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CNM > CNM Purple Big Book: General Health Assessment and Health Promotion 2013 > Flashcards

CNM Purple Big Book: General Health Assessment and Health Promotion 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

ROS endocrine focus

A

Menses, breasts, pregnancy, thyroid, menopause

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1
Q

ROS genitourinary

A

In uterine exposure to DES if born before 1971
Uterine or ovarian problems
History or symptoms of STI or pelvic infection
History or sx of vaginal infections
History of abnormal Paps - date, abnormality, tx
Hx or sx of UTI
Sx of urinary incontinence

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2
Q

Concluding question

A

Is there anything else I need to know about your health in order to provide you with the best health care?

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3
Q

Prevalence

A

Existing level of disease

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4
Q

Incidence

A

Rate of new disease

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5
Q

Tympani

A

Loud, high-pitched, drum-like sound, eg, gastric bubble, gas-filled bowel

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6
Q

Resonance

A

Loud, low-pitched, hollow sound, eg. Healthy lungs

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8
Q

Dull

A

Soft to mod, mod-pitched, thud-like sound, eg liver, heart

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9
Q

light palpation is used to identify…

A

~1 cm deep
muscular resistance
areas of tenderness and
large masses or areas of distention

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10
Q

deep palpation

A

~4cm deep
used to delineate organs and
to identify less obvious masses

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11
Q

underweight

A

BMI <18.5

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12
Q

normal weight

A

BMI 18.5-24.9

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13
Q

Overweight

A

BMI 25-29.9

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14
Q

Obesity

A

BMI 30-39.9

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15
Q

Extreme obesity

A

BMI 40 or greater

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16
Q

waist circumference provides msmt of abd fat as independent prediction of risk for

A

DM II, dyslipidemia, HTN, and CVD in individual with BMI 25-39.9

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17
Q

in adult femaile, incr relative risk is indicated at a waist circumferece greater than

A

35 in

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18
Q

Primary lesions

A

occur as an initial, spontaneous rxn to an internal or external stimulus
(macule, papule, pustule, vesicle, wheal)

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19
Q

Secondary lesion

A

result from later evolution or trauma to a primary lesion

ulcer, fissure, crust, scar

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20
Q

Thyroid nl PE

A

palpable with no masses or tenderness, rists symmetrically with swallowing

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21
Q

Lymph node HEENT locations

A

preauricular, postauricular, occipital, tonsilar, submandibular, submental, superficail cervical, posterior and deep cervical chains, supraclavicular

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22
Q

Lymph node PE wnl

A

<1 cm, nontneder, mobile, soft, discrete

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23
Q

snellen chart used for what kind of vision

A

central

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24
Q

rosenbaum card used for what vision

A

near vision

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25
Q

impaired near vision

A

presbyopia

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26
Q

impaired far vision

A

myopia

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27
Q

Tragus tenderness may indicate

A

otitis externa

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28
Q

mastoid process tenderness may indicate

A

otitis media

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29
Q

Tympanic membrane PE wnl

A

intact, pearly gray, translucent, with cone of light at 5:00 and 7:00, umbo and handle of malleus visible; no bulging or retraction

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30
Q

decreased tactile fremitus

A

emphysema, asthma, pleural effusion

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31
Q

increased tactile fremitus with…

A

lobar pneumonia, pulmonary edema

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32
Q

crackles

A

intermittent, nonmusical, brief sound

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33
Q

rhonchi

A

low-pitched, snoring qulaity

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34
Q

wheezes

A

high-pitched, shrill quality

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35
Q

pleural friction rub

A

grating or creaking sounds

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36
Q

transmitted voice sounds/vocal resonance (bronchophoney, egophoney, whispered pectoriloquy) indicate

A

fluid or a solid mass in lungs

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37
Q

physiologic split S2 heard during

A

inspiration

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38
Q

s1 heard best at

A

apex

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39
Q

S2 heard best at

A

base

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40
Q

fixed split S2

A

heard in inspiration and expiration; may be heard with atrial septal defect or right ventricular failure

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41
Q

increased S3

A

early diastole, low-pitched;

may be normal in children, young adults, and in late pregnancy; not nml in older adults

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42
Q

increased S4

A

late diastole, low-pitched;
may be normal in well-trained athletes and older adults;
heard with aortic stenosis and hypertensive dz

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43
Q

murmurs

A

systolic murmur may be physiologic (pregnancy) or pathologic (diseased valves);
diastolic murmur usually indictes valvular dz

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44
Q

murmur of mitral valve stenosis

A

early/late diastole, low-pitched, grade I-IV; heard loudest at apex without radiation; no respiratory phase variation

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45
Q

normal lymph nodes

A

<1cm, non-tender, mobile, soft and discrete

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46
Q

uterine size, nullip and parous

A

nulliparous: 5.5-8 cm long

parous 2-3 cm larger

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47
Q

ovarian size during reproductive years

A

3cm x 2 cm x 1 cm

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48
Q

CBC nl findings adult female

A

4.2-5.4 million/mm3

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49
Q

low CBC values

A

hemorrhage, hemolysys, dietary deficiencies, hemoglobinaopathies, bone marrow failure, chronic illness, medications

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50
Q

high CBC values

A

dehydration, diseases causing chronic hypoxia such as congenital heart dz, polycythemia vera, medications

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51
Q

H/H

A

rapid indirect measure of RBC count

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52
Q

nl H/H non-pregnant female

A

37-47%

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53
Q

nl H/H pregnant female

A

=/> 33% first and third trimesters

=/>32% second trimester

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54
Q

Hgb

A

measurement of total hgb (which carries oxygen) in the blood

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55
Q

nl hgb non-pregnant

A

12-16 g/dL

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56
Q

nl hgb pregnant

A

=/> 11 g/dL first and third trimester

=/> 10.5 g/dL second trimester

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57
Q

Low H/H due to

A

anemia, hemoglobinopathies, cirrhosis, hemorrhage, dietary deficiency, bone marrow failure, renal dz, chronic illness, some cancers

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58
Q

High H/H due to

A

erythrocytosis, polycythemia vera, severe dehydration, severe COPD,
Heavy smokers or those living at higher elevations may also have higher hgb.

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59
Q

Red blood cell indices

A

provide info re size, weight and Hgb [ ] of RBCs, useful in classifying anemias

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60
Q

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

A

average volume or size of a single RBC

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61
Q

nl MCV

A

80-95 mm, normocytic

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62
Q

Microcytic/abnormally small MCV

A

seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia

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63
Q

Macrocytic/abnormally large MCV

A

seen with megaloblastic anemias such as vitabin B12 deficiency and folic acid deficiency

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64
Q

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

A

average amount or weight of Hgb within RBC

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65
Q

nl MCH

A

27-31 pg/cell

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66
Q

causes for abnormal MCH

A

same as MCV

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67
Q

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration MCHC

A

average [ ] or % of Hgb within a single RBC

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68
Q

nl MCHC

A

32-36 g/dL, normochromic

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69
Q

decreased [ ] or hypochromic

A

seen with iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia

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70
Q

WBC with differential

A

provides information useful in evaluating individual with infection, neoplasm, allergy or immunosuppression

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71
Q

nl WBC (adult)

A

5000-10,000/mm3

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72
Q

increased WBC

A

seen with infection, trauma, inflammation, some malignancies, dehydration

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73
Q

decreased WBC

A

seen with some drug toxicities, bone marrow failure, overwhelming infections, immunosuppression

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74
Q

WBC may be elevated but a normal finding in

A

late pregnancy and labor

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75
Q

neutrophils

A

increased with acute bacterial infections and trauma.
Increased immature forms (band or stab cells) referred to as a “shift to the left”,
seen iwth ongoing acute bacterial infection

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76
Q

basophils and eosinophils

A

increased with allergic rxn and parasitic infections.

NOT increased with bacterial or viral infection

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77
Q

lymphocytes and monocytes

A

increased with CHRONIC bacterial and

ACUTE viral infxns

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78
Q

Peripheral blood smear

A

microscopic examination of smear of peripheral blood to examine RBCs, platelets, and leukocytes

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79
Q

platelet count

A

used to evaluate abnl bleeding or blood clotting

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80
Q

Nl platelet (adult)

A

150,000-400,000

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81
Q

low platelets (thrombocytopenia)

A

hypersplenism, hemorrhage, leukemia, cancer chemotherapy, infection

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82
Q

high platelet count (thrombocytosis)

A

some malignant disorders, polycythemia vera, rheumatoid arthritis

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83
Q

Urinalysis

A

dipstick and/or microscopic evaluation of urine.
includes eval of appearnace, color, odor, pH, protein, specific gravity, leukocyte esterase, nitrites, ketones, crystals, casts, glucose, WBCs, RBCs

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84
Q

nl U/A

A 
no nitrities, ketones, crystals, casts or glucose.
clear, amber yellow, aromatic.
pH 4.6-8.0
protein 0-8mg/dL
specific gravity (adult) 1.005-1.030
leukocyte esterase negative
WBCs 0-4 per high power field
RBCs at 2 or less
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85
Q

Blood glucose used for

A

diagnosis and eval of DM

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86
Q

fasting glucose

A

NPO (except water) x 8hr
nl (adult) <100
impaired 100-125
diagnostic for diabetes 126 or higher

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87
Q

Two-hour postprandial glucose during OGTT

A

sample obtained 2 hours after a glucose load of 75g
nl = <140 mg/Dl
impaired glucose tolerance 140-199
dx of DM = 200 or more

88
Q

ADA criteria for dx of DM

A

sx of DM plus random non-fasting glucose of 200 or more.
fasting glucose of 126 or more
2-hr postprandial 200 or more
repeat testing on subsequent day to confirm dx
ADA recommends using fasting glucose rather than OGTT for screening

89
Q

HbA1C

A

NOT for dx of DM
Gold standard for measurement of long-term glycemic control in individuals with DM
reliable tool for evaluating need for drug therapy and monitoring effectiveness of therapy

90
Q

Good diabetic control HbA1c

A

<7%

91
Q

BUN and creatinine

A

used in evaluation of renal fxn

92
Q

BUN

A

indirect measure of renal and liver fxn

93
Q

nl BUN

A

10-20 mb/dL

94
Q

increased BUN

A

hypovolemia, dehydration, reduced cardiac function, GI bleeding, starvation, sepsis, renal dz

95
Q

decreased BUN

A

liver failure, malnutrition, nephrotic syndrome

96
Q

serum creatinine

A

indirect meausre of renal fxn

97
Q

nl serum creatinine

A

0.5-1.1 mg/dL

98
Q

increased levels creatinine

A

renal disorders, dehydration

99
Q

decreased creatinine

A

debilitation and decreased muscle mass

100
Q

Lipid profile

A

determines risk for coronary heart dz and eval of hyperlipoproteinemia.
Includes total cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, LDL.
Fast 12-14 hr prior to test

101
Q

Total cholesterol nl level

A

<200 mg/dL

may be elevated in pregnancy

102
Q

triglycerides nl

A

35-135 mg/dL

may be elevated in pregnancy

103
Q

HDL

A

removes cholesterol fro mperipheral tissues and transports to liver for excretion

104
Q

nl HDL

A

40 mg or greater

105
Q

low HDL assoc with

A

incrased risk for heart and peripheral vascular disease

106
Q

LDL

A

cholesterol carried by LDL can be deposited into peripheral tissues

107
Q

nl LDL

A

<130 mg/dL

108
Q

high LDL assoc with

A

increased risk for heart and peripheral vascular dz

109
Q

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

used to dx hyperthyroidisim, primary hypothyroidism, differentiat primary from secondary hypothyroidism, and to monitor thyroid replacement or suppression therapy

110
Q

nl TSH

A

0.4-4.7 mU/mL

111
Q

increased TSH

A

seen with primary hypothyroidism and thyroiditis

112
Q

decreased TSH

A

seen with secondary hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, suppressive doses of thyroid medication

113
Q

free thyroxine (FT4)

A

used in dx of thyroid dz

114
Q

nl FT4

A

0.58 - 1.64 ng/dL

115
Q

increased FT4

A

hyperthyroidism and acute thyroiditis

116
Q

decreased FT4

A

hypothyroidism

117
Q

nl Total thyroxine (T4)

A

4.5-12.0

118
Q

T4 measurement affected by

A

increases in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)

119
Q

causes for increased TBG

A

pregnancy, OCP use, estrogen therapy

120
Q

universal donor blood type

A

O neg because no antigens on RBCs

121
Q

universal blood type recipient

A

AB positive because no antibodies to react to transfused blood

122
Q

rubella titer indicating immunity

A

1:10 or greater

123
Q

high titers of rubella

A

1:64 or greater, may indicate current infection

124
Q

Rubella IgM antibody titer

A

used if preg woman has suspicious rash; IgM antibodies appear 1-2 days after onset of rash; disappear 5-6 wks after infection

125
Q

how soon are HIV antibodies detectable in 95% of infected individuals?

A

withing 6 months of infection

126
Q

PCR used for

A

to confirm indeterminate Western blot result OR negative results in persons with suspected HIV infxn

127
Q

which test if suspect recent HIV infxn before development of immune response?

A

HIV plasma RNA.

A + test should be confirmed with subsequent intibody testing to document seroconversion

128
Q

Hepatitis B (HBV) test

A

HBsAg (antigen) rises shortly before onset of clinical sx, peaks during first week of sx, and returns to nl by the time jaundice subsides

129
Q

HBsAg

A

indicates active HBV infection: individual is infectious. Person is carrier if antigen persists

130
Q

HBsAb

A

antibody appears 4 weeks after disappearance of surface antigen.
Indicates end of acute infectious phase, and signifies immunity to subsequent infection.
Also used to denote immunity s/p hep b vaccine

131
Q

Tuberculosis: purified protein derivative (PPD) test

A

usually + w/i 6 wks after infection.

does not indicate active/dormancy of infxn

132
Q

CDC def of + PPD

A

high risk pop: 5mm induration or greater
moderate risk pop: 10 mm induration or greater
gen pop: 15 mm induration or greater

133
Q

+PPD

A

once + rxn, usually persists for life

134
Q

false neg PPD

A

incorrect admin (needs to be intradermal) or immunosuppression

135
Q

false pos PPD

A

may result if individual had prior vaccination with bacillus of Calmette and Guerin (BCG) vaccine

136
Q

PPD test CONTRAINDICATED

A

if hx of BCG vax or active TB since severe local rxn can occur

137
Q

daily fat intake

A

20-35% of calories

138
Q

daily saturated fats

A

<10% of calories

139
Q

daily trans fats

A

as low as possible

140
Q

daily cholesterol intake

A

<300 mg/day

141
Q

daily sodium intake

A

<2300 mg/day ~1 tsp

142
Q

one drink equivalents

A

12 oz beer, 5 oz wine, 1.5 oz hard liquor

143
Q

14-18 yr old daily calium intake

A

1300 mg/day

144
Q

19-50 yr old daily calium intake

A

1000 mg/day

145
Q

51 yr old daily calium intake

A

1200 mg/day

146
Q

vit D intake daily

A

adults 400-600 IU/day

147
Q

according to National Osteoporosis Foundation: calcium/vit D intake

A

50 yr: 1200 mg/day, 800-1000 IU

148
Q

sources of calcium

A

milk, yogurt, soybeans, tofu, canned sardines/salmon with edible bones, cheese, fortified cereals and OJ, supplements

149
Q

sources of vit D

A

fortified milk, egg yolks, saltwater fish, liver, supplements, regular exposure to direct sunlight without sunscreen

150
Q

folate requirements for women of childbearing age

A

0.4 mg/day (400 microgm/day)

151
Q

folate requirement if hx of neural tube defect or sz disorders or insulin-dependent DM

A

may benefit from 4 mg (4000 micorgm/day)

152
Q

sources of folic acid

A

dried beans, leafy green vegetables, citrus fruits and juices fortified cereals
Most multivitamins include 0.4 mg folic acid

153
Q

iron requirements for non-pregnant women

A

14-18 yr: 15 mg/dL
19-50 yr: 18 mg/dL
>51 yr: 8 mg/dL

154
Q

sources of iron

A

meat, fish, poultry, fortified cereals, dried fruits, dark green vegetables, supplements

155
Q

concerns with vegetarian diets

A

plan to avoid deficiencies in protein calcium, iron, vit B12, vit D

156
Q

Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans

A

engage in at least 150 min of moderate-intensity or 75 min vigorous intensity aerobic physical activity each week
Performed for at least 10 minutes per episode
Spread throughout the week

157
Q

HR in moderate intensity exercise

A

achieves 50-69% of maximum HR

Max HR = 220 minutes minus age

158
Q

ex aerobic physical ctivity

A

brisk walking, running, bicycling, jumping rope, swimming

159
Q

amt of muscle strengthening activites/wk

A

2 or more days each week
of moderate or high intensity involving all major muscle groups
ex: weight lifting, exercises with elastic bands or use of body weights (push ups, tree climbing) for resistance

160
Q

bone strengthening activity

A

running, brisk walking, weight training, tennis, dancing

161
Q

BSE breast self exam

A

ACS: teach, but not necessary
ACOG: perform monthly

162
Q

CBE clinical breast exam

A

ACS: q 3 yrs from 20-39 yr old
q year age 40+
ACOG: periodic eval, yearly or as appropriate >18 yr
q year age 40+

163
Q

Mammograms

A

ACS: q year age 40+
ACOG: q 1-2 yrs age 40-49, then yearly

164
Q

MRI

A

ACS: 20% (high) LR = mammo+MRI yearly start age 30
ACOG: <15% LR = not recommended
ACOG: combination of yrly mammogram and MRI in women with BRCA gene mutation beg age 25 or younger based on earliest age of onset in family

165
Q

breast cancer risk assessment tools

A

BRCAPRO,
Claus model
Tyrer-Cuzick model

166
Q

Paps

A

ACS: begin approx 3 yr after beg vag intercourse or by 21 yr old
up to 29 yr: yearly if smear, q 2 yr if liquid-based
30 yr+: if 3 consecutive nl Pap, may do q 3 yr unless hx of in utero DES exposure, HIV infectio or immunosuppression
ACOG: begin at age 21
21-29 yo: q 2 yr
30+ yo: neg Pap, neg HPV = no more than q 3 yr

167
Q

Chlamydia screening

A

CDC: yearly for all sexually active females 25 yo or younger

168
Q

Blood Pressure

A

at least every 2 years for adults

169
Q

Cholesterol screening

A

NCEP:
Fasting lipid profile: q 5 yrs beginning age 20
(total cholesterol, LDL, HDL, triglycerides)

170
Q

Total cholesterol levels

A

240 mg/dL = high

171
Q

LDL levels

A

<130 = desirable
130-159 mg/dL = borderline high
160-189 mg/dL = high
190 mg/dL = very high

172
Q

HDL levels

A

60 mg/dL = High = protective against CHD (desirable)

173
Q

Triglyceride levels

A

200 mg/dL = High

174
Q

CHD risk factors for women

A

> 55 yr old
family hx of premature CHD (male relative <40 mg/dL
DM

175
Q

Fecal occult blood test recommendations

A

ACS & ACOG: yearly beginning at age 50

176
Q

Sigmoidoscopy recommendations

A 
ACS & ACOG: q 5 yrs beginning age 50
-OR-
colonoscopy q 10 yrs
-OR-
double contrast barium enema q 5 yrs
More frequent testing and starting at younger age if risk factors  including IBS and personal or fam hx of colonic polyps or colon cancer
177
Q

Plasma glucose recommendations

A 
American Diabetic Association
Fasting plasma glucose q 3 yr starting 45 yo
More frequent if risk factors including:
BP >140/90
DM in first-degree relative
African American
Asian
Hispanic
Native American
obesity at >120% or greater of desirable weight
OR BMI =/>27
hx of gestational DM or baby weighing >9 lb at birth
HDL 250 mg/dL
178
Q

Thyroid function screening

A

USPTF: routine screening for thyroid function is NOT warranted in asymptomatic individuals
ACOG: TSH periodically for women with an autoimmune condition or strong family hx of thyroid dz

179
Q

Tuberculosis screening

A

CDC, ACOG: perform on all individuals at high risk

180
Q

vision screening

A

by ophthalmologist
q 3-5 yrs for AA 20-39 yo
q 2-4 yr 40-64 AND q 1-2 yr >65 regardless of race
Yearly for DM regardless of age

181
Q

dental screening

A

routine detnal care and preventive services including oral cancer screening at least once every year

182
Q

Bone Mineral Density screening

A

screen all women >65 for osteoporosis/osteopenia with BMD test
Screen POSTmenoparusal women <65 yo WITH risk factors

183
Q

high risk groups for whom HBV is recommended

A

individuals with multiple sex partners, are household contacts or sex partners of those with HBV infection; injection drug users; healthcare workers or otherwise at occupational risk; inmates of long-term correctional institutions
3-doses: now, 1 mo, 6 mo

184
Q

At what age is influenza vac recommended?

A

Yearly after age 50.

185
Q

What groups of younger individuals is yearly flu vax recommended?

A

Those with pulmonary, CV, or other chronic medical disorders and those who may transmit flu to them. Also to any woman who will be in 2nd/3rd trimester during flu season.

186
Q

Who can use LAIV?

A

Healthy nonpregnant individuals under 50 years old.

187
Q

Pneumococcus vax recommendations.

A

All immunocompetent individuals x1

<64 if living conditions are high risk for pneumonia.

188
Q

Rubella vax recommendation

A

All nonpregnant women of childbearing age who lack documented evidence of immunity or evidence of vax after 12 months old

189
Q

C/I to rubella vax

A

Pregnancy (and don’t get preg for four weeks)
Immunocompromised unless HIV
Hypersensitivity to neomycin

190
Q

When in preg may Td be given?

A

2nd/3rd trimesters

191
Q

Varicella vax given how?

A

two doses 4-8 wks apart

192
Q

C/I to varicella vax

A

pregnancy (and don’t become pregnant for 4 wks after vax)
hx of anaphylactic rxn to neomycin
immunocompromised indivuduals

193
Q

zoster vax recommendation

A

all individuals 60 yr or older regardless of prev hx of herpes zoster (shingles) or chickenpox

194
Q

Hep A vax recommendation

A

if living or traveling in country with high Hep A levels, IV drug users, occupational exposure risks, food handlers, individuals with chornic liver dz or clotting factor disorders
2 doses 6 mo apart

195
Q

HPV vax

A

age 11 or 12
now, in 2 months, and 6 mo after first
can be given anytime 13-26

196
Q

meningococcal vax

A

one dose: all kids 11-18yrs
college freshmen in dorms
those with anatomic or fxnal splenia
if traveling to regions where meningococcal dz is hyperendemic or epidemic

197
Q

Major side effects to nicotine replacements

A

Patch: local skin reaction
Gum/lozenge/inhaler: mouth and throat irritation
Spray: nasal irritation
all: HA, dizziness, nausea

198
Q

C/I to nicotine replacement

A 
serious cardiac arrhythmias
severe angina
recent myocardial infarction
concurrent smoking
Pregnancy category D
199
Q

Buproprion major side effects:

A

insomnia
dry mouth
nausea
skin rash

200
Q

C/I for bupropion

A 
seizure disorder
eating disorder
use of MAOI
concomitant use of other forms of bupropion
Pregnancy cat B
not recommended during bf
201
Q

Varenicline tablets

A

reduces nicotine withdrawal sx; blocks effect of nicotine if individual resumes smoking; nicotinic acetylcholine receptor partial agonist

202
Q

Major s/e of varenicline

A 
n/v
changes in dreaming
constipation
gas
neuropsychiatric sx
203
Q

C/I to varenicline tablets

A

precautions with psychiatric disorders and renal impairment
Pregnancy cat C
not recommended during bf

204
Q

Client education for varenicline

A

initiate med 1 week before smoking cessation
concomitant use of nicotine replacement may increase s/e
discontinue med and report any agitation, depression, and suicidal ideation

205
Q

female sexual dysfunction

A

Must cause personal distress to be considered a sexual dysfunction
May be persistent or recurrent, lifeong or acquired, generalized or situational
Etiology may include relationship factors, medical conditions, medication side effects, psychological factors, sexual abuse hx

206
Q

vaginismus

A

involuntary contraction of musculature of the outer third of the vagina that interferes with vaginal penetration

207
Q

Differential dx, other medical conditions that may account for s/s of aging

A 
Hypothyroidism
Glaucoma, cataracts
Chronic cardiac and pulmonary disorders
Depression
Alzheimer's disease
208
Q

anthropometry

A

measurement of the human individual

209
Q

arcus senilis

A

opaque ring at margins of cornea with decreased tear production

210
Q

in ageing, what changes are there to the thorax?

A

rib cage less mobile

increased A-P diameter

211
Q

in aging individuals, what abdominal changes are there?

A

decreased muscle tone

may have less pain with abdominal pathology

212
Q

in aging individuals, what neurologic changes happen?

A

slower reaction time

may have decreased response to pain stimuli

213
Q

What happens to lab values in the aging person?

A

There is no significant change in the absence of disease process

214
Q

What happens to glucose levels as a person ages?

A

decreased glucose tolerance common in older people - fasting glucose levels increase after age 50

215
Q

what is the cutoff for mammography screening?

A

ACS and ACOG currently do not have cut off age

216
Q

Labs for women after age 65

A 
Yearly:  dipstick u/a
mammography
fecal occult blood test
Q 1-3 yrs: Paps
Q 3-5 yrs: cholesterol
TSH
Q 5 yrs: sigmoidoscopy -OR-
Q10 yrs: colonoscopy

CNM (15 decks)

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