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CMA 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following terms is used to indicate a heart rate below 60 beats per minute?

A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Irregular
D. Hypertensive

A

A

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2
Q

When a strong antigen invades the body, which type of immunity will develop?

A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following is type of wound in which a tissue is hanging as a flap or is torn tissue?

A. Abrasion
B. Avulsion
C. Puncture
D. Laceration

A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following terms describes the study and science of the ear and its diseases?

A. Audiometry
B. Ophthalmology
C. Tympanology
D. Otology

A

C

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5
Q

Which membrane separate the external auditory meatus from the middle ear cavity?

A. Tympanic
B. Conjunctiva
C. Cerumen
D. Ossicle

A

A

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6
Q

Which of the following is the longest and strongest bone in the body?

A. Radius
B. Humerus
C. Tibia
D. Femur

A

D

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7
Q

Red bone marrow produces which of the following?

A. Vitamin K
B. Protein
C. Platelets
D. Lymphocytes

A

C

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8
Q

Pleurisy is a condition that affects which anatomical structure?

A. Lungs
B. Trachea
C. Bronchial tubes
D. Peritoneum

A

A

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9
Q

What is the basic building blocks of all living things?

A. Organ
B. Tissue
C. Cell
D. Nerve

A

C

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10
Q

The thoracic cavity contains which of the following anatomical structures?

A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Gallbladder
D. Ureters

A

B

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11
Q

Which of the following combining word form means “internal organs?”

A. Kary/o
B. Eti/o
C. Viscer/o
D. Epitheli/o

A

B

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12
Q

What is the combine word from “lei/o” defined as ?

A. Fat
B. Flesh
C. Smooth
D. Striated

A

C

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13
Q

Which anatomical structure secretes sweat and arises from the dermis?

A. Follicle
B .Keratin
C. Sebaceous gland
D. Sudoriferous gland

A

D

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14
Q

Which id the following terms to the “true” skin?

A. Epidermis
B. Keratin
C. Dermis
D. Subcutaneous

A

C

1st layer - epidermis (mostly dead skin)
2nd layer - dermis (Composed of living cells)

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15
Q

Which prefix means “beside, beyond, around”?

A. Para-
B. Epi -
C. Peri-
D. Intra-

A

A.

para is a prefix of direction

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16
Q

Which suffix means “berry shaped?”

A. -coccus
B. -bacilli
C. -tome
D. -rrhagia

A

C

Coccus is used to describe a round bacterium

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17
Q

Which suffix means “to view?”

A. -tome
B. -opsy
C. -phagia
D. -plasty

A

B

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18
Q

What is the diagnostic term “seborrhea”, defined as?

A. Dry skin
B. Excessive discharge of oil
C. Abnormal scarring of the skin
D. Wrinkles

A

B

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19
Q

Which diagnostic term means “bruise”?

A. Contusion
B. Carbuncle
C. Keloid
D. Laceration

A

A

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20
Q

“Fissure” is the diagnostic term of which following conditions?

A. Painful bacterial skin growth
B. Scar
C. Crack-like split in the skin
D. Infected carbuncle

A

C

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21
Q

Which medical term is used to describe “pinpoint skin hemorrhages”?

A. Purpura
B. Verruca
C. Erythoderma
D. Petechia

A

D

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22
Q

Which of the following condition causes a yellowing of the skin?

A. Jaundice
B. Erythema
C. Keloid
D. Vesicle

A

A

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23
Q

Food and air move through which of the following organs?

A. Trachea
B. Pleura
C. Pharynx
D. Esophagus

A

C

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24
Q

Where are the vocal cords are located?

A. Pharynx
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Esophagus

A

C

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25
Q

Which temperature reading of someone’s body temperature is considered to be the most accurate?

A. oral
B. rectal
C. Tympanic (aural)
D. Axillary

A

B

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26
Q

Which of the following would you NOT take when measuring a patient’s vital signs?

A. Temperature
B. Respiration Rate
C. Blood pressure
D. Weight

A

D

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27
Q

What is the normal range for normal respiratory rates for adults?

A. 10-16 per minute
B. 12-20 per minute
C. 18-30 per minute
D. 30-40 per minute

A

B

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28
Q

Which of the following term refers to absence or cessation of breathing?

A. Eupnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoxia
D. Apnea

A

D

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29
Q

What is the name of the blood pressure reading for the force with which blood is pushed against arterial walls upon the heart ventricles contraction?

A. Diastolic
B. Pulse pressure
C. Systolic
D. Venous

A

C

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30
Q

Which of the following methods of examination uses slight or forcible pressure applied by the tips of fingers, the whole hand, or both hands to the body part?

A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation

A

A

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31
Q

Which of the following methods of examination uses some fingers to tap the body lightly or sharply to determine the density, size and position of underlying organs?

A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation

A

C

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32
Q

A stethoscope is usually used in which method of examination?

A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation

A

D

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33
Q

When a physician is going to perform a sigmoidoscopy, the clinical medical assistant would most commonly place the patient in which position?

A. Supine
B. Semi-Fowler
C. Sims
D. Prone

A

B

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34
Q

Exposure to sunlight is considered adequate for adults as source for which of the following?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

A

C

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35
Q

What statement is TRUE about the border of a sterile field?

A. The one inch border is considered nonsterile
B. The entire border is sterile
C. You may touch the border if you wear sterile gloves
D. You may touch with a sterile intrument

A

A

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36
Q

Which therapy is used in the treatment of acne, psoriasis, pressure sores, and wound infections?

A. Diathermy
B. Ultrasound
C. Electromyography
D. Ultraviolet light

A

D

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37
Q

Which of the following uses high-frequency waves to penetrate deep tissue layers?

A. Cryotherapy
B. Diathermy
C. Ultrasound
D. Electromyography

A

C.

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38
Q

Which of the following measures the specific electrical activity in a muscle as a result of nerve conduction?

A. Electromyography
B. Diathermy
C. Ultrasound
D. Cryography

A

A

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39
Q

Which type a shock is the result of extracellular fluid loss. as seen in extensive contusions or loss of plasma from large burned areas?

A. Hemorrhagic
B. Hypovolemic
C. Traumatic
D. Septic

A

C

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40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign a symptom of shock?

A. Perspiration
B. Lowered BP
C. Higher respiratory rate
D. Strong, slow pulse

A

D

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41
Q

What is the first method used to control severe bleeding?

A. Elevation
B. Direct Pressure
C. Pressure point method
D. Tourniquet application

A

B

42
Q

Which degree of burn is usually painless at frist?

A. 1st degree
B. 2nd Degree
C. 3rd degree
D. 4th degree

A

C

43
Q

Which type of fat increases the risk of heart diseases?

A. Polyunsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Monounsaturated
D. Fat from olives

A

B

44
Q

Which of the following vitamins are fat-soluble?

A. A+B
B. B+C
C. D+B
D. A, D, E, K

A

D

45
Q

Which type of mail requires your signature when delivered to you?

A. Priority
B. Express
C. Certified
D. First class

A

C

46
Q

Upon receiving the postal mail at the office, the SMA sorts it. Which type of mail receives top priority?

A. Physician’s personal main
B. Insurance payments (RA)
C. Patient personal payments
D. Patient laboratory test results

A

D

47
Q

If the provider of medical services wishes to discontinue care to a noncompliant patient, which US postal classification should be used the notify the patient?

A. Priority
B. First-class
C. Registered
D. Certified, with return receipt

A

D

48
Q

What is the term describing the process of sharing data by linking two or more computers?

A. Formatting
B. Inserting
C. Network
D. Encrypting

A

C

49
Q

What is the term of moving through document information on the computer monitor, either vertically or horizontally?

A. Formatting
B. Proofing
C. Pagain
D. Scrolling

A

D

50
Q

Which of the following actions prevents unauthorized computer access to any patient records and/or office financial records?

A. Assignment of user password
B. Keeping all information on computer
C. Locking each computer when not in use
D. Using a backup system

A

A

51
Q

When a hard copy of a computer file is needed, you must perform which of following actions?

A. Scan the information
B. Reformat the information
C. Print the information
D. Fax the information

A

C

52
Q

If the physicians is running behind in his or her patient appointment, the CMA should explain the delay to waiting patients if it is in excess of how many minute?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25

A

C

53
Q

After a one year absence, a patient returns to your office for a physical examination. The CMA should re-verify which of the following?

A. Home address
B. Place of employement
C. Home telephone number
D. All of these answers

A

D

54
Q

What is the best reason for the CMA to check examination room supplies throughout the day?

A. Maintenance of office professionalism
B. Prevention of staff inconvenience
C. Minimizing any interruption in patient flow
D. Cost effectiveness

A

C

55
Q

You must personally escort which type of patient to the examination room?

A. Established
B. Inexperienced
C. Regular patients
D. All of the these answers

A

D

56
Q

When scheduling an appointment for a new patient, which of the following is the most important information to consider?

A. Employer
B. SSN
C. Address of referring physician
D. Chief complaint

A

D

57
Q

How should you schedule appointments for the patient who habitually arrives up an hour late for scheduled appointed times?

A. At the beginning of the afternoon appts
B. Midafternoon on Friday
C. At the beginning of the day
D. At the end of the day

A

D

58
Q

The CMA should do which of the following when a patient does not show up for an appt?

A. CMA should submit a claim for missed appt to the insurance company
B. Document the failed appt. in the chart patient’s chart
C. Charge a cancellation fee only
D. Charge the full fee due for the booked appt.

A

B

59
Q

When does double booking occur?

A. Booking 1 patient for 2 physicians
B. Booking 2 patients for 2 providers
C. Booking 2 patients for 1 provider
D. Booking 1 patient for 2 procedure.

A

C

60
Q

When through the day’s office schedule has no buffer times available which patient would tou have to fit into the day’s schedule?

A. 16 year old who needs school sport physical
B. 17 year old teenager who has signs and symptoms of mononucleosis
C. 21 year requires pre-externship exam for MCA externship
D. 50 year old who requires a Pre-Op H+P exam for scheduled surgical procedure.

A

D

61
Q

To achieve minimal disruption the daily schedule while accommodating acutely ill patients, what should the clinical medical assistant do?

A. Refer those patients to the nearest hosptial
B. Leave “buffer” times in the appointment schedule
C. Change the schedule matrix
D. Double book those patients

A

B

62
Q

Which of the following do you NOT need to know in order to complete the matrix before scheduling any appointment?

A. When the physicians perform procedure in hospital
B. When the patient prefer to set up appointments
C. Days and times the provider will be working at the satellite office location
D. Vacation dates for the physicians

A

B

63
Q

A schedule patient calls the office to change the date and time of the appointment. What do you need to do?

A. Delete the patient’s name from the original appointments and place it in the new date and time slot
B. Take the opportunity to remind the patients of any past due balance
C. Note the reason for the cancellation on the patient’s medical records
D. Tell the patient that he or she may not reschedule a 2nd time

A

A

64
Q

What is the most important reason for documenting all appointment “no show” in each patient’s medical records?

A. To provide risk management
B. To provide billing documentation for office time set aside for the patient’s appt.
C. To track the “no show” for the patient
D. To remind the office to call and reschedule the patient

A

A

65
Q

The office appt book must provide space for recording all patient information EXCEPT which of the following?

A. Patient’s address
B. Patient’s reason for visit
C. Patient’s name
D. Patient’s daytime number

A

A

66
Q

Which of the following are the most common types of medical records?

A. Emergency, office, hospital
B. New, Established, destroyed
C. Active, Inactive, closed
D. Active, Inactive, dead

A

C

67
Q

Medical office procedure records are most likely filed using which of the following system?

A. Alphabetic
B. Account Number
C. Numeric
D. Subjective

A

A

68
Q

A patient in the military has been stationed overseas for three years. Where is your files would you most likely find the record?

A. Dead files
B. Closed files
C. Active files
D. Inactive files

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following filing system provides the greatest amount of confidentiality?

A. Category
B. Numeric
C. Condition
D. Alphabetic

A

B

70
Q

Of the following, which is considered subjective information within the medical records?

A. Diagnosis
B. Examination Review
C. Family History
D. Treatment

A

C

71
Q

A new patient arrives for his or her appointment and provides DOB, Home address and phone number, place of employment, and health insurance carrier. What is this information referred to as?

A. Hard copy
B. Subjective
C. Demographic
D. Default

A

C

72
Q

Which of the following is the most practical method of filing warranties, tax information, medical reports, office insurance premium payments and medical pamphlets?

A. Alphabetic filing
B. Chronologic Filing
C. Tickler filing
D. Subjective filing

A

D

73
Q

Within a patient’s medical record, in which way should the various reports and examination records be filled?

A. Chronologically with the lastest on top
B. Chronologically with the lastest on the bottom
C. With lab report on top and examination records on he bottom
D. Randomly through the record.

A

A

74
Q

Antibiotics will not cure the common cold because it caused by which of the following?

A. Toxoid
B. Virus
C. Bacteria
D. Antibody

A

B

75
Q

Which type of fungus causes thrush?

A. Tinea
B. Toxoid
C. Rickettsia
D. Candida albicans

A

D

76
Q

Which kind of blood study includes examining the blood for its total number of formed elements and cell morphology?

A. Serology
B. Immunohematolgy
C. Hematology
D. Hematocrit

A

C

77
Q

Which of the following best describes the type of analysis used when processing blood for transfusions?

A. Hematological
B. Clinical Chemical
C. Serological
D. Immunohematological

A

D

78
Q

Which test determines the degree of inflammation in the body?

A. ESR
B. Blood banking
C. Hematocrit
D. Bleeding time

A

A

79
Q

Which type if urine specimen, collected in a sterile container, is best for bacterial culture testing?

A. Random
B. Clean-catch midstream
C. Fasting sample
D. 24-hour

A

B

80
Q

If the color of a urine specimen is noted to be dark yellow, which of the following may the possible cause be?

A. Drinking excessive amounts of water
B. Dehydration
C. Old disintegrated blood clots
D. Kidney trauma

A

B

81
Q

Of the following list, which urine specimen would contain the highest solute concentration?

A. 1st morning
B. Random
C. Fasting
D. Clean-catch midstream

A

A

82
Q

Which of the following is approximately the normal range for the specific gravity of urine?

A. 1.005-1.030
B. 1.020-1.030
C. 1.000-1.015
D. 1.003-1.040

A

A

83
Q

What is the usual acidic pH of freshly voided normal urine from well patients

A. 7.0
B. 8.0
C. 6.0
D. 3.5

A

C

84
Q

What is the average quantity of urine produced by an adult over 24-hour period?

A. 750 mL
B. 1,000mL
C. 1, 250mL
D. 2,000mL

A

C

85
Q

Which of the following sites is most commonly used in venipuncture to withdraw blood?

A. median cubital vein
B. Femoral vein
C. Median radial vein
D. Basilica vein

A

A

86
Q

What is the female normal value range for a hematocrit reading?

A. 20%-35%
B. 32%-41%
C. 37%-47%
D. 42%-52%

A

C

87
Q

Blood would be used for what of testing if it was collected in a vacuum tube containing no additive?

A. Hematology test
B. Electrolyte studies
C. Blood chemistries
D. Arterial blood gases

A

C

88
Q

Blood would be used for what kind of testing if it was collected in a vacuum tube containing EDTA?

A. Hematology test
B. Blood chemistries
C. Coagulations studies
D. Lactic analysis

A

A

89
Q

Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A. O positive
B. O Negative
C. AB Positive
D. AB negative

A

C

90
Q

Which of the following on an ECG reflects the depolarization of the atria of the heart?

A. QRS wave
B. P-R interval
C. P Wave
D. T-Wave

A

C

91
Q

Which of the following on an ECG reflect ventricular heart depolarization?

A. T wave
B. U wave
C. P-R interval
D. QRS wave

A

D

92
Q

Which of the following is the universal standard speed for recording an ECG?

A. 20 mm/sec
B. 25 mm/sec
C. 30 mm/sec
D. 35 mm/sec

A

B

93
Q

Which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart?

A. SA node
B. Left bundle branch ( LB)
C. bundle of HIS ( BH)
D. atrioventricular node (AV)

A

A

94
Q

What is the purpose of performing a specific gravity on a urine sample?

A. It determines whether the patient’s diet is high in fat.
B. It measures it density when compared with distilled water
C. It screens for glomerulonephritis
D. It detects the presence of nitrate in the urine.

A

B

95
Q

Which of the following ensures test result accuracy by monitoring the test procedure performed in the medical office?

A. MSDS
B. OSHA regulations
C. Quality control programs
D. Medical Practice Act

A

C

96
Q

Which of the following commonly used disinfectants is used the medical field and found to be effective against blood borne pathogens?

A. Radiation
B. Bleach
C. Dry Heat
D. Ethylene oxide

A

B

97
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate method for disposing of contaminated needles?

A. Insert in the biohazard container located in the office lab.
B. Place in the biohazard container without recapping
C. Place it in a biohazard sharps container located in the room where used.
D. Disengage the needle from the syringe, and dispose of it the biohazard sharps container

A

C

98
Q

Which of the following is the most important step in achieving medical asepsis?

A. Washing hands
B. Using surgical soap to scrub hands
C. Cleaning patient examination rooms with disinfectant
D. Placing soiled linens in an appropriate bag as soon as possible

A

A

99
Q

Which of the following solutions will help prevent the transmission of hepatitis?

A. Fluconazole
B. Household bleach
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Isopropyl alcohol

A

B

100
Q

How often should quality control tests be done for procedures performed in the office?

A. Yearly
B. Every 6 months
C. Monthly
D. Daily

A

D

CMA Tests (5 decks)

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