CNAF Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of a WARNING

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of a CAUTION

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of a NOTE

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc., that must be emphasized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SHALL
SHOULD
MAY
WILL

A

Shall = mandatory
Should = Recommended
May = optional
Will = futurity (no degree of requirement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Land Immediately
Land as Soon as Possible
Land as Soon as Practicable

A

Land Immediately = execute a landing without delay

Land as Soon as Possible = land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made

Land as Soon as Practicable = extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the pilot in command responsible for?

A

The pilot in command is responsible for the safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can PIC be transferred in flight?

A

No. Additionally, the authority and responsibility of a pilot in command is independent of rank or seniority in relation to other persons participating in the mission or flight (except for two exceptions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the exceptions where someone other than the PIC can direct the flight?

A

-A Wing, Group, or Squadron Commander if embarked, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.

-A Flag or General Officer embarked who is eligible for command at sea or in the field can exercise authority over the flight, but thereby assumes full responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can General or Flag Officers physically pilot the aircraft?

A

Only if they are NATOPS qualified in that TMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does the PIC need to be at the flight controls?

A

During critical phases of flight (i.e. takeoff, landing, formation flight, FCF, degraded aircraft performance, etc).

An IUT in a multi-piloted aircraft can occupy the flight controls during critical phases of flight so long as the PIC is in the flight station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 7 critical CRM skills?

A
  1. Decision Making
  2. Assertiveness
  3. Mission Analysis
  4. Communication
  5. Leadership
  6. Adaptability/Flexibility
  7. Situational Awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 5 steps of ORM

A
  1. Identify Hazards
  2. Assess Hazards
  3. Make risk decisions
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 levels of ORM

A
  1. Time-critical
  2. Deliberate
  3. In-depth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 principles of ORM

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
  4. Make risk decisions at the right level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the IFR Filing Criteria for a destination with:

0-0 up to but not including published mins

Published mins up to but not including 3000-3

3000-3 or better

(These are based on ETA +-1 Hour)

A

3000-3 or better

Published mins plus 300-1 (Non-precision) or 200-1/2 (Precision)

No alternate required

(These are based on ETA +-1 Hour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If an alternate is required, when do you need a published approach that doesn’t require two way comms?

A
  1. If the destination does not have approaches that can be done without two way comms
  2. If the forecasted weather at the alternate is also below 3000-3 for ETA +-1 hour
17
Q

What is the fuel requirement if no alternate is required?

A

Fuel from takeoff to destination plus 10%

18
Q

What is the fuel requirement if an alternate is required?

A

Fuel from takeoff to approach fix at destination, then to alternate airfield, plus 10 percent

19
Q

For turbine-powered fixed-wing aircraft, what can the planned fuel reserve after landing at destination or alternate not be less than?

A

20 minutes of flight at max-E at 10,000’

20
Q

What is the designator for the weight and balance form?

A

DD 365-4 (Weight and Balance Clearance Form F - Transport/Tactical)

21
Q

How long must Form F’s be kept on file?

A

3 months

22
Q

Does cancellation of an IFR flight plan constitute the closing out of a flight plan?

A

No. When a landing report has been properly delivered, the flight plan will be considered closed out.

23
Q

When are standard position lights required to be on?

A

30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise, or any time when the prevailing visibility as seen from the cockpit is less than 3 statute miles

(In which case it is required before starting engines, or when any engine is running, while being towed unless it is otherwise illuminated, or when its parking location presents a hazard)

24
Q

When are anti-collision lights required?

A

Immediately before engine start and at all times when the aircraft engines are in operation

25
Q

What are the standard instrument rating takeoff minimums

A

300-1 (Non-Precision)
200-1/2 (Precision)

26
Q

Can you conduct an approach in a multi-piloted aircraft when weather is at or below published landing minimums?

A

Only is the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.