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TPC Upgrade > CH.2 > Flashcards

CH.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the engine designator

A

AE 2100D3 turboprop

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2
Q

What are the three major assemblies of the engine

A

-Power section (two-rotor system with a free power turbine)
-Propeller gearbox (plus propeller)
-Torquemeter (shaft and interconnecting struts)

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3
Q

What is the GMAD and where is it mounted?

A

Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive.
Rear of Propeller Gear Box (PGB)

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4
Q

What does the GMAD provide drive pads for?

A

-Hyd pump
-Oil cooled ac generator
-PGB oil supply and scavenge pump
-Prop high pressure oil pump and overspeed governor
-Prop pitch control unit (PCU)

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5
Q

What is the PUAD and where is it mounted?

A

Power Unit Accessory Drive.
Bottom of the forward end of the compressor air inlet housing.

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6
Q

What does the PUAD supply mounting flanges for?

A

-FPMU
-Alternator stator
-Starter
-Power unit lube and scavenge pump

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7
Q

What is the FADEC?

A

Full Authority Digital Electronic Control

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8
Q

During engine operation, how many FADECs are functioning / in control of the engine and propeller?

A

Both are functioning, but only one is in control

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9
Q

When does the controlling FADEC switch?

A

-Each time engine start is initiated with weight on wheels
-FADEC fault
-ALT selection on FADEC control panel

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10
Q

When engine speed reaches approximately ___ percent, the engine PMA supplies electrical power for the FADEC operation

A

40%

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11
Q

What are the 16 major propulsion system functions performed by the FADEC or MC?

A
  1. Prop speed control
  2. Forward Thrust
  3. Ground Range
  4. Reverse Thrust
  5. GND IDLE Blade Angle vs. Calibrated airspeed
  6. FADEC autofeather requests
  7. MC autofeather permission
  8. FADEC auto ignition and automatic engine shutdown
  9. MC automatic engine shutdown
  10. Prop syncrophasing
  11. Prop underspeed protection
  12. Reversionary NG control
  13. Auto start control
  14. Manual Feathering
  15. Overspeed protection
  16. Auto thrust control
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12
Q

NP is governed by up to 2 things

A

Propeller Blade Angle
and/or
Engine Fuel Flow

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13
Q

When the power levers are forward of FLT IDLE, the FADEC schedule torque as a function of ________

A

Power lever angle. NP is kept at 100% through blade angle changes

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14
Q

When the power levers are between FLT IDLE and reverse, the FADEC schedules blade angle as a function of ________

A

Power lever angle. NP is kept at 99% through fuel flow changes

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15
Q

When the power levers are in the reverse range, the FADEC schedules torque as a function of _______

A

Power lever angle. NP is kept at 101% through blade angle changes

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16
Q

What does blade angle scheduling support?

A

Engine out stops

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17
Q

The FADEC will request MC permission to autofeather if the power lever is at FLT IDLE or above and any of the following exists

A

-High power and NP below 73%
-Low NG at low power settings (less than 69%)
- Low HP at high power settings (less than 74% of commanded HP) and decelerating NG (greater than 500 rpm per second)

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18
Q

Which propellers always have MC permission to autofeather without delay?

A

Outboards. This supports low minimum control speeds.

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19
Q

For inboard props, autofeather permission is granted after a ____ second delay provided the aircraft is below _______ feet and the other engines are running normally

A

2 second delay
15,500 feet
If these conditions are not met, the FADEC will windmill the prop at 100%. This ensures the inboard propeller autofeathers if an engine fails on takeoff. If all engines flamout at least one inboard propeller will be at 100% RPM supplying electric and hydraulic power

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20
Q

FADEC will try to relight a flamed-out engine, but if a re-light does not occur before NG decreases below ___ percent, the FADEC automatically shuts off fuel to shut down the engine

A

56%

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21
Q

If all power levers have been equal for approximately ___ seconds, the mission computer looks for one engine HP more than approximately ____ HP above the other three engines

A

5 seconds
1100 HP

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22
Q

If there is an uncommanded thrust increase on one engine, and its blade angle is above one degree, NG is not significantly decelerating, and NP is greater than ____ percent, the MC commands the FADEC to shut down the engine and feather the prop

A

60%

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23
Q

MC automatic engine shutdown is disarmed/disabled when the ____ switch is selected OFF

A

ATCS

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24
Q

The FADEC ___ for engines ___ and ___ are the only FADECs used as the master for propeller syncrophasing

A

A
engines 2 and 3

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25
Q

Propeller underspeed protection is disabled when the propeller is in the ____ range

A

beta

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26
Q

Reversionary NG control allows continued safe flight with both engine _____ sensors failed

A

torque sensors
Bases fuel scheduling on NG instead of the normal torque setting.

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27
Q

During reversionary NG control, max available propeller HP is reduced by approximately ___ percent to ensure that engine power limits are never exceeded.

A

40%
Reverse power is not available

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28
Q

The FADEC will automatically shut down the engine start sequence for:

A

-No light off
-Flameout
-RPM stagnation

Air starts run the same as ground starts, but the FADEC will not shut down the engine for a stagnated start.

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29
Q

Manual feathering only functions if the START switch is in ____ or if the power levers are at GND IDLE and low-speed ground idle is selected

A

STOP

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30
Q

The _____ _____ pump is turned on when the PROPELLER CONTROL switch is positioned to FEATHER.

A

auxiliary feather pump, which automatically shuts off after 20 seconds

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31
Q

If NP exceeds _____ percent, how does overspeed protection work?

A

104.5%
Propeller overspeed governor diverts pump oil away from the PCU to allow the blade angle counterweights to increase blade angle

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32
Q

If NP exceeds 106% percent, how does overspeed protection work?

A

The FADEC reduces fuel flow

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33
Q

If NG exceeds ____ percent, or NP exceeds ____ percent how does overspeed protection work?

A

109%
119%
The FADEC automatically shuts down the engine

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34
Q

What is ATCS, and what is it for?

A

Automatic Thrust Control System
Limits asymmetric thrust between the two outboard engines (blue wedge) at slow speed in order to reduce minimum control speeds.

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35
Q

The ATCS schedules thrust restoration at an ideal rate, requiring approximately constant rudder force to maintain heading as airspeed changes. The ATCS schedule from ____ to ____ percent of takeoff power over a ____ knot range

A

50 to 100% of takeoff power over a 40 knot range

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36
Q

_____ is always greater than Vmpr

A

Vmca2

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37
Q

What is the NIU?

A

Nacelle Interface Unit

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38
Q

What does the NIU provide indications of?

A

Oil temperature, pressure, and quantity, oil cooler flap position and fuel flow.
Also provides engine health and usage monitoring through the EMS

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39
Q

There is a _____ gallon dedicated oil reservoir for the auxiliary feather pump

A

0.66 gallon

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40
Q

What can happen with engine oil following an engine shutdown in flight?

A

Oil can pool in sections of the engine if the FIRE handle is not pulled

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41
Q

Can an engine restart with pooled oil cause an engine fire?

A

Yes

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42
Q

Why is it bad to cycle the auxiliary feather pump repeatedly below LSGI?

A

Because oil will pool in the gearbox. The auxiliary feather pump does not have a scavenge element, and the gearbox oil is only scavenged when the propeller is turning

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43
Q

The oil cooler augmentation system supplements normal oil cooling during extended ground operation by using ____ stage bleed air when power levers are below ______ _____

A

14th stage bleed air when power levers are below FLT IDLE

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44
Q

When does the oil cooler augmentation system operate?

A

When the following conditions are met:
1. Oil cooler flap position greater than 80%
2. Oil temp above ~ 80C
3. Airspeed less than 50 KTS
4. Power levers less than FLT IDLE
5. Weight on wheels

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45
Q

If the oil cooler augmentation fails on (ACAWS Master Caution), bleed air damage to the oil cooler flap occurs unles the crew opens the oil cooler flap to ____ ____

A

full open

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46
Q

The starter regulating and shutoff valve regulates airflow to the starter in response to a signal from the controlling ______

A

FADEC

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47
Q

How are the power levers interfaced with the engine?

A

The FADEC gets a signal from duel electrical resolvers in the power lever quadrant. Although some discrete signals are supplied to the FADECs from aircraft systems through the 1553B data bus, the FADECs are capable of controlling the engine independent of aircraft data other than power lever angle

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48
Q

What happens to the power levers if both the dual resolvers fail?

A

The FADEC defaults to the last selected setting until the engine is shut down

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49
Q

What happens when the engine start switch is held to MOTOR?

A

The nacelle shutoff valve and starter regulating and shutoff valve are opened, but there is no fuel or ignition introduced

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50
Q

What will happen to outboard propellers if STOP is selected on the engine start switch?

A

Fuel is shutoff, the main tank boost pump is turned off, and the nacelle shutoff valve is closed (if AUTO is selected). The propeller is commanded to the minimum drag angle.

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51
Q

What will happen to inboard propellers if STOP is selected on the engine start switch?

A

The same as outboards, except the propeller will windmill to ensure electrical and hydraulic power is available

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52
Q

Does the RUN position turn on the main tank boost pump?

A

Yes. It also opens the nacelle shutoff valve (AUTO must be selected.

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53
Q

When do you get a green B in the center of the HP dial?

A

When the propeller blade angle is between 23 and 10.5 degrees and the FADEC has not detected any failures preventing ground range operation, and speed is below 145 KTAS

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54
Q

When does the white BETA label appear below the HP dial?

A

When the propeller is in the beta range (blade angle is less than 10.5 degrees)

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55
Q

Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start is ___ psi. A momentary drop below ___ psi when the start valve opens is acceptable

A

22 psi
22 psi

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56
Q

Do not select the START position on the ENGINE START switch if MGT is above ____ C

A

175 C

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57
Q

Procedures for engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. What are they?

A

FIRE handle pull followed by engine start switch to stop vs just engine start switch to stop

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58
Q

What engine shutdowns on the ground require pulling the FIRE handle first?

A

All ACAWS WARNINGS

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59
Q

What engine shutdowns on the ground require just placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP?

A

Cautions and Advisories

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60
Q

True or False: The ENGINE START switch can be moved from STOP to MOTOR after an aborted start before NG reaches zero.

A

True. The FIRE handle must be in to allow the MOTOR operation

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61
Q

The time from starter switch select to NP on speed is approximately ____ seconds

A

30 seconds

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62
Q

Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated within ___ seconds after NP is on speed

A

30 seconds

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63
Q

How long after motoring an engine do you wait to restart?

A

Wait 30 seconds after NG indicates 0 percent before attempting a restart. This procedure must be followed to allow the NG independent overspeed circuit to be checked.

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64
Q

Entry and exit to the aircraft using the left and right paratroop doors are prohibited while the engines are operated in the _____ mode and flaps are _____

A

HOTEL mode with flaps extended.

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65
Q

Is the auxiliary feather pump controlled by the FADEC’s

A

No. The auxiliary feather pump is powered and controlled independently of the FADECs

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66
Q

How does the FADEC determine what phase the propeller is in?

A

The Magnetic Pulse Unit (MPU) is mounted on the propeller brush block, and detects the passing of each blade. It is dual channeled, and is connected to separate FADEC’s. The MPU also provides backup NP sensing if the primary and secondary sensors fail.

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67
Q

Fuel for the APU is supplied from which tank?

A

The No. 2 fuel tank surge box

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68
Q

What is an FLCV and how does it operate?

A

Fuel Level Control Valve. Requires electrical power to both solenoids to open, and are electronically controlled by the fuel management controller (FMC). They are spring loaded closed if they lose electrical power, or closed by floats if tank capacity is reached.

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69
Q

Explain what happens when the primary then secondary FMC fail, vs if the secondary and then primary fails

A

Primary then secondary FMC failure = dashes on all fuel tank quantity indicators.
Secondary then primary FMC failure = dashes on flight station overhead FUEL MANAGEMENT panel. ACS FUEL MANAGEMENT panel displays last valid values.

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70
Q

State the pressures of the different fuel pumps

A

Boost Pump = 15-24 psi
Transfer Pump = 28-40 psi

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71
Q

How much fuel is left in each tank if left to dump to minimums capable?

A

The main tanks will dump to approximately 1,520 pounds each, and the external and auxiliary tanks will have no usable fuel left

72
Q

What is quicker: dumping fuel with 10 transfer pumps through the crosship manifold, or dumping with both fuse tank AR pumps?

A

AR Pumps. With 2 AR pumps in the fuse tank being used to dump fuel, the rate is approximately 5,440 pounds per minute, compared to 3,900 with 10 transfer pumps. Fuel cannot simultaneously be dumped by both, but can be transferred into the fuselage tank while being dumped from the fuselage tank.

73
Q

What happens to fuel valves during a power failure?

A

The fuel valves hold the last energized position.

74
Q

What is different about an APU emergency start?

A

Start indications, automatic shutdown and aural alarm are not available in the event of a fire. Fire extinguishing capability is available.

75
Q

When will the aural alarm sound in the cargo compartment for an APU fire?

A

If ac power is provided by a source other than the APU

76
Q

How does the APU receive the signal to shutdown?

A

When placing the APU control switch to STOP, the 110 percent speed switch sends a signal to shutdown the APU. If the 110 percent speed switch is defective, the APU will shut down 5 seconds after the APU control switch is placed to STOP

77
Q

What is the flight range for APU usage?

A

-1000 to 20,000’ (electrical only)

78
Q

What fuel level in the No. 2 tank should prompt an action when running the APU on the ground with engines off?

A

Below 2,000 pound of fuel in the number 2 tank, the engine start switch should be placed to run in order to run the boost pump. Otherwise, there may be an interruption of fuel flow or fuel starvation to the APU.

79
Q

What are the six ac buses?

A

-Left-hand ac bus
-Right-hand ac bus
-Essential ac bus
-Main ac bus
-Essential avionics bus
-Main avionics bus

80
Q

How are the generators powered, and what type of power do they supply?

A

Powered by the GMAD to supply 115V, 400 Hz, 3-phase power. The generators have a mechanical disconnect that are actuated by overheat and over torque conditions.

81
Q

Which two buses can be powered by any of the engine-driven generators?

A

The essential ac and main ac bus. They can also be powered by the APU.

82
Q

How do generators pick up loads?

A

If one generator fails, the generator on the same wing picks up the load. If both generators fail on the same wing, the symmetrical engine on the other wing picks it up.

83
Q

Why can’t cargo be stacked too close to the FS245?

A

It will prevent crews from accessing the mechanical circuit breakers.

84
Q

Which buses are powered when the APU is the only power source?

A

The essential ac bus and main ac bus

85
Q

What is a GCU and what does it do?

A

Generator Control Unit. Monitors generator frequency and voltage and regulates power output to the bus. A GCU can fail without generating an ACAWS. Suspect this when 115 Vac is indicated on all phases with 0% LOAD when the generator should be providing power.

86
Q

What is a TR and how many are there?

A

Transformer Rectifier. Converts AC to 28 VDC. There are 4 TR’s , 5 with LAIRCM.

87
Q

How many DC buses are there, and what are they?

A

6 buses (seven with LAIRCM).
-Main dc bus
-Essential dc bus
-Isolated dc bus
-Avionics dc bus
-Utility battery bus
-Avionics battery bus
-(LAIRCM) SME dc bus

88
Q

How many batteries does the plane have?

A

Two 24 V, 35 Ah batteries.
-Utility Battery
-Avionics Battery

89
Q

Which light does not have a covert mode?

A

Leading edge light. The bottom anticollision is also disabled when selecting COVERT.

90
Q

What does the utility hydraulic system power?

A

-Wing Flaps
-Main landing gear
-Nose landing gear
-Normal brakes
-Nosewheel steering
-Aerial refueling system
-Half the flight control boost

91
Q

What does the booster hydraulic system power?

A

Half of the flight control boost

92
Q

What does the auxiliary hydraulic system power?

A

-Cargo ramp and door
-Emergency brakes
-Emergency nose landing gear extension

93
Q

What engines power the utility and booster hydraulic system?

A

No. 1 and No. 2 engine power utility, No. 3 and No. 4 power booster.

94
Q

How can you power the aerial refueling system hydraulics if the utility hydraulics are out?

A

Through the air refueling utility-auxiliary interconnect valve located aft of the left wheel well.

95
Q

How are the trim tabs powered?

A

Electronically through single-phase ac motors (emergency elevator trim is a dc motor)

96
Q

What are the different rudder boost pressures, and why is it designed like that?

A

Between flaps UP and prior to flaps 15, 1300 psi. From flaps 15 and greater, 3000 psi.

This doubles the available actuating pressure and gives desirable characteristics of sensitivity feel and produces desirable surface travel with asymmetric power at low airspeeds.

97
Q

What pressure does the aileron booster assembly operate at?

A

2050 psi

98
Q

What does the Aileron Diverter Valve do?

A

Provides improved handling qualities at speeds below 270 knots when the autopilot is not engaged.

High boost is ~3000 psi
Low boost is ~2050 psi

99
Q

How is lateral trim produced?

A

Through a trim tab on the left aileron.
There is a ground adjustable tab on the right aileron to compensate for inherent imbalance of the longitudinal axis

100
Q

What is unique about the elevator trim tab?

A

In the NORM position, you can only use the control wheel elevator trim tab.

In emergency, you cannot engage the autopilot, and you can only trim the elevator from the same tab as the aileron trim in the center console.

101
Q

How long does it take to lower the flaps / raise the flaps

A

Lowering the flaps is 8-15 seconds.

Raising the flaps is 10-15 seconds.

102
Q

What happens to trim when flaps are 75% or greater, and are then raised?

A

The elevator trim tab is actuated to give nose-down trim (max of ~ 7 degrees) until flap movement stops or flaps reach 50-55 percent (whichever happens first)

103
Q

How do the EMERGENCY flap brakes work?

A

There is an electrical disconnect switch which removes electrical power from the flap selector valve in case of control cable failure.
There is also a “spring-loaded flap brake” which is different than the emergency flap brakes. The spring-loaded flap brakes simply hold the flaps in place against the airstream at whatever they are set at.

104
Q

Can you manually move flaps?

A

Yes. You have to disengage the spring-loaded flap brake, and manually crank them. If emergency flap brakes are activated by the system, you cannot reset them without ground maintenance.

105
Q

How does the landing gear warning audio work?

A

With refueling pods attached, if flaps are ~80 percent or greater and the landing gear is not down, you get a warning audio that cannot be silenced until the gear is down or flaps are raised to less than 80%.

106
Q

What happens to pylon chaff dispensers with flap extension?

A

Flaps extended greater than 15% disables pylon chaff dispensers

107
Q

When do you get the “FLAPS” or “TRIM” audio warning?

A

Flaps not 50 +-8 percent (FLAPS!)

Trim not 0 +- 5 (TRIM)

AND
Parking brake released, power levers above 40 degrees, and weight on wheels

108
Q

Can you really not reset the emergency flap brakes in flight?

A

You physically can depress the manual reset, but it can result in an asymmetrical condition of the flaps. There is no NATOPS procedure for resetting it in flight, and there is a WARNING that it is for ground use only.

109
Q

The stall warning speed is approximately ____ times the instantaneous stick pusher speed

A

1.08 times

110
Q

NOTE: The autopilot disengages automatically at the stall warning speed but the autothrottles attempt to maintain airspeed at no less than ____ times the stall warning speed. The airspeed display on the reference set panel will not decrease below ____ times the stall warning speed

A

1.1 times
1.1 times

111
Q

How is sideslip angle calculated?

A

By the MC from the static pressure differential between the left and right pitot-static probes

112
Q

How long is required between stick pusher activations to allow cool down and prevent damage?

A

5 minute cool down period

113
Q

The autopilot automatically disengages at what low speed?

A

The stall warning speed (1.08 Vs)

114
Q
A
115
Q

In flight, the reference IAS cannt be set below ____ Vs. With WOW, the reference airspeed is fixed to _____

A

1.2 Vs
Vobs

116
Q

The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to ____ degrees (75 degrees during back course localizer), but ___ is the recommended max

A

90 degrees max
45 degrees recommended max

117
Q

Can you use autopilot during three engine operations?

A

Yes, but do not use autothrottles. A three engine autopilot coupled approach can be flown if manual, symmetric power changes are made

118
Q

What are the pneumatic systems served by the bleed air system?

A
  1. Engine starting
  2. Air conditioning
  3. Cabin pressurization
  4. Leading edge ice protection system
  5. ABSLATS
119
Q

The BA/ECS normally uses bleed air from the ___ stage, but if the average engine power settings are below 1000 hp, the ___ stage bleed air augmenter valve opens and regulates high pressure bleed air to a predetermined pressure schedule as a function of altitude.

A

10th stage
14th stage

120
Q

When wing/empennage anti-ice is on and bleed air temperature is less than ____ C, the 14th stage bleed air augmenter valve opens to increase temperature but not pressure

A

274 C

121
Q

What do you lose when the L XSHIP is ISOLATED

A

Pneumatic de-ice boot, tail anti-ice, flight station ac

122
Q

What do you lose when the R XSHIP is ISOLATED

A

Cargo AC and Underfloor Heat

123
Q

Will you get an ACAWS after manually closing a valve that did not close but was supposed to during a blead air leak isolation?

A

No. Normally, you will get an ACAWS advisory for which valves were closed during a BLD AIR LEAK ISOL ACAWS. If a valve did not close, and you then manually close it, it will not generate a VALVE CLOSE ACAWS

124
Q

What does it mean when the nacelle shutoff valve is the only valve commanded to close and there is no ACAWS?

A

The valve failed to close. The failed nacelle shutoff valve did not generate a NAC 1 SOV NOT CLOSED ACAWS like it was supposed to. In this case, the lack of the NAC 1 ISOLATED ACAWS indicates the failed valve

125
Q

What happens to the divider valve if the F/ODS fails?

A

It is commanded closed. This can be overridden by selecting OPEN on the Emergency Override Divider Valve Switch

126
Q

When can you not override nacelle shutoff valve positions?

A

When they closed because of duct overpressure or duct overheat

127
Q

What does the bleed air pressure digital display indicate?

A

The pressure of the left wing manifold in PSI

128
Q

What is the normal time it takes to extend or retract the gear?

A

19 seconds or less

129
Q

What power setting and altitude will cause the landing gear aural warning horn to go off?

A

Power levers within 5 degrees of FLT IDLE, and below 1500 feet AGL

130
Q

When will you get the red light in the gear handle?

A

Any landing gear not in selected position.
Within 5 degrees of FLT IDLE.
Flaps greater than 70 and gear not down.

Conversely, the green light indicates that gear is down and locked, regardless of the position of the gear handle.

131
Q

What type of brakes do the main landing gears use?

A

Hydraulically operated, multiple disk-type

132
Q

How are the brakes powered?

A

Normally from the utility system, with the aux as the alternate. If electrical power is off (main dc bus), the system with the highest pressure will supply pressure to operate the brakes. (Anti-skid will not be available)

133
Q

What is different about emergency brakes?

A

They bypass the anti-skid valves

134
Q

What do the hydraulic fuses in the brakes do?

A

If a failure is experienced between the fuse and the brake, the fuse will allow approximately 10 cubic inches of fluid to bleed out then close, thereby retaining the remaining hyd fluid for operation of the other three brakes.

135
Q

How many brake applications do the brake system accumulators provide

A

For the normal brakes, approximately 2 with anti-skid off (1 with it on).

For the emergency brakes, approximately 1.

136
Q

Which ECBU supplies power to the anti-skid system?

A

ECBU No. 10

137
Q

What is the maximum permissible speed (Vd) a function of?

A

Altitude and weight (fuel + cargo)

138
Q

What is Vs a function of?

A

Weight, aircraft configuration, and engine power

139
Q

What does one dot on the CDI represent for:
-INAV
-VOR/TACAN
-ILS

A

-INAV = 1.5 nm per dot (ranges greater than 50nm) or 600 yards per dot (ranges less than 50 nm)
-VOR/TACAN = 5 degrees per dot
-ILS = 1.25 degrees per dot

140
Q

With the PFD selected, what is the HSI below it, and how does it display TCAS information?

A

HSI = Horizontal Situation Indicator
Up to 5 TCAS TA and RA targets can be presented within the HSI. The outer circle represents 6 nm. A dashed circle represents 2 nm and is shown when a TA or RA advisory is present.

141
Q

When does HUD decluttering occur?

A

-Pitch >30 or <-20
-Bank angle >65
-CDM and waterline delta >15 degrees

142
Q

How long can the standby attitude indicator last on the utility battery?

A

Approximately 30 minutes under ideal conditions with a good battery. With a total loss of power, you will get approximately 9 minutes of attitude information due to the design of the gyro.

143
Q

What F/ODS protection is available to the engines, APU, and reaminder of the aircraft?

A

Fire and overheat protection is provided for each engine. Fire protection only is provided for the APU. Overheat protection only is provided for areas of the aircraft adjacent to bleed air ducts.

144
Q

What valves can the F/ODS control?

A

Isolation and divider valves through the MC. (Switches MC automatically in the event of failure. Uses BIU in the event both MC’s fail)

Nacelle shutoff valves through the BA/ECS.

145
Q

What happens when the fire detection goes off in an engine or APU?

A

When the temp in a monitored zone exceeds a predefined set point, a signal is sent to F/ODS controller.

F/ODS controller tells MC to:
-Give ACAWS/audible warning
-Illuminate affected FIRE handle and MASTER WARNING lights

F/ODS sends a signal through the MC and BA/ECS to close the nacelle shutoff valve and augmenter valve.

This can all be tested on the AMU.

146
Q

What general zones does the overheat portion of the F/ODS monitor/provide alerts for?

A

-Bleed air leak in nacelle, wing, cross-ship, and underfloor heat

147
Q

What happens in the event of a bleed air leak?

A

F/ODS commands valves to close to isolate the duct.

If the valves close, you get “(duct) BLD AIR LEAK ISOL” caution”

Replaced by “(duct) ISOL” advisory when overheat condition cools to below the trigger point.

If valves do not close, you get “(duct) BLD AIR LEAK NOT ISOL” warning (you will get ACAWS advisory for valves closed/not closed. If the overheat lasts longer than 30 seconds, you get “(duct) BLD AIR LEAK” warning.

Failed nacelle shutoff valves may not generate NAC 1 (2, 3, or 4) SOV NOT CLOSED advisory. Lack of NAC 1 (2, 3 or 4) ISOLATED advisory indicates the failed valve.

148
Q

How many smoke detectors are there and where are they?

A

4
-No. 1 = underdeck avionics compartment
-No. 2 = cargo compartment ceiling left center
-No. 3 = cargo compartment ceiling right center
-No. 4 = cargo compartment ceiling aft section.

149
Q

What happens when smoke is detected?

A

MC activates MASTER WARNING lights, sounds aural alarm, and displays ACAWS warning message

150
Q

What can happen when turning the aux pump on if the cargo door manual control valve handle and/or the ramp manual control knob is not placed in the 6N/NEUT position?

A

The cargo door and ramp may open or close upon turning on the pump.

151
Q

How do you operate the aux pump for AD above 10K MSL?

A

Turn on the pump prior to depressurizing, and set depressurization rate to 1,000 feet per min. Operate cargo ramp and door independently. Allow system pressure to recover if pump stalls (indicated audibly or with pressure reading below 200 psi) by stopping opening or closing action.

152
Q

What is the FCV in the environmental system and what causes it to close?

A

Flow Control Valve. Will close if/when:
-Switch is pushed off
-Selecting AUX VENT
-Emergency Depress is set to DUMP

Will also shut off automatically for:
-Excessive water separator pressure (~14 psi diff)
-Excessive air conditioner discharge temp (~210F flight staiton or ~380F for cargo)
-Any ENGINE START switch is in the START position

153
Q

What differential pressure in the water separator opens the bypass? What diff press shuts down the affected air conditioner?

A

10 psid = bypass
14 psid = BA/ECS ECU closes the affected air conditioner and an ACAWS is displayed

154
Q

Which ECBU powers the Pilot and Co-Pilot fan (for overhead control panel and HUD cooling)?

A

No. 1 ECBU = Pilot Fan
No. 2 ECBU = Co-Pilot Fan

155
Q

The safety valve opens to relieve a positive diff pressure of ____ in Hg or a negative diff pressure of ____ in Hg

A

14.96 or -0.76

It also opens when emergency depress, aux vent, or no-press is selected, or when in AUTO with weight on wheels and the bleed air manifold is pressurized

156
Q

AUTO RATE in NORM is a nominal ____ fpm climb and ____ fpm descent rate. MIN is ____ fpm, and MAX is ____ fpm

A

NORM = 500 fpm climb / 300 fpm descent
MIN = 0 fpm
MAX = 3000 fpm

157
Q

What rate does the AUX VENT selection depressurize the cabin at?

A

3000 fpm until diff press is less than 0.5 in Hg, at which point the safety valve opens

158
Q

What happens when selecting the emergency depressurizaton switch to DUMP?

A

The outflow and safety valves open and depressurize the cabin at an uncontrolled rate. The BA/ECS ECU closes both air conditioning FCVs and the floor heat shutoff valve

158
Q

The ___ psi ___ liter liquid oxygen converter is routed through two heat-exchangers to ___ supply regulators in the flight station and ___ in the cargo compartment

A

300 psi, 25 Liter
6 regulators in flight station
4 regulators in cargo compartment

159
Q

Pressure should read ____ to ____ psi for no-flow, and ____ to ____ during continous breathing

A

270-455 no flow
270-340 breathing

160
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are there, and what should the pressure read?

A

4, they should read 375 +- 75 psi

161
Q

If the temperature in the leading edge area reaches ~ ___ to ___ C (___ to ___ F), the BA/ECS electronic controller closes the zone control valve for that zone

A

58-82C (137-180F)

162
Q

The wing and empennage ice protection system is enabled when the pilots airspeed is greater than ___ KIAS

A

60 KIAS
(Note: If the airspeed reads erroneously, displaying less than 60 knots in flight, selecting the other DADS source enables the system. If both DADS systems are indicating erroneously, less than 60 knots in flight, pulling the ECB for the DADs system selected by the pilot, reenables the wing/empennage ice protection system

163
Q

CAUTION: Do not turn on the wing/empennage ice protection sytem below -___C (-___F) on the ground or in flight to prevent damage to the pneumatic deice boot.

A

-40C (-40F)

164
Q

At pressure altitudes greater than ____ feet, when the engine anti-ice system is ON with takeoff power set, bleed air demand can cause the MGT to rise above ____ C, resulting in an ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) MGT HI (W) ACAWS

A

3000’
852 C

165
Q

When the average HP is below approximately ___ the pilot may receive an A/I AIR TEMP LOW ACAWS

A

750

166
Q

The reel harness will automatically lock when an impact force of ___ to ____ G’s on the aircraft is encountered.

A

2 to 3 G’s

167
Q

List the troop capacity for:
-Ground Troops
-Ground Troops (including wheel well seats)
-Paratroops

A

-Ground Troops = 78
-Ground Troops (including wheel well seats) = 92
-Paratroops = 64

168
Q

List the max litter/attendants

A

70/6
74/2

169
Q

The floor rings are rated at _____ pound strength. The ramp and side wall fittings are tiedown rings rated at ____ pound strength

A

10,000 pound
5,000 pound

170
Q

Name the emergency equipment

A

4x20-man life rafts
10x life vests
22x first aid kits
8x emergency exit lights
2x hand axes
4x hand-operated fire extinguishers

171
Q

How long does the EPOS/VRU last?

A

~60 minutes for a sitting individual. Operational ceiling for emergency decompression use is 30,000 feet.

172
Q

What nine things happen when the FIRE handle is pulled?

A
  1. Nacelle shutoff valve is closed
  2. Engine oil shutoff valve is closed
  3. Extinguishing AGENT switching is available
  4. Fire extinguisher directional flow valves are positioned
  5. Firewall fuel shutoff valve is closed
  6. Firewall hydraulic shutoff valves are closed
  7. The BAU commands the propeller auxiliary feather pump to energize for 20 seconds
  8. Data bus message is sent to the FADEC to feather the propeller and shut down the engine
  9. FPMU shutoff valve is closed
173
Q

What five things happen when the APU fire handle is pulled?

A
  1. Control power to the APU start circuit is interrupted
  2. APU fuel supply shutoff valve is closed
  3. APU door closes as rpm decreases to approximately 18 percent
  4. Extinguishing AGENT switching is available
  5. Fire extinguisher system directional flow valve is positioned
174
Q

Approximately how much time of recording can the CVR store?

A

~30 minutes. The CVR is in operation anytime the essential dc bus is powered.

175
Q

Approximately how much time of recording can the DFDR store?

A

~25 hours. The DFDR is in operation anytime the essential ac bus is powered.

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