

Hirschsprung’s disease

130
Q

No identifiable anus opening?

A

Imperforate anus

131
Q

Atresia

A

Absence or abnormal narrowing of an opening or passage in the body

132
Q

What is hypospadias and epispadias?

A

Congenital disorders in which the urethral opening is not at the tip of the penis.

133
Q

This disease only occurs in females and is the result of a missing X-chromosome in all of their cells.

A

Turner syndrome

134
Q

This disorder only occurs in males and is the result of one or more additional X-chromosomes.

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

135
Q

What is the primary blood test used to check for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

136
Q

What effect does hyperparathyroidism have on calcium levels?

A

Increased serum calcium (hypercalcemia)

137
Q

A surge in which hormone stimulates ovulation?

A

LH - Luteinizing hormone

138
Q

What are typical temperature changes surrounding ovulation?

A

Slight drop before, slight increase after

139
Q

Minimum sperm count per ml

A

20 million

140
Q

Uterine prolapse that is visible outside the vagina.

A

procidentia

141
Q

An instrument placed in the vagina to support the uterus, rectum, or bladder.

A

A pessary

142
Q

Protrusion of the intestinal wall into the vagina.

A

Enterocele

143
Q

Widening of cervical canal and scraping of endometrium.

A

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

144
Q

Accumulation waste products in the blood

A

Azotemia

145
Q

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum

A

Cryptorchidism

Reproductive Health (2 decks)

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