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CMA test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What group of factors is likely to contribute to blood pressure?

A. Alcohol use, education , wealth
B. Age, Activity, Occupation
C. Activity level, stress, Alcohol use
D. Diet, Health History, Wealth

A

C

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2
Q

What are lavender-stopped tubes most commonly used to collect

A. Chemistry tests
B. Coagulation tests
C. Hematology tests
D. Immunology

A

C

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3
Q

What does the lab abbreviation PT stand for?

A. Partial Thromboplastin
B. Prothrombin time
C. Patient Temperatures
D. Prenatal Therapy

A

B

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4
Q

Of the following options, what must happen for the practice to achieve reimbursement?

A. All the fields on the insurance claim form must be complete
B. The Diagnostic code must match the procedure code
C. The diagnostic code must be different than the procedure code
D. All procedural codes must be from Category I

A

B

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5
Q

What does a tympanic thermometer measure temperatures?

A. In the ear
B. Under the armpit
C. In the rectum
D. In the Mouth

A

A.

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6
Q

What is a flexible spending account (FSA) designed to be?

A. Be a tax-sheltered savings that can be used to pay for medical expenses
B. Reimburse an employee for medical expense due to high deductibles
C. be funded by the employee and is not subject to federal or state taxes
D. Allow the patient to spend health-care money whenever desired

A

C

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7
Q

Which of the following is a solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture?

A. 70% isopropyl alcohol
B. 70% methanol
C. Providone-iodine

A

A

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8
Q

What is diaphoresis another term for?

A. Prolonged fever
B. Sweating
C. Low Blood Pressure
D. Diarrhea

A

B

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9
Q

Which of these instruments would a physician use to examine a patient’s throat?

A. Stethoscope
B. Tuning fork
C. Scapula
D. Laryngeal mirror

A

D

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10
Q

Which of the following stopper colors identifies a tube used for coagulation testing?

A. Green
B. Lavender
C. Light-blue
D. Red

A

C

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11
Q

How does heparin prevent blood from clotting?

A. Activating calcium
B. Binding calcium
C. Chelating thrombin
D. Inhibiting thrombin

A

D

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12
Q

What is the purpose of an antiglycolytic agent?

A. It enhances the clotting process
B. It inhibits the electrolyte breakdown
C. It preserves glucose
D. It prevents clotting

A

C

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13
Q

What term means “ to examine by touch or feel”?

A. Ambulate
B. Anchor
C. Palpate
D. Pronate

A

C

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the regular physical examination?

A. To meet the needs of the insurance company
B. To keep the patient’s status as current
C. To identify any disease or condition the patient may not be aware of
D. To maintain the patient’s health and prevent disease.

A

D

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15
Q

If you want to convey an open posture while communicating with a patient, what should you do?

A. Lean forward in your chair facing the patient
B. Lean back gently facing the patient
C. Lean forward and avoid eye contact with the patient
D. Fold your arms and lean forward while looking into the patient’s eyes.

A

A

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16
Q

What is the term of a foxed-dollar amount the subscriber must pay each year before the insurer begins to cover the expenses?

A. Copayment
B. Deductible
C. Premium
D. Co-insurance

A

B

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17
Q

What does the horizontal flat line that separates the various waves on the ECG strip represent?

A. A Segment
B. The baseline
C. An interval
D. The Amplitude

A

B

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18
Q

Which of the following tasks are considered within the scope of practice for a clinical medical assistant?

A. Diagnosing a patient
B. Prescribing treatment for a patient
C. Performing a physical examination
D. Collecting specimens for diagnostic treatment

A

D

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19
Q

Which codes are considered to be the most important of the CPT codes?

A. Level II
B. Add-on
C. Evaluation and management
D. Unlisted procedure

A

C

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20
Q

What is hepatomegaly?

A. Increased liver function
B. Enlargement of the liver
C. Impaired liver function
D. Decreased liver funtion

A

B

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21
Q

Which term best describes “destruction by burning”?

A. Fulguration
B. Cryosurgery
C. Electrocauterization
D. Exenteration

A

C

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22
Q

What type of cancer is the most common?

A. Teratoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Carcinoma
D. Adenoma

A

C

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23
Q

What must the clinical medical assistant do in preparation for a venipuncture or capillary stick?

A. Blow on the alcohol for quicker drying time
B. Fan the alcohol with your hand
C. Wipe the alcohol off with dry gauze
D. Allow the alcohol to air dry

A

d

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24
Q

Which if the following should be ordered blood culture be drawn in?

A. Red top tube
B. Lavender
C. Green
D. Yellow

A

D

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25
Q

A patient’s arm is swollen. What is the term used to describe this condition?

A. Cyanotic
B. Edematous
C. Sclerosed
D. Thrombosed

A

B

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26
Q

A patient’s cancer has spread. Which term best describes their condition?

A. Benign
B. Metastasis
C. Mitosis
D. Malignancy

A

B

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27
Q

Which symptoms would a patient with a high degree of jaundice typically have?

A. Bruising and petechiae
B. Edematous extremities
C. Hemolyzed specimens
D. Yellow skin and sclera

A

D

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28
Q

What question pertains to patient safety regarding blood collections?

A. “Are you allergic to anything that you know of?”
B. “Have you had anything to eat or drink the past 24 hours?”
C. “Have you had this procedure before?”
D. “Where do they usually stick you?”

A

A

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29
Q

What is the proper method of urine specimen collection that will avoid contamination?

A. Avoiding urinating directly into the urine container
B. Avoiding touching the inside the container or the lid
C. Adding a preservation to the midstream container
D. Asking the patient to wear gloves during collection into the container.

A

B

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30
Q

Which ECG lead is considered bipolar?

A. V4
B. II
C. aVF
D. aVR

A

B

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31
Q

How does the serum or plasma of a lipemic specimen appear?

A. Cloudy white
B. Dark Yellow
C. Foamy pink
D. Pink to red

A

A

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32
Q

A lipemic specimen is a clue that the patient was probably which of the following?

A. In a basal state
B. Dehydrated
C. Jaundiced
D. Not fasting

A

D

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33
Q

A 12-hour fast is normally required in testing for which analyte?

A. Bilirubin
B. Calcium
C. Electrolytes
D. Triglycerides

A

D

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34
Q

What is a blood smear?

A. Blood collected on a special filter paper
B. Blood spread out on a microscope slide
C. Blood made from a heparinized specimens
D. Blood used to identify the type of bacteria

A

B

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35
Q

If a patient has complained of nausea and vomiting for several days, what will the physician most likely prescribe or administer?

A. An antacid
B. An antidiarrheal
C. A Laxative
D. An antiemetic

A

D

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36
Q

Which part of the brain is breathing regulated by ?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla Oblongata
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid

A

B

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37
Q

What are gauze pads used for?

A. Handle lab samples
B. Apply pressure on the venipuncture site following a blood draw
C. Prevent the spread of infection
D. Provide comfort to the patient

A

B

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38
Q

What are whorls as related to capillary puncture?

A. Blebs created during skin test
B. Formations seen in the blood films
C. Newborn screening blood spots
D. Spiral patterns of fingerprints

A

D

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39
Q

What is cystitis?

A. Disorder of the kidney
B. Infection of the nephritis
C. Inflammation of the bladder
D. Obstruction of the ureter

A

C

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40
Q

According to the Patient Care partnership, which of the following is a patient right?

A. To waive payment if treatment is unsatisfactory
B. To expect continuity of care
C. To participate in research with our informed consent
D. Obtain information about family members’ healthcare.

A

B

41
Q

What is lidocaine a type of?

A. Anesthetic
B. Antibiotic
C. Antihypnotic
D. Diuretic

A

A

42
Q

If both parents cover dependents on their plan, the child’s primary insurance is usually determine by the birthday rule.
What is meant by the birthday rule?

A. The father is usually older than the mother so he is primary
B. The patient whose birthday is closest to the child’s birthday is primary
C. If the mother is older than the father than she is primary
D. The parent whose birthday is earlier in the calendar year is primary

A

D

43
Q

On what basis is co-insurance calculated?

A. The number of policy holders in a plan
B. A fixed charged for each visit
C. A capitation rate
D. Percentage of a charged

A

D

44
Q

What is the term for an unintentional, harmful reaction to a correct dosage of a drug?

A. A coexisting condition
B. A Late effect
C. An adverse effect
D. A manifestation

A

C

45
Q

Int he order to be considered a new patient , they must not have received services from the physician or from another physician of the same specialty in the same group practice for at least how long?

A. 90 days
B. 1 year
C. 2 year
D. 3 year

A

D

46
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation PFSH?

A. Past, Family, and/ or social history
B. Patient, family, and/or systems history
C. Past, Family and system history
D. Present, Family, social and History

A

A

47
Q

You are obtaining an ECG using a 10-lead ECG machine. The patient accidently burps while the strips is running, causing an artifact on the strip. What can this be identified as?

A. Somatic tremor
B. Voluntary muscle movement
C. Electricals interference
D. Wandering baseline

A

A

48
Q

What should the P wave on the ECG strip be?

A. After each QRS complex and upright reflection
B. Upright reflection and in front of the QRS complex
C. Downward reflection and in front of the QRS complex
D. Upward deflection proceeding the QRS complex

A

B

49
Q

What does Medicare part A cover?

A. Physicians services
B. Prescription drugs
C. Hospital services
D. MACs

A

C

50
Q

What is the form that must be signed by the patient, in order for a physician to send records to another physicians called?

A. ABN
B. Release of Information
C. Assignment of Benefits
D. Arbitration Agreement

A

B

51
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A. The shape of red blood cells
B. Creation of new blood cells
C. Creation of fluid in the bone morrow
D. The clotting factor in a person

A

B

52
Q

Which food is a good source of folate?

A. Chicken
B. Liver
C. Carrots
D. Leafy green vegatables

A

D

53
Q

Which of the following is a clinical duty?

A. Scheduling appointment
B. Checking for recertification for a patient
C. Calling an insurance company
D. Obtaining medical history of a new patient

A

D

54
Q

What is empathy is the ability to do?

A. Feel sorry for homeless people
B. Lose your temper in an emergency
C. Keep you calm during an emergency
D. Care and respect for the health and welfare of your patients

A

D

55
Q

Which specialist diagnoses and treat disorders of the stomach and intestines?

A. Gerontologist
B. Podiatrist
C. Gastroenterology
D. Internist

A

C

56
Q

Why should some time slots be left open during schedule each day?

A. Provide the staff enough time for break each day
B. Allow enough time for the doctor to return calls
C. Make room in the schedule for emergencies and delays
D. Allow room for patients to make their own appointments

A

C

57
Q

Int he letter, the letters “ENC”, indicate which of the following?

A. Carbon Copy
B. In case you didn’t know
C. Entitles
D. Enclosure

A

D

58
Q

What is the purpose of an agenda?

A. Communicate the summary of the meeting
B. Send a reminder about an upcoming meeting
C. Give an outline of topic to be discussed at an upcoming meeting
D. Set the tone of the meeting

A

C

59
Q

How should correspondence that contains information about a patient be marked?

A. Personal
B. Confidential
C. With the patient’s name and diagnosis
D. Urgent

A

B

60
Q

What is an example of protected health information?

A. Published Statistics from the internet
B. Physician’s number
C. First and last name associated with a diagnosis
D. Insurance company mailing address

A

C

61
Q

Which of the following is not Phlebotomist’s duty?

A. Collecting blood specimens
B. Performing laboratory computer operations
C. Starting intravenous (IV) lines
D. Transporting specimens to the laboratory

A

C

62
Q

What is the national organization that sets standard for phlebotomy procedures?

A. ASCP
B. NAACLS
C. NCA
D. NCCLS

A

D.
National committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards

63
Q

Which type of contact infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of susceptible individual by means of cough or sneeze?

A. Direct
B. Droplet
C. Fomites
D. Indirect

A

B

64
Q

Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system?

A. ABGs
B. CSG
C. TSH
D. UA

A

A
Arterial Blood Gas

65
Q

Which of the following is urine C&S typically ordered to detect?

A. Abnormal urine pH
B. Glucose spillage into the urine
C. Kidney damage
D. Presence of UTI

A

D

66
Q

What statement describes proper centrifuge operation?

A. Centrifuge serum specimens before they have a chance to clot
B. Never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge
C. Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another
D. Remove stoppers before placing in to the centrifuge

A

c

67
Q

What type motion would a phlebotomist use when cleaning a site for a routine venipuncture?

A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Crossing
D. Concentric

A

D

68
Q

The heart valve that is situated between the right atrium and the right ventricle is called?

A. The pulmonic valve
B. The mitral valve
C. The aortic valve
D. The tricuspid valve

A

D

69
Q

What is the third step of analyzing an ECG rhythm?

A. Evaluate the QRS complex
B. Determine the heart valve
C. Determine the regularity
D. Evaluate the P-wave

A

D

70
Q

A patient was experiencing a successful venipuncture when petechiae arose on their forearm. Wat was the results of?

A. Allergy to the antiseptic used to cleanse the area
B. The needle puncturing completely through the vein
C. The tourniquet being applied too tightly
D. A rare genetic disorder

A

C

71
Q

In which of the following circumstances would the PR intervals get progressively longer?

A. 1st degree AV heart block
B. 2nd degree AV heart block, Type 1
C. 3rd degree AV heart block
D. Sinus dysrhythmia

A

B

72
Q

What is the fifth step of analyzing an ECG rhythm?

A. Determine the regularity
B. Examine the P waves
C. Evaluate the PR intervals
D. Determine the heart rate

A

C

73
Q

Normal QRS complexes are those that are most closely aligned with which description below?

A. Look different
B. Are inverted
C. Are wide and bizarre
D. Are upright and narrow

A

D

74
Q

What is the term of the dysrhythmia that always procedures an irregular rhythm?

A. Sinus arrest
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. 2nd degree AV heart block, Type 1

A

C
Atrial rate over 350bpm

75
Q

What is the muscular wall that separate that right side from the left side of the heart called?

A. Chordae tendineae
B. Syncytium
C. Septum
D. Skeleton of the heart

A

C

76
Q

Which of the following is a fever that comes and goes or, fluctuates and returns into the average range?

A. Continuous
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Crisis

A

B

77
Q

Preferably, how is a patient’s general medical history obtained?

A. before admission to the hospitals
B. Over the telephone before the initial appointment
C. At the end of the first office visit
D. Whenever the need arises.

A

A

78
Q

Which of the following is considered inappropriate communications with a patient?

A. Taking the time to listen patience and kindness
B. Using positive nonverbal responses such as a warm smile
C. Touching and holding the hands of the patient intimately
D. Communicating clearly, without the use of “uh’s” or “you know”

A

C.

79
Q

What should a clinical medical assistant do first when a patient is having a syncopial episode when venipuncture is being performed?

A. Remove the needle from the arm
B. Call for help
C. Apply a cold compress
D. Use an ammonia inhalant

A

A

80
Q

Which of the following information does not need to be on the specimen label?

A. Patient’s name
B. Date
C. Diagnosis
D. Time of collection

A

C

81
Q

Which of the following thermometers is considered the most accurate indicator of body temperture?

A. Oral
B. Aural or tympanic
C. Axillary
D. Rectal

A

D

82
Q

Which of the following is not considered a vital sign?

A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse Rater
C. Respiration
D. Weight

A

D

83
Q

What route is involved in administering a drug by placing it under the patient’s tongue and leaving it there until it is dissolved?

A. Buccal Route
B. Sublingual route
C. Subcutaneous route
D. Transdermal route

A

B

84
Q

What is the average normal heart rate?

A. 63 beat per minute
B. 72 beat per minute
C. 81 beats per minute
D. 96 beats per minute

A

B
Average range is 60-100 beats per minute.

85
Q

What test is collected in a tube with in a light-blue top?

A. Without legal force or effect
B. Platelet count
C. Prothrombin time
D. Red blood count

A

C

86
Q

What does liable means?

A. Without legal force or effect
B. A moral code
C. Accountable under law
D. False, defamatory writing

A

C

87
Q

What is a crime punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than one year known as ?

A. Misdemeanor
B. Felony
C. Mitigation
D. Arbitration

A

A

88
Q

Which of the following is a fever that comes and goes or, fluctuates and returns into the average range?

A. Continuous
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Crisis

A

B

89
Q

Preferably, how is a patients’ general medical history is obtained?

A. Before admission to the hospital
B. Over the telephone the initial appointment
C. At the end of the first office visit
D. Whenever the need arises

A

A

90
Q

Which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedure before specimen collection?

A. Blood culture
B. Blood urea nitrogen
C. Complete blood count
D. Type and crossmatch

A

A

91
Q

Which of the following tests may require a special, “chain of custody” documentation when collected?

A. Blood culture
B. Crossmatch
C. Drug screen
D. DM

A

C

92
Q

What is the hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy test?

A. ACTH
B. GH
C. HCG
D. TSH

A

C

93
Q

When should a tube containing heparin be collected?

A. Between a blood culture and before a serum tune
B. Between a citrate additive tube and serum tube
C. Between an EDTA tube and glycolytic inhibitor tube
D. Between a serum tube and and EDTA tube

A

D

94
Q

Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture?

A. Cerebrospinal
B. Peritoneal
C. Pleural
D. Synovial

A

A

95
Q

Which of the following is a urine C&S typically ordered to detect?

A. Abnormal urine pH
B. Glucose spillage into the urine
C. Kidney damage
D. Presence of UTI

A

D

96
Q

What is PKU?

A. A contagious condition caused by the lack of phenylalanine
B. A Hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanie
C. An acquired condition caused by the lack of phenylalanine
D. An inherited condition caused by the lack of thyroid hormone

A

B

97
Q

You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV in both arms. Which of the following locations is the best place to draw the specimens?

A. Above an IV
B. Below an IV
C. From an ankle vein
D. From an IV

A

B

98
Q

Which government agency regulated the quality of gloves worn when performing phlebotomy procedures?

A. CDC/HICPAC
B. FDA
C. JCAHO
D. OSHA

A

B

CMA Tests (5 decks)

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