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CMT Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best description of spasm?

A

a. painful or painless, involuntary, sustained contraction of a muscle

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2
Q

What is the basic unit of contraction (of muscle)?

A

c. sarcomere

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3
Q

What flows into the sarcoplasm as a result of acetylcholine release into the synaptic cleft?

A

d. calcium

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4
Q

What are the two major myofilaments in the sarcomere?

A

a. actin and myosin

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5
Q

Which proprioceptor measures to what degree a muscle is stretched as it is moving through a range and the speed with which this happens and transmits this information to the brain?

A

b. muscle spindles

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6
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate technique to reduce acute muscle spasm?

Select one:
a. muscle approximation
b. slow passive stretch to the affected muscle
c. heat
d. heat, followed by a slow passive stretch to the affected muscle

A

a. muscle approximation

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7
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate technique to reduce acute muscle spasm in gastrocnemius?

Select one:
a. voluntary contraction of tibialis posterior
b. slow passive stretch of gastrocnemius
c. voluntary contraction of tibialis anterior
d. involuntary contraction of tibialis anterior

A

c. voluntary contraction of tibialis anterior

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8
Q

If muscle spasm is not reduced after the acute stage, what might form as a result?

A

a. hypertonicity of the affected muscle

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9
Q

Reflex muscle guarding is muscle spasm in response to pain. At which stage of healing is this type of spasm present?

A

c. acute

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10
Q

Torticollis is defined as abnormal positioning of the head and neck relative to the body. What is the cause of the abnormal positioning?

A

d. muscle spasm

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11
Q

What is the common name for torticollis?

A

b. wry neck

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12
Q

What are the three types of torticollis?

A

a. acute acquired, congenital, spasmodic

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13
Q

What is the typical presentation of torticollis?

A

d. the head and neck laterally flexed toward the affected side, the face turned away from the affected side, and the shoulder raised on the affected side

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14
Q

The common inflammatory signs and symptoms typically present in the acute stage of healing are

Select one:
a. all of the above
b. pain
c. edema (swelling)
d. heat, redness

A

a. all of the above

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15
Q

Reduce pain, maintain circulation proximal to the injury, reduce but do not remove protective muscle spasm, and maintain ranges of motion are goals of which stage of healing?

A

b. acute

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16
Q

Reduce hypertonicity, trigger points, adhesions, increase ranges of motion and increase local circulation are goals of which stage of healing?

A

d. subacute

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17
Q

Hydrotherapy in the late subacute stage of healing is?

A

b. hot cold contrast

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18
Q

In the chronic stage of healing, strengthening exercises for home care are focused on what activities?

A

c. active resisted isotonic concentric and eccentric exercises to strained muscles to gradually increase and restore strength

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19
Q

Edema (swelling) can be described as local or general accumulation of fluid in interstitial space. Local accumulation is usually the result of

A

a. trauma or inflammation

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20
Q

Edema (swelling) due to trauma is usually

A

a. taut, firm, non-pitting

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21
Q

Consider edema (swelling) due to a sprained ankle. In the acute stage of healing, where can effleurage or lymphatic drainage be performed effectively?

A

c. proximal to the ankle (injured area)

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22
Q

Consider an acute sprained ankle accompanied by edema. What type of medication might the client take for this condition?

A

a. NSAID (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs i.e. Advil)

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23
Q

What is the best strategy for treating a client who has generalized edema?

A

c. refer to physician before any treatment is started

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24
Q

An overuse injury is usually the result of

A

d. insufficient rest between periods of repetitive movement

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25
Q

How does an overuse injury usually develop?

A

b. progressively, with or without an initial acute stage

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26
Q

Describe a structural musculoskeletal dysfunction?

A

c. bones have an altered state, posture cannot be corrected voluntarily but soft tissue can be treated to improve tissue health and relieve symptoms

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27
Q

Muscles are divided into two groups: postural and phasic. How do phasic muscles respond, generally, to dysfunction?

A

a. by weakening or becoming inhibited

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28
Q

What describes postural muscles?

A

c. endurance, slow twitch fibres

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29
Q

Which of the following muscles is usually considered to be postural?

Select one:
a. wrist extensors
b. upper trapezius
c. tibialis anterior
d. middle trapezius

A

b. upper trapezius

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30
Q

Which of the following muscles is usually considered to be phasic?

Select one:
a. erector spinae
b. middle trapezius
c. upper trapezius
d. TFL

A

b. middle trapezius

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31
Q

Which of the following statements will help the therapist form the most effective treatment plan for a client with a postural dysfunction?

Select one:
a. first stretch the short muscles, then strengthen the inhibited muscles
b. first stretch the inhibited muscles, then strengthen the short muscles
c. first strengthen the inhibited muscles, then stretch the short muscles
d. stretching and strengthening is not part of an effective treatment plan for postural dysfunction

A

a. first stretch the short muscles, then strengthen the inhibited muscles

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32
Q

Which of the following statements is true for a hypermobile joint?

Select one:
a. traction is a useful technique to treat a hypermobile joint
b. do not use strengthening techniques on the muscles surrounding a hypermobile joint
c. do not stretch muscles that cross a hypermobile joint beyond the normal range for that joint
d. end feel is encountered sooner than expected when performing PR(ROM) testing on a hypermobile joint

A

c. do not stretch muscles that cross a hypermobile joint beyond the normal range for that joint

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33
Q

If a client has a hypomobile joint due to surgical repair with metal appliances, what is the most effective way for a therapist to increase the range of motion of the joint?

A

d. do not attempt to increase the range of motion of the affected joint

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34
Q

What is the most effective form of hydrotherapy for treating a hypomobile joint?

A

b. heat

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35
Q

By what means does MLD reduce the formation of scar tissue?

A

c. removal of fibrin from the initial lymphatics

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36
Q

The correct order of applying MLD techniques is

A

d. nodal pumping, stationary circles, local technique such as skimming

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37
Q

Direct compression placed on the tendon near the junction with the muscle and held for a minimum of 30 seconds or until the muscle relaxes is describing which technique?

A

b. Golgi tendon organ release

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38
Q

Which of the following techniques reduces muscle tone and spasm?

Select one:
a. Golgi tendon organ release
b. muscle approximation
c. origin and insertion technique
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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39
Q

Which of the following techniques uses a slow rate and moderate to deep pressure?

Select one:
a. myofascial release
b. Golgi tendon organ release
c. manual lymphatic drainage
d. deep transverse friction release

A

b. Golgi tendon organ release

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40
Q

Post treatment hydrotherapy application of heat followed by painfree stretch is part of which technique?

A

a. trigger point release techniques

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41
Q

A technique that may be used throughout the massage to reduce sympathetic nervous system firing is

A

d. Diaphragmatic breathing

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42
Q

Hydrotherapy appropriate for treating inhibited muscles is

A

b. cool or cold

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43
Q

When using the muscle approximation technique the appropriate starting position for therapists hands is at the

A

c. origin and insertion attachment points

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44
Q

Loss of motor function due to a peripheral nerve lesion is called

A

b. flaccidity

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45
Q

Compression of a nerve causing a local conduction block with no structural damage to the axon or to tissue distal to the lesion is called

A

d. neuropraxia

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46
Q

The nerve injury with the poorest prognosis for recovery is

A

c. neurotmesis

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47
Q

What is severe pain syndrome called?

A

d. causalgia

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48
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

d. CNV

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49
Q

When entrapment of a nerve occurs, the nerve trunk responds with

A

a. an inflammatory response

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50
Q

What kind of condition is plantar fasciitis?

A

a. a condition that comes on gradually as the result of overuse

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51
Q

Where is the pain usually located with plantar fasciitis?

A

a. anterior inferior surface of the calcaneus and medial border of the plantar fascia

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52
Q

Functional curves are most effectively treated by which techniques?

A

c. voluntary positional changes, stretching and strengthening exercises

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53
Q

How do postural muscles respond to stress with a shoulder crossed syndrome?

A

d. shorten

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54
Q

An increase in the thoracic curve has several implications for the upper body, which could include:

Select one:
a. both b and d
b. bronchitis due to inefficient breathing patterns
c. retraction of the scapula, which turns the glenohumeral joint into lateral rotation
d. constant contraction of the rotator cuff muscles to maintain the humeral head in its proper position

A

a. both b and d

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55
Q

With shoulder crossed syndrome, which muscles are inhibited?

A

c. scapula retractors, thoracic erector spinae, suprahyoids and infrahyoids

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56
Q

What other condition(s) may result from hyperkyphosis?

Select one:
a. thoracic outlet syndrome
b. frozen shoulder
c. temporomandibular joint dysfunction
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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57
Q

What is one effect of forward head posture?

A

b. facet joint irritation

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58
Q

What is the best definition of frozen shoulder in the early stage?

A

c. painful, significant restriction of active and passive range of motion at the shoulder, most frequently in abduction and external rotation

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59
Q

The motion between the ST joint (scapulothoracic) and the GH joint as the arm is abducted through full range is called the scapulothoracic rhythm. After 60 degrees of abduction, the ratio is 2:1 GH to ST motion. In frozen shoulder, the ST rhythm is altered to what ratio?

A

b. 1:1

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60
Q

How does hyperkyphosis contribute to adhesive capsulitis?

A

b. the protracted scapula inferiorly (downwardly) rotates, allowing the humerus to hang in a slightly abducted position

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61
Q

A joint that has reduced range of motion due to pathology of the joint capsule itself is said to have a capsular pattern of restriction. What does this mean?

A

c. specific range of motion of the joint are reduced in a specific predictable pattern

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62
Q

What is a common orthopedic test used to confirm adhesive capsulitis?

A

d. Apleys scratch

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63
Q

What remedial exercise is typically used for treating adhesive capsulitis, especially at the early stages?

A

c. pendulum

64
Q

What describes the condition Pes Planus?

A

c. decreased medial longitudinal arch and pronated hind foot

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT an arch in the foot?

Select one:
a. anterior transverse
b. medial longitudinal
c. posterior transverse
d. lateral longitudinal

A

c. posterior transverse

66
Q

Regarding the condition Pes Planus which muscles will be in an inhibited, lengthened state?

A

a. tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, flexor digitorum longus

67
Q

Regarding the condition Pes Planus which muscles will be in a shortened state?

A

d. gastrocnemius, soleus, peroneals

68
Q

What is the best definition of strain?

A

b. overstretch injury to a musculotendinous unit

69
Q

The origin and insertion of a muscle come closer together and the muscle fibres shorten. This is a description of what kind of contraction?

A

b. concentric

70
Q

Which type of contraction produces the greatest force within the muscle?

A

c. eccentric

71
Q

What type of contraction is most likely to predispose a muscle to a strain injury?

A

a. eccentric

72
Q

The following signs and symptoms best describe which level of severity? Variable number of torn fibres; there may be a snapping or tearing sensation at the time of injury; a gap may appear at the injury site; continued activity is difficult but not impossible due to pain and muscle weakness.

A

b. grade 2

73
Q

What are the first remedial exercise goals when treating a grade 1 or 2 strain?

A

a. maintain and progressively increase the range of motion of the strained muscles

74
Q

A period of total inactivity should follow a strain because

A

c. a period of total inactivity is not recommended

75
Q

If a person can return to the activity following a strain, she most likely has what grade(s) of strain?

A

d. grade 1 or 2

76
Q

Chronic inflammation (not chronic stage of healing) can occur under which circumstances?

Select one:
a. when the strained muscle is subjected to an intense training program or specific repetitive movements
b. when the strain is not treated to reduce adhesions, allowing scar tissue to form which then results in micro-tearing when the muscle is used
c. when the strained muscle is overused without adequate healing time in the acute and subacute stages
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

77
Q

During the interview, what are the most significant points that will help the therapist suspect that a strain has occurred and determine the grade of severity?

A

b. snapping noise, twinge, loss of function, mechanism of injury

78
Q

What testing can be performed with an acute grade 1 strain?

A

d. range of motion and special orthopedic tests

79
Q

What testing can be performed with an acute grade 2 or 3 strain?

A

c. AF ROM only

80
Q

What testing can be performed with subacute and chronic grades 1 and 2 strain?

A

a. range of motion and orthopedic special tests

81
Q

By definition, what structures are injured with a sprain?

A

a. ligaments

82
Q

Which of the following scenarios is most likely to be a sprain?

Select one:
a. a client comes in with ankle pain that came on slowly over the last 6 months
b. a client comes in with ankle pain that is there in the morning, but not at night
c. a client comes in with ankle pain that occurred right after stepping off a curb
d. a client comes in with numbness and tingling in the ankle

A

c. a client comes in with ankle pain that occurred right after stepping off a curb

83
Q

What grade of sprain produces the following signs and symptoms: several to many ligament fibre tears; snapping sound at time of injury; can continue activity, but with difficulty?

A

b. grade 2

84
Q

What is the best description of effusion?

A

c. composed of synovial fluid and is intracapsular

85
Q

Bleeding into the synovial space (intracapsular) is called?

A

a. Hemarthrosis

86
Q

What is the best description of edema?

A

a. composed of inflammatory exudate, extracapsular

87
Q

What is the best approach for home care remedial exercise for a chronic sprain (grade 1 or 2) once normal range of motion is restored?

A

d. isotonic strengthening and proprioceptive education

88
Q

What is the major difference between tendinitis and strain?

A

c. strain is the result of acute trauma and tendinitis comes on gradually (overuse injury)

89
Q

What best describes grade 2 tendinitis?

A

b. pain at the beginning of activity which disappears during activity then returns after activity

90
Q

Several distinct tendon pathologies exist. These are tendinitis, paratendinitis, and tendinosis. They all are categorized as what type of injury?

A

c. overuse

91
Q

The stages of healing for tendinitis are

A

b. acute and chronic

92
Q

To reduce adhesions that have formed in chronic tendinitis, what techniques and order of applying these techniques would be most effective?

A

a. heat and myofascial release, followed by frictions, stretch, and ice

93
Q

The function of the cruciate ligaments are

A

c. check motion at the knee

94
Q

Where is the posterior cruciate ligament located?

A

c. runs from the posterior portion of the tibial intercondylar area to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle

94
Q

When are the cruciate ligaments most taut?

A

c. when the knee is in extension

95
Q

An anterior cruciate injury could be caused by which menchanisms

A

a. a blow to the posterior tibia
b. forced hyperextension with internal rotation of the tibia
c. a blow to lateral knee

96
Q

Which structure is involved in a dashboard injury when the tibia is forced posteriorly?

A

a. posterior cruciate ligament

97
Q

The medial meniscus is often damaged when what ligament is damaged?

A

b. medial collateral ligament

98
Q

The common cause of meniscal injury is

A

d. twisting while the foot is weight bearing and anchored to the ground

99
Q

An injury to an anterior or posterior cruciate ligament is considered what kind of injury?

A

b. sprain

100
Q

The term whiplash is defined as acceleration-deceleration of the head in relation to the body. This can be the result of which of the following?

A

any forceful impact to the body from any direction

101
Q

Which of the following conditions is likely to be caused by a whiplash associated disorder?

Select one:
a. herniated cervical discs and facet joint sprain
b. sprain
c. strain
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

102
Q

Which of the following combined signs and symptoms best describes WAD I and WAD II categories?

A

neck pain, stiffness, and tenderness plus decreased range of motion and spasm

103
Q

What is the recommended form of hydrotherapy for spasm due to reflex muscle guarding?

A

cold

104
Q

What are the tests that a massage therapist can perform at the acute stage of a MVA WAD I or II?

A

pain-free active ROM

105
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates referral to a physician for any degree or stage of healing of a whiplash associated disorder?

A

positive vertebral artery test

106
Q

During the initial interview, what question must you ask any client who has had any type of recent whiplash associated disorder due to a MVA?

A

Have you seen a primary health care provider?

107
Q

The temporomandibular joint is an example of what type of joint structurally?

A

synovial

108
Q

The temporomandibular joint is an example of what type of joint functionally?

A

diathrosis

109
Q

What two motions occur at the TMJ?

A

rotation and glide

110
Q

What structure is located between the articulating bones of the TMJ?

A

biconcave disc

111
Q

What is the disc in the tempormandibular joint attached to anteriorly and posteriorly?

A

lateral pterygoid and retrodiscal tissue

112
Q

What muscle(s) must relax in order for the jaw to open?

A

temporalis, masseter, and medial pterygoid

113
Q

What three components must be present for TMJD to occur?

A

predisposition, tissue alteration, and stress

114
Q

What are the actions of masseter?

A

elevate and protract the mandible bilaterally

115
Q

What are the actions of temporalis?

A

elevate and retract the mandible

116
Q

What are the actions of lateral pterygoid?

A

unilaterally: laterally deviate the mandible to the opposite side; bilaterally: protract the mandible

117
Q

Which of the following is NOT a movement of the TMJ?

A

lateral rotation

118
Q

What is the function of the ITB?

Select one:
a. provides medial knee support, especially when the knee is in flexion
b. provides lateral knee support, especiallly when the knee is in extension
c. provides medial knee support, especially when the knee is in extension
d. provides lateral knee support, especially when the knee is in flexion

A

provides lateral knee support, especiallly when the knee is in extension

119
Q

What are the attachments of the ITB?

Select one:
a. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; medial tibia
b. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; medial fibula
c. tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus; lateral tibia
d. tensor fascia latae and gluteus maximus; lateral fibula

A

tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus; lateral tibia

120
Q

Which form of bursitis may accompany ITB contracture?

Select one:
a. subacromial
b. calcaneal
c. trochanteric
d. patellar

A

trochanteric

121
Q

What are the actions of tensor fasciae latae at the coxal joint?

Select one:
a. extension, lateral rotation, adduction
b. flexion, medial rotation, abduction
c. flexion, lateral rotation, abduction
d. extension, medial rotation, adduction

A

flexion, medial rotation, abduction

122
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause ITB contracture and friction syndrome?

Select one:
a. swayback or flatback posture
b. activities or positions that place the hip and knee in extension
c. posterior pelvic tilt
d. activities or positions that place the hip and knee in flexion

A

activities or positions that place the hip and knee in flexion

123
Q

What is the best definition of hyperlordosis?

Select one:
a. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
b. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip extension
c. decrease in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased posterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion
d. increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with decreased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion

A

increase in normal lumbar lordotic curve with increased anterior pelvic tilt and hip flexion

124
Q

In the condition hyperlordosis, which of the following muscles will be shortened?

Select one:
a. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
b. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
d. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus

A

iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae

125
Q

In the condition hyperlordosis, which of the following muscles will be inhibited?

Select one:
a. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominis
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
d. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, lumbar erector spinae

A

gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominis

126
Q

In the condition hyperlordosis, how are the hamstrings affected?

Select one:
a. does not affect the hamstrings
b. hamstrings are phasic therefore inhibited and hypertonic
c. hamstrings are postural therefore short and hypertonic
d. hamstrings become adaptively stretched and hypertonic

A

hamstrings become adaptively stretched and hypertonic

127
Q

Muscles that are postural typically respond to stress by shortening. Examples are

Select one:
a. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
d. gluteus maximus, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus

A

iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae

128
Q

Muscles that are phasic typically respond to stress by becoming inhibited. Examples are

Select one:
a. gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominus
b. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, lumbar erector spinae
c. hamstrings, external obliques, internal obliques, lumbar erector spinae
d. iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL, rectus abdominus

A

gluteus maximus, external obliques, internal obliques, rectus abdominus

129
Q

What is the likely result of Elys orthopedic test in a client with hyperlordosis?

Select one:
a. negative for short hamstrings
b. negative for short rectus femoris and iliopsoas
c. positive for short rectus femoris
d. positive for short hamstrings

A

positive for short rectus femoris

130
Q

What is the likely result of the straight leg raise orthopedic test in a client with hyperlordosis?

Select one:
a. positive for short rectus femoris
b. positive for short rectus femoris and iliopsoas
c. positive for short hamstrings
d. negative for short hamstrings

A

negative for short hamstrings

131
Q

What massage techniques are most effective on shortened muscles?

Select one:
a. heat followed by stretch
b. tapotement followed by cool
c. tapotement followed by heat
d. stretch followed by heat

A

heat followed by stretch

132
Q

What techniques are most effective on inhibited muscles?

Select one:
a. stretch followed by cool
b. stretch followed by heat
c. tapotement followed by cool
d. tapotement followed by heat

A

tapotement followed by cool

133
Q

Structural curves may be corrected by what techniques?

Select one:
a. voluntarily altered or reversed by positional changes
b. passive soft tissue stretching, joint mobilization, and strengthening exercises
c. both b. and c.
d. cannot be corrected, except possibly by surgical intervention

A

cannot be corrected, except possibly by surgical intervention

134
Q

What is the definition of SPAN in reference to scoliosis?

Select one:
a. area of greatest angulation
b. distance on the spine that the curve covers
c. curve farthest from midline
d. the vertebra that marks the end of one curve and the beginning of the next

A

distance on the spine that the curve covers

135
Q

What is the definition of APEX vertebra in reference to scoliosis?

Select one:
a. The vertebra that marks the end of one curve and the beginning of the next
b. the vertebra in any curve that is farthest from midline
c. the vertebra in the major curve of an S-curve scoliosis
d. the vertebra in the minor curve of an S-curve scoliosis

A

the vertebra in any curve that is farthest from midline

136
Q

What is the definition of Wolff’s principle?

Select one:
a. when a muscle receives an impulse to contract, its antagonist simultaneously receives an impulse to relax
b. the bodys attempt to establish a centre of gravity
c. the bodys attempt to establish the eyes on a horizontal plane
d. remodelling of connective tissue along the lines of force that are placed on it

A

remodelling of connective tissue along the lines of force that are placed on it

137
Q

In scoliosis, muscles on the concave side of a curve will be in what position?

Select one:
a. inhibited
b. in an eccentric contraction
c. shortened
d. lengthened

A

shortened

138
Q

In scoliosis, muscles on the convex side of a curve will be in what position?

Select one:
a. shortened
b. in an isometric contraction
c. inhibited
d. in a concentric contraction

A

inhibited

139
Q

What type of scoliosis is caused by a small hemipelvis?

Select one:
a. structural
b. idiopathic
c. functional
d. iatrogenic

A

functional

140
Q

What type of scoliosis is caused by vertebral wedging?

Select one:
a. iatrogenic
b. structural
c. idiopathic
d. functional

A

structural

141
Q

What are the three areas that are most commonly involved in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome)?

Select one:
a. between middle and posterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and cervical rib
b. between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis major; between clavicle and first rib
c. between posterior and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and second rib
d. between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and first rib

A

between middle and anterior scalene; between coracoid process and pectoralis minor; between clavicle and first rib

142
Q

Describe the brachial plexus

Select one:
a. nerve roots C3 to C8; innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
b. nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand
c. nerve roots C1 to C8; innervation to upper arm; travels with carotid artery; goes above clavicle; under pectoralis minor; ends at elbow
d. nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to upper arm; travels with subclavian vein; interscalene space; joined by subclavian artery; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand

A

nerve roots C5 to C8 (T1); innervation to entire upper limb; travels with subclavian artery; interscalene space; joined by subclavian vein; goes below clavicle; under pectoralis minor; continues down arm to hand

143
Q

What is a double crush syndrome

Select one:
a. a syndorme in which one nerve is compressed in more than one location
b. a syndrome in which the symptoms of nerve compression affect the client bilaterally
c. a syndrome in which more than one nerve is compressed tn the same location
d. a syndrome in which TOS and CTS occur at the same time

A

a syndrome in which one nerve is compressed in more than one location

144
Q

Signs and symptoms of neuronal compression in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome) are

Select one:
a. ischemic changes
b. numbness and tingling on ulnar side; aching, throbbing pain in shoulder, forearm, and hand
c. edema
d. cyanosis

A

numbness and tingling on ulnar side; aching, throbbing pain in shoulder, forearm, and hand

145
Q

Signs and symptoms of vascular compression in TOS (thoracic outlet syndrome) are

Select one:
a. hypothenar muscle wasting
b. aching in the shoulder
c. ischemic changes, distension of blood vessels, edema in hand
d. pain is triggered by letting the arm hang down

A

ischemic changes, distension of blood vessels, edema in hand

146
Q

Compression of the brachial plexus in TOS causes numbness and tingling of which digits?

Select one:
a. 4th and 5th digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand
b. 4th and 5th digits and the radial side of the forearm and hand
c. lateral 3 and one half digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand
d. lateral 3 and one half digits and the radial side of the forearm and hand

A

4th and 5th digits and the ulnar side of the forearm and hand

147
Q

What is the sensory distribution of the median nerve?

Select one:
a. hypothenar eminence
b. palm and third digit
c. lateral three and one half digits
d. medial three and one half digits

A

lateral three and one half digits

148
Q

What is one distinguishing feature of CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome)?

Select one:
a. posterior wrist pain
b. nocturnal pain
c. no nocturnal pain
d. elbow and forearm pain

A

nocturnal pain

149
Q

Persistent CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) can lead to

Select one:
a. thenar muscle wasting
b. pronator teres syndrome
c. thoracic outlet syndrome
d. hypothenar muscle wasting

A

thenar muscle wasting

150
Q

What connective tissue structure supports the carpal tunnel on the anterior aspect?

Select one:
a. supraspinous ligament
b. flexor retinaculum
c. fascia latae
d. extensor retinaculum

A

flexor retinaculum

151
Q

What structures travel through the carpal tunnel?

Select one:
a. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus
b. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor pollicis brevis
c. median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, palmaris longus, and flexor pollicis longus
d. median nerve, ulnar nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus

A

median nerve, tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus

152
Q

What factors may contribute to the compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel?

Select one:
a. size of the structures going through the tunnel
b. acute trauma
c. the size of the tunnel
d. all of the above

A

a. size of the structures going through the tunnel
b. acute trauma
c. the size of the tunnel
d. all of the above

153
Q

What conditions might contribute to CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) ?

Select one:
a. diabetes, pregnancy
b. diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy
d. all of the above

A

a. diabetes, pregnancy
b. diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy
d. all of the above

154
Q
A

vicars study (12 decks)

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