Cognitive/Motor Flashcards

1
Q

Primary visual cortex

A

Large RFs, spatial features and motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parietal visual stream

A

Small RFs, simple image features such as oriented line segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Temporal visual stream

A

Large RFs, complex image features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Polymodal

A

visual and other sensory modalities are combined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Object recognition:

A

Faces in the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the importance of the pupillary reflex?

A

If there is a serious brain injury and a increase in pressure (bleeding), the only place where the brain can only get pushed out of the base of the skull, squishing the midbrain and surrounding nerves, impacting the proper functioning of the pupillary reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Frequency

A

Number of cycles per second = pitch (hertz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amplitude

A

loudness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Decibels

A

sound pressure/reference pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Whisper occurs at what dB

A

0-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Conversation occurs at what dB

A

20-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Conversation occurs at what dB

A

20-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heavy Traffic occurs at what dB

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Live Rock occurs at what dB

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discomfort occurs at what dB

A

100-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pain occurs at what dB

A

140-160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The three layers on the normal audibility curve

A

Threshold, damage threshold, and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

damage threshold

A

90 dB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does maximum listening time per day change with volume level?

A

As volume increases, the listening time significantly decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Presbycusis?

A

The progressive, bilateral hearing loss with increasing age, mainly for frequencies > 1000 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where basilar membrane motion is converted into neuronal activity

A

the organ of corti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Deflection of basilar membrane produces

A

hearing of hair cell stereocelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are the neurons that detect pressure waves found?

A

The cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do pressure waves do to the tympanum membrane?

Move back and forth

A

Move back and forth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Outer hair cell “electromotility”

A
  • Shorten when depolarized

- Lengthened when hyperpolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do the muscles between the tympanum membrane and the oval window do when you speak?

A

They contract to reduce mechanical coupling between tympanum membrane and oval window to protect cochlea -> protect the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Otoacoustic emissions

A

used to evaluate hearing in newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hair cells contain what type of receptor

A

Hair cells contain mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What connects each stereocilia?

A

Tip links

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tip links

A

gate ion channels in the stereocilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the cochlear amplifier?

A

Outer hair cells shorten when depolarized, lengthen when hyperpolarized.
Hair cell electromotility augments basilar membrane motion, allowing for amplification of certain frequencies (like trying to listen to someone at a party)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mechano-transduction at tip link

A

activates afferent neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tinnitus

A

Ringing in your ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Two types of tinnitus

A

Transient and Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transient tinnitus

A

(< 24 hours)
- Usually due to loud noise.

  • Excessive mechanical stress of stereocilia. - Tip-links are thought to break, but
    eventually grow back (ringing stops).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chronic tinnitus

A
  • Many causes, but predominately loud noise. - Origin can be either inner ear, nerve or
    central pathways.
  • Impacts quality of life (does not stop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do cochlear implants work?

A

Implanted through round window, electrode placed in scala tympani, directly interact with 8th cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Visual transduction

A

Photons: high energy but hard to catch (~100X106 photoreceptors)

Trillions of opsin molecules

Slow: G-protein cascade

Amplification: one photon closes many ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Auditory transduction

A

Sound waves: low energy but all around (~15,000 hair cells)

Several hundred thousand tip links

Fast: direct channel activation

No amplification of the transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Central auditory pathways

A

Primary auditory cortex
Thalamus

Midbrain
Medulla
8th cranial nerve (vestibular and auditory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cochlear Implant steps

A

1) Implanted through round window
2) Electrode placed in scala tympani

3) Electrodes are spaced along the cochlear spiral to stimulate groups of afferent fibers that respond to different frequencies.
Generally ~12 electrodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Vestibular ocular reflex

A

eyes rotate in opposite direction
head rotates

gaze does not change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

vestibular system

A

includes the parts of the inner ear and brain that process the sensory information involved with controlling balance and eye movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

One key similarity between the auditory and vestibular system

A

Tip links gate ion channels in the stereocilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Organization of semicircular canals at rest vs rotation of the head

A

stereocilia bend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Utricle and saccule detect

A

linear acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many taste buds do you have?

A

about 10000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many taste buds do you have?

A

about 10000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

5 types of taste

A

Umani, Salty, Sour, Bitter, Sweet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Central taste pathways

A

Ipsilatory gustatory cortex
Thalamus

Medulla
Cranial Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Olfaction

A

Smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Salty channels

A

sodium moving through channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sour channels

A

Sodium and hydrogen move through channel then potassium is pumped back across against hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bitter channels

A

Bitter blocks potassium channels

various G-protein cascades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sweet channels

A

G-protein cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Umani channels

A

Glutamate receptors

G protein cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Olfactory signal transduction

A

Ordorant binding to orderant receptor
G protien activation

Opening of ion channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many orderant receptors?

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Central olfactory pathways

A

Olfactory bulb to Olfactory tract to Olfactory receptor cells to nerve to limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Consciousness is measured by

A

behavior and brain activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

State of consciousness

A

level of arousal (awake, asleep, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Conscious experience:

A

thoughts, feelings, desires, ideas, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where is the reticular activating system located and what is its function?

A

In brain stem, helps regulate circadian rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The electroencephalograph (EEG)

A

Mainly measures activity of neurons located near the scalp in the
gray matter of the cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

EEG Frequency

A

is related to

levels of responsiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

EEG amplitude

A

is related to synchronous neural activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

EEGs reflect

A

mental states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does GABA do?

A

Inhibit release of other neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the pathway responsible for motivation?

A

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Alpha rhythm

A

relaxed with eyes closed

slow frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Beta rhythm

A

alert

fast frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Awake rhythm

A

Low amplitude and high frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many stages of NREM

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

NREM

A

slow wave sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

REM

A

paradoxical sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

As you go from stage 1 to 4 what changes?

A

amplitude increases

frequency decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How long does it take for stages 1-4 of NREM to occur?

A

30-45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Sleep apnea

A

sudden reduction in respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

At REM what happens to eye and neck movements

A

Increased eye movement

Increased inhibition of skeletal muscle (low muscle tone, but twitching can occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

At REM what happens to the heart and respiration rate?

A

Increased heart rate and respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Regulating States of consciousness involves two parts

A

Brainstem nuclei that are part of the reticular activating system

  • Hypothalamus with circadian and homeostatic centres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what occurs when waking in norepinephrine, serotonin and acetylcholine levels?

A

increased norepinephrine and serotonin

decreased acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

State when aminergic neurons are active

A

waking (reticular activating system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what occurs to go into REM sleep in norepinephrine, serotonin and acetylcholine levels?

A

decreased norepinephrine and serotonin

increased acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

State when cholinergic neurons are active

A

REM sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

the reticular activating system is for

A

Waking or REM sleep

86
Q

the hypothalamus is for

A

NREM sleep or waking

87
Q

What happens to GABA, histamine, and activation of the thalamus and cortex levels during waking?

A

decreased GABA
increased histamine

increased activation of the thalamus and cortex

88
Q

increased histamine would result in

A

waking

89
Q

What happens to GABA, histamine, and activation of the thalamus and cortex levels for NREM sleep?

A

increased GABA
decreased histamine

decreased activation of the thalamus and cortex

90
Q

Motivation

A

produce goal-directed behavior

91
Q

Emotions

A

accompany our conscious experiences

92
Q

Reward pathway

A

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

93
Q

the primary neurotransmitter in the reward pathway

A

dopamine

94
Q

Self stimulation experiments

A

Continuous activation of reward related areas of the brain.

95
Q

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

A

Prefrontal cortex, midbrain, locus cereleus in the reticular activating system

96
Q

Emotions system

A

Limbic system

97
Q

Limbic system parts of the brain

A

Olfactory bulb
Amygdala

Hippocampus

98
Q

Hippocampus

A

related to memory

99
Q

What is a declarative memory and what is a procedural memory?

A

Declarative memory refers to the ability to store and retrieve both personal information (i.e., episodic memory) and general knowledge

Procedural memory is a type of long-term memory involving how to perform different actions and skills

100
Q

What is an important consolidation method for short term -> long term memory?

A

Sleep

101
Q

Where are language parts usually located?

A

Left hemisphere

102
Q

Schizophrenia

A

diverse set of problems in basic cognitive processing. Wide range of symptoms including hallucinations and delusions. Affects one out of 100 people.

103
Q

What can improve Schizophrenia symptoms

A

Reducing the effects of dopamine can improve symptoms.

104
Q

Depression

A

decreased activity in the anterior limbic system

105
Q

Treatments of depression

A

increase the levels of serotonin and

norepinephrine in the extracellular space around synapses.

106
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

swings between mania and depression.

107
Q

Treatments of Bipolar disorder

A

include lithium that reduces certain synaptic signalling pathways.

108
Q

Central olfactory pathways leads to the ____ system by ____

A

limbic system by the olfactory bulb/nerve

109
Q

What does the odorant bind to and where?

A

odorant receptors in the cilia

110
Q

What does the odorant binding activate?

A

G-protien and opens the ion channels

111
Q

Consolidation

A

short-term to long-term

112
Q

Learning and memory occurs in the

A

Hippocampus

113
Q

Short term declarative memory occurs in

A

Hippocampus and other temporal lobe structures.

114
Q

Long term declarative memory occurs in

A

Many areas of association cortex

115
Q

Short term procedural memory occurs in

A

Widely distributed

116
Q

Long term procedural memory occurs in

A

Basal nuclei
Cerebellum

premotor cortex

117
Q

Language hemisphere

A

Left

118
Q

What is Aphasia?

A

Language deficit

119
Q

What is Aphasia?

A

Language deficit

120
Q

What are the main functions of Broca’s area and Wernicke’s areas?

A

Articulation and comprehension

121
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Comprehension of language

122
Q

Parietal damage

A

Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space, which can also impair drawing ability.

123
Q

What can parietal damage lead to?

A
Sensory neglect - an inability to attend to sensory information, usually from the left side of the body, as a result of brain injury, most often to the right hemisphere.
Contralateral effect (if not producing left side of input, have damage to right side)
124
Q

Motor behaviour can be

A

Purposeful or goal directed

125
Q

What are the two types of motor behavior?

A

Voluntary and Reflective (due to efferents leaving CNS)

126
Q

What happens to the antagonist muscle when the agonist contracts?

A

Relaxes, and vice versa

127
Q

Agonist and Antagonist Extension muscles

A

Agonist: Extensor muscle contracts
Antagonist: Flexor muscle relaxes

128
Q

What type of neurons are motor neurons?

A

Only excitatory

129
Q

Increase the angle around the joint

A

Extension

130
Q

Limb position is maintained by a

A

balance of flexor and extensor muscle tension

131
Q

What are the two types of motor neurons?

A

Alpha - innervates skeletal muscle

Gamma - innervate muscle spindle (intrafusal)

132
Q

Motor neurons receives input mostly from

A

interneurons

133
Q

Cell bodies of motor neurons are in

A

ventral horn of spinal cord (spinal nerves) or brain stem (cranial nerves)

134
Q

Spinal interneurons: descending pathways control

A

Voluntary movements

135
Q

Spinal interneurons: other spinal levels

A

Coordinates complex movements

136
Q

Spinal interneurons: joint receptor

A

Proprioceptive feedback

137
Q

Spinal interneurons: skin receptor

A

Pain

138
Q

Spinal interneurons: tendon receptor

A

Tension

monitoring

139
Q

Spinal interneurons: muscle receptor (from antagonistic muscle)

A

Length monitoring

140
Q

Ascending sensory information moves through

A

dorsal columns

141
Q

Motor neuron is in the

A

ventral horn

142
Q

Motor efferent

A

in ventral root

143
Q

What is the purpose of the withdrawal reflex?

A

Protects limbs from injury

144
Q

What is the purpose of the stretch reflex?

A

Control muscle length

Monosynaptic (primary) or polysynaptic (secondary)

145
Q

What is the purpose of the inverse stretch reflex?

A

Controls muscle tension

146
Q

T/F: Spinal reflexes can be overridden and modified

A

Most spinal reflexes can be overridden

147
Q

Flexion withdrawal reflex on the ipsilateral
- inhibition of

  • excitation of
A
  • Inhibition of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral extensor
  • Excitation of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral flexor
148
Q

Flexion withdrawal reflex on the contralateral
- inhibition of

  • excitation of
A
  • Inhibition of motor neurons innervating the contralateral flexor
  • Excitation of motor neurons innervating the contralateral extensor
149
Q

Magnitude of withdrawal reflex depends on the

A

magnitude of pain stimulus

150
Q

In the withdrawal reflex, limb withdrawal persists even after removal of the painful stimulus because of

A

Feedback loops in the spinal cord

151
Q

Afterdischarge:

A

Response maintained after stimulus termination (spinal feedback loops)

152
Q

Irradiation

A

distance of limb withdrawal

Increase in rate and magnitude of withdrawal response with increased stimulus strength (recruitment of interneurons).

153
Q

Is the withdrawal reflex poly or mono-synaptic?

A

Polysynaptic

154
Q

Monosynaptic stretch reflex

A

knee jerk

155
Q

Knee jerk is due to excitation/inhibition of motor neurons in the ipsilateral extensor

A

excitation

156
Q

Knee jerk is due to excitation/inhibition of motor neurons in the ipsilateral flexor

A

inhibition

157
Q

Why do doctors check the stretch reflex?

A

To make sure descending pathways and components of the nervous system is working properly

158
Q

Muscle spindle is in series/parallel with extrafusal muscle

A

parallel

159
Q

Extrafusal muscle fiber is activated by

A

alpha motor neurons

160
Q

Intrafusal muscle fiber is activated by

A

gamma motor neurons

161
Q

What does the golgi tendon organ do?

A

is a proprioceptor – a type of sensory receptor that senses changes in muscle tension

162
Q

What happens to the muscle spindle as the muscle stretches or shortens?

A

It is in parallel with the muscle, therefore it does the same thing

163
Q

What type of muscle fibers are adapting and non-adapting?

A

IA are adapting (dynamic changes in muscle length)

II are non-adapting (signal static muscle length)

164
Q

Are alpha and gamma neurons activated together?

A

Yes, alpha-gamma coactivation

165
Q

What are the 3 properties of the stretch reflex?

A

Resists changes in muscle length (muscle tone (clinical term))

Mono and poly-synaptic components

Feedback from muscle spindles

166
Q

What are the properties of muscle spindles (6):

A

Reports muscle length

In parallel with extrafusal muscle fibers

IA primary: detects changes in muscle length and some static length (nuclear bag fibers)

II secondary: detects static length (nuclear chain fibers)

Intrafusal fibers: maintain muscle spindle sensitivity

Alpha-Gamma coactivation

167
Q

What type of afferents carry information from the golgi tendon organ to the spinal cord?

A

IB afferents

168
Q

Muscle spindles afferents

A

la primary

la secondary

169
Q

nuclear bag fibers

A

la primary

170
Q

nuclear chain fibers

A

la secondary

171
Q

dynamic changes in muscle length (and some static length)

A

Ia primary

172
Q

signal static muscle length

A

II secondary

173
Q

Muscle spindles can

A

lose sensitivity when muscle spindle collapses in voluntary flexion

174
Q

Muscles in extension

A

Muscles are lengthen

175
Q

Muscles in voluntary flexion

A

Muscles are shorten

176
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: Increase in muscle spindle afferent activity

A

Extension

177
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: Muscle spindle collapses

sensitivity is reduced

A

Voluntary flexion

178
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: intrafusal fibers contract and muscle spindle is stretched

A

Voluntary flexion

179
Q

How is spindle sensitivity maintained?

A

Intrafusal fibers contract and muscle spindle is stretched

180
Q

What is the role of the middle level of motor control?

A

Executes the individual muscle contractions (to perform complex movement)
Makes corrections based on sensory information

181
Q

Active contraction of a muscle produces more ______ than ______

(stretching, tension)

A

tension than stretching

182
Q

Golgi tendon organ responds to

A

tension

183
Q

Golgi tendon is in (series/parallel) with the muscle

A

series

184
Q

Golgi tendon organ structure

A

Capsule
Ib afferent

Free nerve ending
collagen fibers

185
Q

Properties of Golgi tendon organ

A

1) Reports muscle tension.
2) In series with extrafusal muscle fibers.

3) Ib afferents.
4) Underlies inverse stretch reflex (polysynaptic).

186
Q

T/F: Voluntary movements do not have an “involuntary” component

A

F: Voluntary movements have an “involuntary” component

187
Q

Where is the decision to execute a movement initiated?

A

Frontal cortex

188
Q

What is the pattern of decision for voluntary control of movement in brain?

A

Consciously initiating a movement happens in the frontal cortex. After about 100 msec, this idea moves to the premotor area of cortex then to primary motor cortex. After, activity goes down towards brain stem and spinal cord

189
Q

What area of the body are governed by which part of the primary motor cortex (from lateral to top of head (medial)?

A

Head, arms, trunk, legs

190
Q

What is the relationship between the size of the body structures in primary motor cortex and number of neurons dedicated to their motor control?

A

Increase together (mouth and hands for example have a lot of real estate in the primary motor cortex)

191
Q

What does the corticospinal pathway dictate?

A

Skilled movements

192
Q

Extrapyramidal

A

trunk & posture

193
Q

Corticospinal is from ________ to ____ and ______

A

from sensorimotor cortex to brainstem and spinal cord

194
Q

What is the overall effect on the basal nuclei in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Reduced dopamine input to basal nuclei

195
Q

Muscle tone

A

Resistance of skeletal muscle to stretch.

196
Q

What are the 4 symptoms of parkinsons?

A

Akinesia: reduced movements

Bradykinesia: slow movements

Muscular rigidity

Resting tremors

197
Q

What is Huntington’s disease and its cause?

A

Widespread loss of neurons in the brain

Neurons in basal nuclei are preferentially lost

198
Q

What are the 2 disorders/symptoms that come with Huntington’s disease?

A

Hyperkinetic disorder: excessive motor movements

Choreiform movements: jerky random involuntary movements of limbs and face

199
Q

Hypertonia

A

Abnormally high muscle tone.

200
Q

Hypotonia

A

Abnormally low muscle tone.

201
Q

Spasticity

A

Overactive motor reflexes.

202
Q

What is deep brain stimulation?

A

Treatment for parkinsons, stimulation of globus pallidus/basal nuclei via surgically implanted electrode

Reduce symptoms of parkinsons

203
Q

Rigidity

A

Constant muscle contraction.

204
Q

Atrophy

A

Loss of muscle mass

205
Q

Helps to determine the specific sequence of movements needed to accomplish a desired action.

A

Basal nuclei

206
Q

Where are nearly half the neurons in the brain found?

A

Cerebellum

207
Q

What information does the cerebellum receive?

A

Sensory info -> vestibular, visual, auditory, somatosensory, proprioceptive

208
Q

Treatment for Parkinson disease

A

increasing dopamine concentrations in the brain

209
Q

What is asynergia?

A

Cerebellar deficit, smooth movements are subdivided into their separate components

210
Q

What is dysmetria?

A

Cerebellar deficit, Unable to target movements correctly ‘past pointing’

211
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Cerebellar deficit, Incoordination of muscles group (awkward gate)

212
Q

What is intention tremor?

A

Cerebellar deficit, involuntary tremors during voluntary movements