CNS/Palliative Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study question for Patchell II?

A

Whether postop RT after resection of single brain met improves neurologic control and increased survival

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2
Q

Number of patients on Patchell II

A

95

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3
Q

RCT arms for Patchell II

A
  1. WBRT (50.4 in 1.8 fractions)

2. Observation

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4
Q

OS results for Patchell II

A

WBRT: 48 weeks
Observation: 43 weeks
NSS

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5
Q

Tumor recurrence at site of original metastasis Patchell II

A

WBRT: 10%
Observation: 46%

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6
Q

In brain tumor recurrence Patchell II

A

WBRT: 18%
Observation: 70%

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7
Q

Death due to neurologic causes

A

WBRT: 14%
Observation: 44%

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8
Q

What percentage of observed patients eventually got RT on Patchell II

A

60%

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9
Q

Research question in Patchell I

A

Question of whether surgery benefits patients with single brain met

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10
Q

RCT arms for Patchell I

A
  1. Resection followed by WBRT (36/12)

2. Biopsy followed by WBRT (36/12)

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11
Q

How many patients were excluded from Patchell I due to histology not being malignant

A

11% (6 pts)

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12
Q

OS differences on Patchell I

A

Surg+WBRT: 40 weeks

WBRT: 15 weeks

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13
Q

Recurrence rate at original metastasis Patchell I

A

Surgery+WBRT: 20%

WBRT: 52%

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14
Q

After 3x10 or 4x5 for cord compression how many had stable or improved motor function at 1 month

A

88%

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15
Q

What percentage of patients could walk at 1 month after palliative RT

A

73%

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16
Q

TEACHH model, lowest survival score median survival

A

1.7 months

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17
Q

TEACHH model, highest survival score

A

19.9 months

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18
Q

Factors with negative prognosis for palliative RT

A
Lung/other vs. breast/prostate
ECOG 2-4
Age >60
More prior courses palliative chemo
Hospitalizations prior to palliative RT
Hepatic mets
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19
Q

Most common site of bone mets

A

spine > pelvis > ribs > femur > skull

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20
Q

Most common distribution of spine mets

A

Thoracic (30-60%)
Lumbar (15-30%)
Cervical (<10%)

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21
Q

How were oligomets defined on SABR-COMET

A

1-5 mets

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22
Q

RCT arms for SABR-COMET

A
  1. SABR to all sites + standard of care systemic therapy

2. Systemic therapy alone

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23
Q

PFS differences in SABR-COMET

A
  1. SABR: 12 months

2. SOC: 6 months

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24
Q

OS differences in SABR-COMET

A
  1. SABR: 41 mos
  2. SOC: 28 mos
    p=0.09
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25
Q

G2+ toxicities on SABR-COMET

A
  1. SABR: 29%

2. SOC: 9%

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26
Q

On the disease specific GPA, does higher or lower score correspond to better prognosis

A

higher (0-4)

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27
Q

On the DS-GPA which histology had best prognosis

A

breast

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28
Q

For brainstem mets SRS, limit healthy brainstem dose getting 10-12 Gy to X cc

A

1

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29
Q

What percentage of patients will develop brain mets

A

20-40%

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30
Q

Broca’s area location

A

inferior frontal gyrus of dominant hemisphere [usually left side in 75% of patients]

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31
Q

Broca’s aphasia aka

A

expressive aphasia – understand but cannot fluently speak

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32
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

transverse gyrus of the dominant temporal lobe

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33
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia aka

A

receptive aphasia - difficulty understanding language

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34
Q

Preferred steroid dose for new BM

A

8-32 mg dex loading

4q6h and taper as tolerated

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35
Q

RPA classes include which 3 factors

A
  1. Age <65
  2. KPS <70
  3. controlled primary
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36
Q

Class 1

A

KPS>70, age<65, controlled primary - MS of 7 months

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37
Q

Class 2

A

one risk factor

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38
Q

Class 3

A

all risk factors

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39
Q

Patchell 2 research question

A

Is adjuvant RT needed after resection?

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40
Q

QUARTZ trial design

A

NSCLC pts unsuitable for SRS or surgery randomized to

  1. WBRT
  2. best supportive care
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41
Q

QUARTZ results

A

No OS difference (9 weeks)

No QOL difference

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42
Q

NRG CC001 study (Brown)

A

RCT of

  1. WBRT + memantine
  2. HA-WBRT + memantine
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43
Q

Requirement for eligibility on CC001

A

no mets within 5 mm of hippocampus

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44
Q

What did HA-WBRT improve?

A

Less executive function deterioration at 4 months
Improved learning/memory at 6 months
Less fatigue at 6 months

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45
Q

Dose constraint for hippocampi

A

D100% < 9 Gy (bilateral)

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46
Q

RTOG 9508 study patients

A

1-3 mets
<4 cm
Not amenable to resection

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47
Q

RTOG 9508 study design

A

randomized to

  1. WBRT (37.5/15)
  2. SRS
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48
Q

RTOG 9508 fndings

A

OS advantage for SRS for 1 met (6.5 months vs. 4.9 months)

No OS for multiple

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49
Q

EORTC 22952 (Kocher) design

A

1-3 mets s/p surgery or SRS randomized to

  1. WBRT
  2. Observation
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50
Q

EORTC 22952 results

A

WBRT reduces intracranial recurrence and neurologic death

No diff in OS or functional independence

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51
Q

RTOG 90-05 design

A

SRS dose escalation study of previously irradiated primary brain tumors or brain mets

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52
Q

90-05 doses for <2cm

A

18-24 Gy

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53
Q

90-05 doses for 2-3 cm

A

15-18

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54
Q

90-05 doses for 3-4 cm

A

12-15

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55
Q

Rate of radionecrosis at 24 months from 90-05

A

11%

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56
Q

What is the expected intracranial response rate for ipi/nivo

A

26% CR

30% PR

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57
Q

Yamamoto 1-10 brain met study stratified patients into what groups

A

1 met
2-4 mets
5-10 mets

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58
Q

On Yamamoto study how were patients treated

A

SRS with GK

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59
Q

Median OS for 1 met

A

13.9 months

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60
Q

Median OS for 2-4/5-10 mets

A

both same 10.8 months

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61
Q

Brown study of memantine - dose of memantine

A

20 mg per day

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62
Q

How long did patients take memantine

A

6 months

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63
Q

What was primary endpoint in memantine study

A

decline in delayed recall at 6 months

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64
Q

What was the result?

A

less decline for memantine but not SS (p=0.059)

but also numerous other cognitive parameters improved with memantine

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65
Q

Why not SS?

A

probably too few analyzable patients

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66
Q

Peak incidence of HGG

A

65-75

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67
Q

What syndromes associated with HGG

A

NF1, NF2, Tuberous Sclerosis

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68
Q

What are the pathologic hallmarks of grade IV astrocytoma

A

Necrosis

Endothelial proliferation

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69
Q

What characteristic defines anaplastic gliomas

A

mitotic rate

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70
Q

What characteristic defines grade II gliomas

A

atypia

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71
Q

What mutations are much more frequently found in LGG

A

IDH mutations

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72
Q

IDH1 mutant appearance on MRI

A

On T2 confluent signal which is much lighter on FLAIR with brighter rim

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73
Q

What mutation associated with aggressive brainstem glioma

A

H3K27 mutant

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74
Q

What molecular markers in diffuse astrocytoma make them molecularly GBM

A

IDHwt
EGFR amplification
TERT mutation
+7/-10 chromosome

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75
Q

What is hallmark of oligodendroglioma

A

1p19q codeletion

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76
Q

ATRX loss is typically associated with

A

IDH mutant LGG

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77
Q

Most IDH mt tumors also show

A

CpG island methylated phenotype (CIMP) - low levels associated with poorer prognosis

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78
Q

CDKN2A deletion associated with better/worse prognosis

A

worse

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79
Q

For cancer, is N-acetylaspartate (NAA) be low or high

A

low

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80
Q

What marker should be high for spectroscopy in tumors

A

choline

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81
Q

Margin for HGG

A

GTV + 2 cm margin

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82
Q

Why is this margin used

A

90% of gliomas fail within 2 cm of original site

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83
Q

BTSG study concluded that >X Gy associated with OS benefit

A

50 Gy

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84
Q

MRC BR02 compared what dose levels

A

60 Gy vs. 45 Gy, 60 better

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85
Q

What is hyperfractionation

A

smaller dose per fraction, usually BID-TID

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86
Q

Accelerated fractionation

A

shorter duration of time, higher dose per treatment

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87
Q

Dose of temozolomide for concurrent

A

75 mg/m2 every day

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88
Q

Dose of temozolomide for adjuvant

A

150 mg/m2 day 1-5 of 28 day cycle 1

200 mg/m2 day 1-5 of 28 day cycle 2-6

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89
Q

Stupp trial arms

A
  1. RT alone (60/30)

2. RT with concurrent TMZ for 6 cycles

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90
Q

5 year OS advantage per Stupp

A

CRT: 10%
RT: 2%

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91
Q

Median OS per Stupp with CRT

A

14.6 months (v. 12 months)

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92
Q

AVAGLIO study showed that bev improves

A

QOL only

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93
Q

TTF study randomization

A
  1. Stupp + TTF

2. Stupp alone

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94
Q

How long per day is patient supposed to wear TTF

A

18 h

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95
Q

What did TTF improve?

A

OS improved from 16 to 21 months

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96
Q

TTF associated with what toxicity

A

mild to moderate skin toxicity in 52%

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97
Q

Roa study patient population

A

Age > 60

KPS > 50

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98
Q

Conclusion of Roa study

A

60/30 similar OS to 40/15 with less steroid requirement for 40/15 arm

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99
Q

Nordic trial arms

A
  1. 60 Gy
  2. 34/10
  3. TMZ alone
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100
Q

Patients on Nordic trial

A

Age >60

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101
Q

Finding of Nordic trial

A

60 Gy did worse than either other arm

If MGMT methylated, TMZ is better

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102
Q

Median survival of anaplastic gliomas

A

4 years

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103
Q

NOA-04 study (Wick 2016) design

A
  1. Chemo alone (either PCV or TMZ)
  2. RT alone
    Once unacceptable toxicity or POD, the patients crossed over to the other arm
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104
Q

What patients included on NOA-04

A

anaplastic gliomas (unselected)

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105
Q

Results of NOA-04 trial

A

No difference in PFS or OS whether starting with chemo or RT

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106
Q

What is PCV chemo

A

procarbazine
CCNU (lomustine)
Vincristine

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107
Q

RTOG 9402 (Caincross) patient inclusion

A

anaplastic oligo or oligoastro

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108
Q

RTOG 9402 (Caincross) treatment arms

A
  1. PCV –> RT

2. RT alone (59.4)

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109
Q

What was the OS result for whole cohort?

A

No difference 4.6 years for both

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110
Q

Which group benefitted from PCV + RT

A

1p19q codel tumors

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111
Q

What is median OS for 1p19q deleted tumor with CRT

A

14.7 years

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112
Q

What is benefit of PCV+RT for IDH mutants

A

It improved OS irrespective of whether pt also had 1p19q codel

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113
Q

What is benefit of PCV+RT for IDH wt

A

No benefit from chemo

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114
Q

What is median OS for IDH mt tumor

A

9.4 years with CRT

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115
Q

What is median OS for IDH mt astro (non codel)

A

5.5 years with CRT

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116
Q

CATNON trial population

A

anaplastic gliomas, 1p19 non-codel

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117
Q

CATNON arms

A
  1. RT alone
  2. RT + TMZ adjuvant
  3. RT + concurrent/adjuvant TMZ
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118
Q

What is reported result of CATNON

A

adjuvant TMZ improves OS 44 to 56%

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119
Q

Concurrent TMZ may benefit which group

A

IDH mt

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120
Q

How many MRIs look worse 1 month after RT

A

50%

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121
Q

How many of those have pseudoprogression

A

2/3

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122
Q

What risk factor for pseudoprogression

A

MGMT methylated

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123
Q

What oncogene pathway associated with LGG

A

Ras

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124
Q

What is the path hallmark of pilocytic astrocytomas

A

Rosenthal fibers

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125
Q

What grade is pleomorphic xanthroastrocytoma

A

II

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Perfectly
126
Q

What mutation is associated with pleomorphic xanthroastrocytoma

A

BRAF

127
Q

How is gemistocytic astrocytoma classified

A

technically grade 2 but more aggressive

128
Q

What does 1p19q predict

A

chemosensitivity

129
Q

What path marker for grade II astrocytoma

A

ATRX loss

130
Q

Median age of presentation of LGG

A

35

131
Q

Most powerful predictor of OS in LGG

A

age (younger better)

132
Q

Negative risk factors for LGG

A
Age >40
Astrocytoma histology
Tumor size 6 cm
Tumor crossing midline
Neuro deficit pre surgery
133
Q

How many LGG risk factors is low risk

A

2 (median survival of 7.7 years)

134
Q

What is the 5 year OS for observed LGG after resection

A

93%

135
Q

EORTC 22845 (non believers study) design

A

supratentorial LGG randomized to

  1. observation
  2. RT (54 Gy)
136
Q

Results of 22845

A

RT improved PFS, no diff OS

137
Q

What was rate of transformation to HGG

A

70%

138
Q

What proportion of delayed RT group needed RT

A

65%

139
Q

What is criticism of this study?

A

25% path review were high grade

140
Q

RTOG 9802 design

A

Resected LGG randomized to

  1. RT –> 6 cycles PCV
  2. RT alone
141
Q

High risk patients on 9802

A

Age < 40 with STR

Age > 40 with any resection

142
Q

How were Low risk patients treated

A

observation

143
Q

What was OS for low risk

A

median survival 13 years

144
Q

What was the benefit of PCV for high risk patients

A

Improved OS (13.3 vs. 7.8 years)

145
Q

What factors were associated with improved PFS/OS

A

Receipt of PCV

Oligodendroglioma

146
Q

Which patients did not benefit from PCV

A

IDHwt

147
Q

Question in EORTC 22944

A

Compared two dose levels for LGG

45 vs. 59.4

148
Q

What is gender preponderance of meningioma

A

2-3x more common in women

149
Q

What genetic syndrome has higher rates of meningioma

A

NF2

150
Q

Risk of recurrence for low risk meningioma

A

5%

151
Q

Atypical meningioma risk of recurrence

A

40%

152
Q

Anaplastic/malignant meningioma risk of recurrence

A

80%

153
Q

Skull base meningiomas are likely to be higher/lower grade than convexity meningioma

A

lower

154
Q

Grade II meningioma has how many mitoses per HPF

A

> 4

155
Q

Grade III meningioma has how many mitoses per HPF

A

> 20

156
Q

Simpson I or V is most complete

A

I

157
Q

Dose for grade I meningioma

A

45-57.6

158
Q

SRS dose for meningioma

A

12-16 Gy x1

159
Q

What is max size for meningioma

A

3-4 cm in max diameter

160
Q

Site associated with significant edema after SRS

A

parasagittal/convexity

161
Q

Dose for grade II meningioma if GTR

A

54/30

162
Q

Dose for grade II meningioma if STR

A

60/30

163
Q

Treatment volumes for conventional fractionation

A

GTV + 2cm

164
Q

Should dural tail be included in CTV?

A

no

165
Q

RTOG 0539 treatment of low risk

A

observation

166
Q

what is low risk

A

GTR or STR of who grade I

167
Q

what is intermediate risk

A

recurrent grade I

GTR grade II

168
Q

treatment for intermediate risk meningioma

A

54/30

CTV = GTV + 1 cm

169
Q

what is high risk

A

STR grade II
recurrent grade II
any grade III

170
Q

treatment for high risk

A

60/30
CTV= GTV+2 cm
6 Gy boost to GTV + 1 cm

171
Q

Bilateral acoustic neuromas are pathognomonic for

A

NF2

172
Q

NF1 is associated with which tumor

A

optic pathway gliomas

173
Q

Acoustics preferentially impact what type of hearing?

A

high frequency

174
Q

What score is used for facial nerve function

A

House-Brackmannn score

175
Q

Where do schwannomas arise

A

vestibular portion of CN VIII

176
Q

SRS dose for acoustic neuroma

A

12-13 Gy

177
Q

Dose in fractionated RT

A

45/25

178
Q

Local control of acoustics

A

90%

179
Q

MEN-1 syndrome associated with

A

pituitary
pancreatic
parathyroid tumors

180
Q

What nerves are in cavernous sinus

A
CN III
CN IV
CN V1
CN V2
CN VI
181
Q

Posterior lobe of pituitary controls which hormones

A

oxytocin and ADH

182
Q

Macroadenomas are larger than

A

1 cm

183
Q

Atypical adenoma has MIB-1 score of

A

> 3%

184
Q

Are most adenomas functional or nonfunctional

A

nonfunctional

185
Q

Most common functional pituitary tumor

A

prolactinoma

186
Q

Prolactin levels associated with microadenoma

A

30-100

187
Q

Prolactin levels associated with macroadenoma

A

> 100

188
Q

What is 1L for proalactioma

A

bromocriptine or cabergoline

189
Q

If GH is elevated, what other hormone is elevated

A

IGF-1

190
Q

SRS dose for non-functional adenoma

A

14-18 Gy

191
Q

SRS dose for functional adenoma

A

18-35 Gy

192
Q

Conventional dose for non-functional adenoma

A

45/25

193
Q

Conventional dose for functional adenoma

A

50-54 Gy

194
Q

Which of the functional variants is more aggressive

A

TSH secreting

195
Q

Most common type of spinal lesion

A

extradural

extramedullary

196
Q

Most common intradural extramedullary tumors

A

meningioma

schwannoma

197
Q

Most common location of ependymoma failure

A

locally

198
Q

What structure is chordoma derived from

A

notochord

199
Q

From Patchell postop spine study, what % who were non ambulatory became ambulatory

A

60%

200
Q

Dose for AVM

A

SRS to 18-25 Gy

201
Q

Dose for trigeminal neuralgia

A

85 Gy to 100% IDL

202
Q

Median time to pain relief after trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

1 month

203
Q

What proportion are pain free

A

50-60%

204
Q

PCNSL how any present with single lesion?

A

66%

205
Q

Where is most common location for PSCNL

A

frontal lobe

206
Q

What is one of the radiographic hallmarks of PCNSL

A

multiple periventricular enhancing lesions

207
Q

What is OS for PCNSL with RT alone

A

1 year

208
Q

General treatment for PCNSL

A
  1. High dose MTX

2. Consolidation with WBRT or Ara-C or HD MTX –> ASCT

209
Q

Dose of WBRT

A

23.4/13

210
Q

Dose of HD MTX

A

3.5 g/m2

211
Q

Chemo of choice

A

R-MVP
MTX
Vincristine
Procarbazine

212
Q

CN II palsy

A

pupil will react but not accomodate

213
Q

CN III palsy

A

oculomotor palsy - eye will be down and out

214
Q

CN IV palsy

A

controls superior oblique

eye deviates up and inward towards nose

215
Q

CN VI palsy

A

abducens nerve, controls lateral rectus

unable to ABDUCT eye

216
Q

Small choroidal melanoma size

A

1.5 - 2.4 mm height

5-16 mm diameter

217
Q

Medium choroidal melanoma size

A

2.5-10 mm height

<16 mm diameter

218
Q

Large choroidal melanoma size

A

> 10 mm height

>16 mm diameter

219
Q

Isotope used for plaque brachy

A

I-125 with gold shield

220
Q

What is the size of tumor which can be treated with plaque

A

up to 18 mm in diameter

8-10 mm thick

221
Q

COMS study patients

A

medium sized melanomas

222
Q

COMS study arms

A

RCT of

  1. enucleation
  2. plaque brachy
223
Q

What was COMS finding

A

OS same in both arms 81%

224
Q

How many patients needed enucleation after plaque

A

10%

225
Q

What was the brachy dose utilized

A

85 Gy to apex

226
Q

Dose of RT used for charged particles for uveal melanoma

A

50-70Gy

227
Q

Myxopapillary ependymomas are typically located where

A

spine

228
Q

What genetic alteration associated with ependymoma

A

RELA fusion

229
Q

CSF relapse after local treatment of ependymoma

A

5-15%

230
Q

What is RT strategy for ependymoma

A

IF to 54-59.4

CSI ONLY if dissemninated disease

231
Q

When does SMART syndrome occur

A

10-20 years after RT

Stroke like migraines

232
Q

How to treat SMART syndrome

A

anti-epileptics

233
Q

Optic nerve meningioma typical RTR dose

A

50.4 in 1.8 Gy fractions

234
Q

What is rate of vision preservation for RT alone for optic sheath meningiomas

A

90%

235
Q

Is biopsy needed for optic sheath meningioma

A

no

236
Q

Where does spinal cord end level

A

L1-L2

237
Q

Where does thecal sac end

A

S2

238
Q

Estimated 5y OS for newly diagnosed WHO grade II glioma

A

60-70%

239
Q

What share of patients treated for trigeminal neuralgia will have complete response to SRS

A

75%

240
Q

For how many of these patients will the response be durable?

A

50%

241
Q

RTOG 0424 design

A

single arm phase II of LGG patients with >3 risk factors receiving RT with concurrent/adjuvant TMZ

242
Q

What dose of RT used on 0424

A

54/30

243
Q

What were the LGG risk factors

A
Age >40
Tumor >6cm
Tumor crossing midline
STR
Astrocytoma histology
preop neuro deficit
244
Q

Three year OS for LGG

A

74%

245
Q

Five year OS for LGG

A

61%

246
Q

What did this study conclude about methylation status

A

Demonstrated increased efficacy of TMZ in methylated patients

247
Q

RTOG optic chiasm dose constraint

A

56 Gy to point dose

248
Q

RTOG optic nerve dose constraint

A

55 Gy point

249
Q

RTOG retina dose constraint

A

50 Gy point

250
Q

What percentage of patients will develop a pituitary deficiency after pit RT

A

100%

251
Q

Most common hormone lost from pit RT

A

GH

252
Q

Next most common

A

gonadotropins

253
Q

least most common hormone lost

A

TSH

254
Q

2 year OS for RT alone (Stupp)

A

11%

255
Q

2 year OS for RT+TMZ (Stupp)

A

27%

256
Q

5 year OS for RT alone (Stupp)

A

2%

257
Q

5 year OS for RT+TMZ (Stupp)

A

10%

258
Q

Rate of long term control for nonfunctional pituitary adenoma with RT or Surgery

A

90%

259
Q

RTOG 05-39 margins for malignant meningioma

A

60 Gy with 1 cm margin

54 Gy with 2 cm margin

260
Q

Obliteration rate of AVMs with radiosurgery

A

85%

261
Q

Risk factors for myelopathy with spinal retreatment

A

Cumulative BED > 120
<6 months between courses
Any course with BED>102

262
Q

Factors predicting more indolent meningioma

A
  1. Hypointense on T1 imaging
  2. Calcifications
  3. Older pt age
  4. No growth on serial scans
263
Q

For secretory pit adenomas what should happen to anti-secretory meds

A

held for several weeks before RT

264
Q

RTOG/NRG recommendation for gbm contours

A

Two dose levels 46 and 60 Gy

265
Q

ESTRO contouring guidelines

A

single dose level of 60 Gy

cavity + T1 post contrast expanded by 2 cm and then +/- FLAIR

266
Q

What nerves pass through cavernous sinus

A
III
IV
V1
V2
VI
267
Q

Where does CN II exit

A

optic canal

268
Q

Where do CN VII and VIII pass

A

internal auditory canal

269
Q

NCCTG trial (Brown et al) compared what for resected brain met

A
  1. SRS

2. WBRT

270
Q

What did it conclude

A

WBRT had improved local control and distant brain control

SRS had improved cognitive function

271
Q

Perry short course w/wo TMZ median OS

A

TMZ+40: 9.3 months

40 Gy: 7.6 months

272
Q

Roa II study design

A
  1. 40/15

2. 25/5

273
Q

Patients included on Roa II

A

frail: age >50, KPS 50-70
elderly/frail: age >65, KPS 50-70
elderly: age>65, KPS 80-100

274
Q

OS for two Roa II arms

A

NSS different

  1. 9 mos
  2. 4 mos
275
Q

RTOG CTV expansions

A

CTV1 (46 Gy) - FLAIR + 2 cm

CTV2 (60 Gy) - T1post con + 2 cm

276
Q

RTOG recommends trimming CTV to what around natural barriers

A

0.5 cm

277
Q

Rate of compression fractures following spine sbrt from saghal paper

A

14%

278
Q

Saghal identified what as risk factors

A

Higher dose (>20 Gy/fx)
baseline fracture
lytic tumor
spinal deformity

279
Q

If fractures occur, what period

A

within 4-6 months post SBRT

280
Q

Recommended dose range for AVM with radiosurgery

A

20-24 Gy

281
Q

t(1;13) is associated with which malignancy

A

alveolar rhabdo

282
Q

For postop SRS, guidelines recommend covering how long along dura of bone flap

A

5-10 mm

283
Q

Rate of pseuoprogression after TMZ-RT

A

20-30%

284
Q

In the postop SRS study, what is 12 month freedom from local failure for postop SRS

A

72%

285
Q

In the postop SRS study, what is 12 month freedom from local failure for observation

A

43%

286
Q

Which CN come off medulla

A

CN IX-XII

287
Q

Which CN come off midbrain

A

CN III, IV

288
Q

Which CN comes off mid pons

A

V

289
Q

Risk of tumor progression at 5 years for completely resected LGG without adjuvant RT

A

50%

290
Q

Which factors predicted worse PFS

A

Preop tumor > 4cm
Astrocytoma histology
Residual tumor > 1cm

291
Q

RTOG constraint for brainstem

A

60 Gy

292
Q

Rate of facial numbness after trigeminal neuralgia SRS

A

3-15%

293
Q

SCORE-2 for cord compression finding

A

4x5 is not significantly inferior to 3x110 for patients with poor to intermediate expected survival

294
Q

SCORAD trial question

A

8x1 vs. 4x5 for cord compression for nonoperative patients

295
Q

Primary outcome of SCORAD trial

A

ambulatory status at 8 weeks post RT

296
Q

Result of SCORAD

A

8x1 technically didn’t meet noninferiority margin but similar, no differences in other outcomes

297
Q

RPA class 3 has OS of how many months

A

2 months

298
Q

RPA class 2 has OS of how many months

A

4 months

299
Q

RPA class 1 has OS of how many months

A

7 months

300
Q

From RTOG 9508 (WBRT + SRS boost) which groups benefitted from SRS boost

A
  1. Single brain met (improved OS)
  2. RPA class 1
  3. Squamous or non-small cell histology
301
Q

RTOG 9714 (Hartsell) patient inclusion

A

Breast or prostate patients

1-3 sites of painful bone mets with mod-severe pain

302
Q

RTOG 9714 (Hartsell) arms

A
  1. 8 Gy x 1

2. 300 x 10

303
Q

Overall response rate for pain control in 9714

A

66%

304
Q

At 3 months how many no longer required narcotics

A

33%

305
Q

Retreatment rate for 8 Gy x 30 Gy

A

18% vs. 9%

306
Q

Toxicity rates for 8 Gy x 30 Gy

A

10% vs. 17%

307
Q

What is a solitary brain met

A

Single brain met with no extracranial metastatic disease

308
Q

Rate of pain flare in patients getting palliative RT for bone mets

A

30-40%

309
Q

Dose of dex used in randomized study to minimize pain flares

A

8 mg prior to start of RT and 4days post treatment

310
Q

By how much did prophylactic dex reduce pain flare

A

10%

311
Q

Aoyama study how many mets

A

1-4

312
Q

What was brain recurrence rate at 12 months for SRS alone

A

76%

313
Q

What was brain recurrence rate at 12 months for SRS+WBRT

A

47%

314
Q

Aoyama other outcomes

A

No differences in death from neurologic causes or OS