CM Renal Flashcards

1
Q

what is the total body sodium?

why is this an approximation?

A

amount of sodium measure in the ECF, it is a approximation because although most of the Na is in ECF, some is still in the ICF, and the total body sodium doesn’t account for this

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2
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms that are used to regulate Na in the body?

A
  1. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system: receptors in juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney sense renal perfusion and respond by releasing renin leading to angiotensin II production and aldosterone which causes Na/H2o reabsorption at the kidneys

2. volume receptors: in atria and great veins sensitive to small changes in venous and arterial pressure, if the volume gets too high they secrete atrial natriuretic factor that promotes Na secretion

3. pressure receptors: in the aorta and carotid sinus, pressure drop it activates these to activate the sympathetic nervous system and leads to renal retention of sodium

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3
Q

what happens to the excretion of Na in these senarios:

  1. if ECFV increases?
  2. if ECFV decreases?
A

if ECFV increases: activation of mechanism to increase Na excretion

if ECFV decreases: activation of mechanism to decrease Na excretion

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4
Q

volume overload

what is it caused by and what is the main influencer? what are four things you might find on PE?

what are two conditions this is common with?

A

increase in total body f_luid/Na, mostly controlled by sodium_ TOO MUCH SODIUM

PE: increase weight, edema, ascites, pulmonary edema

often seen with HF, cirrohsis

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5
Q

volume depletion

what is this caused by and what is the main thing that influences this? what are 6 things you can find one PE? what are 3 main causes of this?

A

H2o/Na lost, TOO LITTLE SODIUM so fluid follows

PE: weight loss, tachycardia, postural hypotension, thirst from stimulation of ADH, dry membranes, decreased skin tugor

causes: vomiting/diarrhea, sweating

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6
Q

dehydration

what is this and waht does it cause?

A

volume depletion with disproportionate free water deficit, can lead to increase Na osmolarity

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7
Q

what is the most common cause of dehydration worldwide?

A

diarreah

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8
Q

osmolarity

what is this determined by?

what are the three main contributors and how does each one influence osmolarity?

A

determined by the total solute concentration in a fluid compartment

three maine solutes considered in renal:

Na: increased ADH and thirst

glucose: severely elvated in uncontolled diabetes mellitus causes increase in hyperonicity of serum and so causes fluid to leave the cells into intravascular

urea: doesn’t move water, but contributes to TOTAL osmolarity of the blood

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9
Q

what is the equation for OSMOLARITY?

what is the biggest influencing component of this equation?

what does it tell you?

A

osmolarity= 2 [Na] + [glucose]/18 + [BUN]/2.8

sodium concencentration is the major contributor in this equation so most accurately reflect the serum osmolarity

abnormalities in the Na levels tell us there are abnormalities in the regulation of the amount of water in the ECF

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10
Q

tonicity

what is this a measure of? what does it cause?

if this increases what does it most likely reflect an increase in? why?

A

ability of the combined effect of all the solutes to generate an osmotic driving force that causes water movement from one compartment to another “aka a concentration gradient”

if tonicity increases it means that the concentration of Na has increased, because this is one of the main driving factors for this concentration gradient

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11
Q

why does a hyptonic/hypertonic solution important when talking about brain cells?

A

rapid increase in ECFV (hypotonic): causes brain cells to swell

rapid decrease in ECFV (hypertonic): causes brain cells to shrink

**this is really important because these cells are influenced heavily by ECF and are the first to be effected so neurological changes are what you are concerned with here!**

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12
Q

increased serum tonicity

what happens to Na?

What happens to H20 excretion?

urine?

A

hypertonic solution

increased Na

decreased H20 excretion

urine becomes relatively concentrated (since the water is being sucked out!)

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13
Q

decreased serum tonicity

what happens to Na?

What happens to H20 excretion?

urine?

A

hypotonic blood

has decreased Na

increase H20 excretion

urine is relatively dilute (since more water is being excreted)

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14
Q

the process of adjusting the tonicity/osmolarity (concentrating/diluting) of the serum is dependent on which four things?

A
  1. adequate eGFR
  2. filtrate delivery to the concentrating and diluting segments of the loop of henle and distal nephron
  3. appropriate turning on/off of ADH
  4. ADH responsiveness to the kidney
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15
Q

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

what does this represent?

what percent to kidneys start having issues doing both?

if low what does this lead to?

what is it effected by?

A

represents the ability of the kidneys to concentrate and dilute the urine

20% is where kidney start to have issues with BOTH adequate concentration and dilution

if low, leads to azotemia

affected by age, sex, weight, fluid status

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16
Q

explains what happens in the renal concentrating (refers to what happens in the urine) mechanism? what allows this to happen?

A

occurs when water needs to be reabsorbed

  1. 20-30% of Na is reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of henle creating a hypertonic medullary interstitium and concentration gradient that is necessary to concentrate the urine
  2. the hypertonic medullary interstitium allows for water to be pulled out from the descending limb of henle and the the collecting tubule
  3. as water is pulled out, esp from the collecting tubule, the filtrate becomes more concentrated
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17
Q

renal diluting (urine) mechanism

what causes this to occur?

A

ascending loop of henle and distal convoluted tubule transport Na from the tubule to the lumen to the blood

net result is more dilute urine because you are taking the Na out of it

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18
Q

creatinine

what is creatinine? is this a good test?

what are the levels you should know?

when does this go up quickly?

A

.06-1.2

breakdown of muscle energy metabolism

good indicator of glomerular filtration

better test than bun

if greater than 40 indicates prerenal axotemia

if less than 20 indicates intrinsic renal failure

**creatinine goes up quickly in acutre renal failure due to ischemia and radiocontrast**

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19
Q

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

what is this a product of?

why isn’t this as good of a test as creatinine?

A

8-20

end product of protein metbolism

some gets reabsorbed after being filtered so not such a great test as creatinine

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20
Q

explain the relationship between creatinine and BUN?

A

BUN and creatinine both measure kidney function because they are a measure of the f_iltration at the glomerulus_

these are both blood tests! so if these increase it means that they aren’t being filtered by the kidneys and something is wrong

creatinine is the better measure of this because it isn’t reabsorbed after being filtered

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21
Q

what is the most common symptoms you see with electrolyte imbalances?

A

neuromuscular

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22
Q

if you have a pt with neuromuscular symptoms, what should you always check?

A

electrolytes!!

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23
Q

what are four things you must include as part of your clinical evaluation if suspecting electrolyte imbalances?

A

EVALUATE:

  1. neurological status
  2. volume status
  3. metabolic/renal status
  4. osmolarity
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24
Q

hyponatremia

what is this defined by?

what are two things you need to access?

what volemias can this occur with?

what is the most common cause of this?

A

definition: Na less than 130

volune status and osmolarity essential for clarification

can be hypo, hyper, euvolemic hyponatremia

**most often results from H20 imbalance (from increase ADH secretion) not Na imblanace AKA, you increase water so the Na looks more**

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25
Q

ADH/vasopressin

what does this do? where does it alter permeability?

when is it released (3)? what does it decrease?

how does it effect the urine?

A

regulates the body’s retention of water by increasing water reabsorption in the kidney collecting ducts

increases the permeability of the renal collecting tubule and allows water to freely move down its concentration gradient into the hypertonic medullary interstitium

released in response to:

  1. decrease in blood volume
  2. decrease in BP
  3. increase in ECF osmolarity

this increases water reabsorption and a decrease in the tonicity of ECFV

concentrates the urine since all the water has been pulled out

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26
Q

what are the two main drivers of ADH/vasopressin release?

explain what happens in each

A
  1. osmolarity

a. if small increase in osmolarity of the EVFC (# of particles in serum)-ADH secreted to decrease osmolarity and Na (increasing the reabsorption of water a little bit)
b. similarly if you have too much water in the blood and a decrease in osmolarity, then ADH will stop secreting, get a brief diuresis and will return osmolarity to normal
2. intravascular pressure

if large decrease in intravasular volume (5-10%) with decrease in BP also results in ADH release mediated by baro-receptors in circulation and free H2o is retained leading to hypoNa because there is an rapid increase in the proportion of water to Na

****this OVERIDES osmolarity since maintaining BP and profusion is the most important!!!****

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27
Q

explain how loops and thiazides work?

what do each excrete?

where do they work?

what happens to ECF?

are they contracindicated in anyone?

A

Both block Na reabsorption, resulting in sodium loss from the body, since fluid follows sodium, you also get a decrease in the ECFV

LOOPS:

  1. greater loss of BOTH Na and H20 than Thiazides
  2. block Na in the ascending loop of Henle where 20-30% of Na is reabsorbed

3 cause proportional loss of Na/H20 so ECF is left undisturbed

THIAZIDES:

  1. block Na in the distal convoluted tubule where 5-10% of Na is reabsorbed
  2. more Na is excreted than H20
  3. since more H20 left in the ECF, this means there is a increased H20 to Na ratio and can lead to hyponateremia (by dilution)

**this is why thiazides are contraindicated in people with hyponateremia**

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28
Q

suggestions for clinical evaluation:

if abnormal volemia:

if abnormal Na concentration:

**where do you look for the problem?**

A

if abnormal volemia: look for issues with the Na

if abnormal Na concentration: look for issues with failed water control mechanisms

***Take away: identify the abnormality and then look for the reason in the opposit branch…this is likely where you will find it***

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29
Q

hypertonic saline injection

what does this do?

A

increases sodium concentration in the blood, causes water to leave from the cells into the intravasculature to dilute the increased sodium load and prevent hypernatremia

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30
Q

hypotonic saline injection

what does this cause?

A

dilutes the intravasculature, so it moves out and into the cells causing the cells to swell and prevents hyponatermia in the blood

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31
Q

isotonic saline injection

what does this cause?

A

same concentration as the cells so it doesn’t cause a fluid shift and the intravascular volume will simply increase, typically use this type

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32
Q

what is important to consider when selecting an IV solution?

if you choose the wrong one what is the worst case senario that this can cause?

A

Because if they are corrected to rapidly with IV fluids the brain does not have time to re-equilibrate this is known as osmotic demyelination syndrome where there are dramatic fluid shifts that take place between the cells in the brain and the surrounding fluid***

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33
Q

how are volemias accessed?

A

ON PHYSICAL EXAM BY LOOKING AT THE PATIENT!!!

**this explains why euvolemic patients, despite the movement of fluid, aren’t hypovolemic or hypervolemic because it must be enough that you can SEE it on physical exam….slightly misleading**

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34
Q

hypervolemia

what is this caused by?

what are 2 senarios that cause this in relationship to Na?

A

secondary to fluid overload

  1. IV solution generated hypernatremia
  2. internally generated hyponatremia from CHF, cirrohosis, or nephrotic syndrome

“giving the patient too much Na because it causes the H20 to come back and increase volume or a condition that causes there to be too much fluid in the patient from failed organs”

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35
Q

hypovolemia

what are the PE of a patient with this?

what are the two general categories of causes?

1

4

how do you distinguish between these two causes?

A

dry mucous membranes, tenting

can be either renal or extra renal cauess

renal causes: diuretics

extra-renal causes: diarreah, sweating, blood loss, fluid shifts

****distinguish between these two via urine [Na] test, if urine Na is low then it means the kidneys are functioning properally and the loss is from someplace else, if it is high it means that the kidneys arent functioning properally****

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36
Q

euvolemic

what are two things that contribute to this?

what causes hyperNa (3)?

what causes hypoNa (2)?

what do you need to remember with euvolemic?

A

aberrancies in ADH or changes in water consumption

hyperNa: diabetes insipidus, central diabetes (decrease ADH secretion), nephrogenic (decrease response to ADH)

hypoNa: increased ADH secretion (SIADH), polydipsia

***keep in mind the volumes are actually changing, however not enough for you to be able to pick it up objectively on PHYSICAL EXAM****

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37
Q

hypovolemic hypotonic hyponatremia

what do you loose in this?

what is the mechanism that causes a increase in ADH?

what are the two branches of causes?

2

2

what do you use to determine the cause and the values?

what are the two tx options and who are they appropriate for?

A

Loss of water AND Na, but more Na loss than water

“decreased Na with decreased ECF”

ADH SECRETION INCREASED TO MAINTAIN INTRAVASCULAR VOLUME WHICH OVERIDES THE NEED TO MAINTAIN OSMOLARITY

must determine if:

1. renal: diuretics/salt wasting

2. non-renal: GI loss vomiting, diarrhea

**determine this based on urine!!**

less than 10= Na retention of kidneys working, so NOT KIDNEYS

greater than 20= renal Na wasting, so KIDNEYS

Tx:

  1. Isotonic fluids IV (normal saline .9% or ringers lactate) +KCL(it will stay in the intravascular space to maintain BP and shut off ADH secretion via intravascular pressure)
  2. electrolyte drink “gatorade” +KCL (if mild and oral intake intact)
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38
Q

hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia

explain what happens in this and what it is associated with for conditions (3)? what makes this worse? is this difficult to treat? why? what are the 3 tx options?

A

hyponatremia caused by INCREASE IN EXTRACELLULAR FLUID

“body basically tricked into thinking it need more volume since the kidneys aren’t being profused, so it activates RAAs and ADH which makes the problem worse”

Edema related conditions: CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

total body Na/H2O are increased but circulating blood volume is sensed as inadequate by baroreceptors because of decreased CO and decreased BP decreased renal perfusion leads to increased ADH and activation of RAA system

TX: difficult since associated with organ failure

1. water restriction

2. treat underlying condition

  1. diuretics
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39
Q

explain how

HF
cirrhosis

nephrotic syndrome

cause

hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia

***whats something you would see in the urine***

A

HF: less forward flow so causes a decrease in BP and intravascular pressure

cirrhosis: blood pools in the blood mesenteric

nephrotic syndrome: stenosis so less profusion

urine: less Na in the urine since all of it is being absorbed

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40
Q

euvolemic hyptonic hyponatremia

why is this euvolemic?

what 2 things do yo uneed to dx?

what are the 3 requirements?

what are 7 causes of this?

A

decreased Na with slight changes in volume that can’t be detected on PE

NEED URINE Na AND OSMOALITY TO DX

1. hyponatremia

2. decreased serum osmoality less than 280

3. high urine osmoality greater than 150

**peeing it out when it should be absorbed**

  1. syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
  2. post-op hyponatremia
  3. psychogenic polydipsia
  4. stroke
  5. tumors
  6. pulmonary lesions (TB, lung abcess)
  7. SSRIs
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41
Q

syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

what is this and when does it happen?

what happens to the urine?

what is the urine concentration of Na?

what two tests are low?

tx if symptomatic (1) or asymptomatica (2)?

A

if ADH secretion is occurring to a point of creating hyponatremia (absorbing too much) then it is clearing being inappropriately over secreted

absence of cardiac, liver, renal, adrenal or thyroid disease

urine becomes extremely concentrated since the over secretion of ADH causes the water to be reabsorbed in the collecting duct

urine Na>20 since water being absorbed and urine is concentrated

serum BUN and UA are low since increased clearance

TX:

symptomatic with Na <120

MEDICAL EMERGENCY

1. hypertonic saline (has a lot of Na), monitor Na every 2 hours, no MUST DO SLOWLY <10-12 a day

  1. if asymptomatic:

H20 restriction

demeclocycline/tolvaptan(clock ADH receptors so you stop getting water)

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42
Q

post-op hyponatremia

what is this caused by?

what makes this situation worse?

what is the tx? (2)

A

post-up pain increases ADH secretion (dilutes Na)

to make it worse: if patient receives inappropriate administration of hypotonic fluids, results can be severe symptomatic hyponatremia (N, HA, seizures, etc)

tx:

pain control with administration of isotonic fluids until patient can take adequate fluids orally

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43
Q

psychogenic polydipsia causing euvolemic hyponatremia

what is is this caused by?

how do they maintain euvolemic?

ADH levels, urine osmolarity?

Na in urine?

A

drink excessive amounts of water because of psych >10 L/d

despite drinking excess amounts of fluids, they just pee out the excess because their kidneys work

becomes a problem if they take SSRIs that block te water excretion

ADH levels low, urine osmolarity low(dilute from peeing so much)

urine Na >20

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44
Q

how do you determine between increase urination from diabetes insipidus and psychogenic polydipsia?

A

both have increased urinary frequency

******NEED TO CHECK THE SERUM Na CONCENTRATION***

polydipsia: leads to INCREASE in plasma volume leads to HYPONATREMIA, however since peeing function works still peeing off the volume

diabetes insipidus: leads to DECREASED intravascular volume and thus INCREASED serum sodium levels HYPERNATEREMIA

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45
Q

hypertonic hyponatremia

what 4 things can cause this?

what is this and how does it relate to the osmolarity equation?

why is this unlike the other types of hyponatremia?

A

osmarlity in the serum is dependent on Na, glucose and urea based on the osmolarity equation= 2x[Na] +[glucose]/18+ [urea]/2.8, under NORMAL circumstances the Na plays the biggest role in determining osmolarity

EXCEPTION: an increase in GLUCOSE (think diabetics), lipids, proteins or urea could raise the serum osmolality pulling water into the intravascular space to re-equilibrate things

although Na doesn’t change in these situations, because of the increase of other particles, as the water moves into the space it

****This is an exception because****

hyponatremia is caused by a osmolarity INCREASE (others caused by decrease)

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46
Q

hypertonic hyponatremia caused by diabetic circumstances

what causes this?

how does this cause hyponatremia?

what blood sugar do you worry about this?

what is the Tx for this?

A

the rapid increase in glucose causes the osmolarity in the blood to increase according to the osmolarity increase

acute rise inf BS increases osmolarity water is drawn from cells into extracellular space resulting in dilution of Na and hyponatremia

glucose above 200 Na

levels start to fall

TX:

insulin infusion and volume expansion

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47
Q

hyponatremia and HIV/AIDS

what percent of hospitalized with AIDS have hypoNa?

what is this often seen with?

A

50% of pts hospitalized with AIDS have hypoNa

often comes from CNS/pulmonary involvment seen with HIV infections

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48
Q

hypernatremia

what is a common demoninator in nearly all of these cases?

what is the serum Na level associated with this?

who does this often occur in?

why can they be confused or lethargic?

A

generally doesn’t develop in an alert person since they have intact thirst mechanism and access to water, inadequate intake of water is therefore a common denominator in nearly all cases of hyperNa

serum sodium greater than 145

often occurs in elderly since they have diminished sensitivity to thirst as older, esp in setting of pulmonary or UTI

as water is lost, Na concentration increases so water shifts out of the brain cells to establish osmotic equilibrium and brain cells shrink, pt can become lethargic or even comatosed

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49
Q

hypernatremia:

explain the two main branches of this?

1.

hallmark

why don’t this work?

3 main causes?

2.

what does it decrease?

4 causes?

what can’t person do?

A

hypernatremia

renal cause with dilute urine

hallmark: polyuria with greater than 3L in 24 hours

inability of kidneys to conserve water appropriately

  1. diabetes insipidus
  2. central diabetes insipidus
  3. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

hypernatremia with extrarenal cause concentrated urine

MOST COMMON and get decrease ECFV

causes: fever, profuse sweating, diarrheah, hyperventialation

greater deficiency in water increases the concentration of the sodium and the person can’t appropriately replace water loss

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50
Q

hypernatremia with concentrated urine

(hypovolemic)

what is the typical presentation of a pt with this?

why can’t the pt fix this?

what are two signs?

what is the urine osm? ADH?

how do you tx and over how long?

why do you need to be cautious?

A

“stranded in dessert/lost at sea”

unusual with intact thirst mechanism and access to H20, but in this case no H2o intake possible, even with increased ADH levels

signs: orthostatic hypotension, dehydration comes from excessive sweating, GI, and respiratory tract without a way to replenish
lab: greater than 400 urine osm with intact renal function, ADH levels increased

TX:

  1. replace water and electrolytes over 48-72 hours
  2. .9% saline followed by .45% saline

***replace water slowly to prevent cerebral edema since brain has been adapted to hyperosmolality, theyve gotten used to being shrunk so don’t want to give them too much water too quickly because they will swell quickly***

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51
Q

hypernatremia with dilute urine (euvolemic)

what is the hallmark of this?

what happens in this?

what 3 conditions is this seen in?

what is the Uosm?

2 tx options?

A

hallmark: greater 3L urine in 24 hours

inability of kidneys to conserve water appropriately so you urinate more than you should witout uptaking enough to equal out the hyperNa

seen in:

  1. central diabetes insipidus
  2. nephrogenic diabetes insipidis
  3. congenital nephrogenic insipidis

decreased osmolarity less than 250 uosm

Tx:

  1. D5W-replace H20 without Na
  2. .45% saline- for hyperNa and hyperglycemia
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52
Q

hypernatremia with dilute urine

central diabetes insipidus

what causes this?

why does hyperNa occur?

what 4 things is this associated with?

what is the diagnostic test?

treatment?

A

lack of ADH/AVP production by the posterior pituitary or loss of ADH action

hypernatremia due to free water loss

associated with severe CNS structual lesions or infections, head trauma, or pituiatary surgery

Dx: give them person ADH and see if it increases their H2o intake and equalizes their osmolarity and decreases their urinary frequency, this is a DIAGNOSTIC TEST

Rx: ADH

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53
Q

hypernatremia with dilute urine

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

what causes this?

what are 5 things that can cause a person the acquire this?

how do you tx?

A

acquired

renal insensitivity to ADH

see after relief of prolonged UT obstruction, renal interstitial disease, hypercalcemia, lithium or demeclocycline

**giving ADH doens’t do anyhting for it**

Rx: increase response to ADH

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54
Q

hypernatremia with dilute urine

congenital nephrogenic disease

what do they lack?

A

absence of ASH receptors

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55
Q

hypokalemia

what is K levels maintained by?

what are 5 causes of this?

what are 5 signs of this?

2 tx options?

A

K is the major INTRACELLULAR cation with the gradient maintained by the Na/K pump

oral intake=renal output in a steady state

Causes of hypokalemia:

1. insulin: insulin cause K to move into the cell, so excessive amounts cause hypokalemia

2. RAA systemactivation**: ALDOSTERONE facilitates K excretion **most important regulator of body K conten

  1. diuretics
  2. vomiting/diarrhea/sweat
  3. digoxin
    signs: weakness, muscle cramps, fatigue, constapation EKG NSST-T changes and U waves, PVCS

tx:

  1. mild to mod=oral KCL
  2. severe= IV admin of KCL slowly with cardiac monitoring
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56
Q

hyperkalemia

what are 3 causes of this?

what do you need to confirm?

what are 3 signs you see?

what tx can you give in lifethreatening?

what are 4 other txs?

A

causes:

1. patients with renal insufficiency are at risk

2.renal insufficiency + K sparking diuretics

3. KCl and K sparing diuretics

important to confirm lab results because can be from hemolysis

signs: diarreah, weakness
ekg: PEAKED T waves, widening QRS, increased intervals and loss of P waves KEY!!

TX:

  1. if lifethreatening k greater than 6.6 can give infusion of insulin to drive the K inside to buy time
  2. eliminate KCL or K sparing diuretics
  3. cation exchange resins that exchange Na for K
  4. dialysis for severe renal failure
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57
Q

why is calcium important?

where is it mostly found?

A

50% of it is ionized to help with muscle and nerve function

40% is bound to protein mostly albumin

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58
Q

why is it important to measure serum albumin to determine if Ca is truly deficient?

A

if there is a deficiency of Ca reported it could reflect either the ionized Ca (the one we care about) or the amount bound to albumin

if we check the albumin levels and it is low, it means that the Ca bound to this is low which is the likely source of the Ca deficiency

if the albumin is normal, then it is likely the ionized Ca is low, which is what we care about

**we care about this because it is what allows for muscle and nerve function**

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59
Q

hypocalcemia

what are three causes of this and what is most common?

5 signs of this?

2 ways to test for it?

what EKG changes you see?

what are the 2 tx?

A

MOST COMMON CAUSE IS RENAL FAILURE

(DECREASED VIT D3, INCREASED PHOSPHORUS)

other causes:

  1. hypoparathyroidism
  2. malabsorption
    signs: increased excitation of nerve and muscle cells, cramps, tetant, paresthesias, convulsions

chvosteks sign:tap on facial nerve and you will start twitching on the side of the face you tapped

trousseaus sign: BP cuff inflate for over a min, if you inflate all the way your hand willl start twitching if over 1 minute

EKG: Prolonged QT, arrythmias

ionized Ca less than 4.5

tx:

asymptomatic: oral calcium/vit D
symptomatic: IV calcium gluconate

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60
Q

hypercalcemia

what are 3 cauess of this?

what are 3 signs of this?

what are 3 txs?

what can make this worse and should be prevented?

A

causes:

1. hyperparathyroidism

2. malignancy produce PTH

3. milk-alkali syndrome Ca antacids + vitamind D excess

signs:

  1. polyuria- H20 reabsorption is blocked by hypercalcemia
  2. neuro changes: lethargy, weakness, dowsiness
  3. shorted QT, PVCs

TX:

  1. treat underlining cause
  2. promote Na rich diuresis because Ca will follow
  3. IV infusion 0.9% saline with IV furosemide

**avoid thiazide diuretics, can worsen hypercalcemia**

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61
Q

hypomagnesemia

who is this common in?

why is this a big deal?

what are 4 signs?

2 things it is often associated with?

what are 2 tx?

what should you do in hospitalized pts?

A

very common in hospitalized patients esp for those on diuretics who are receiving continuous IV support

Low Mg potentiates dangerous ventricular cardiac arrythmia esp if K is low

signs: weakness muscle cramps tremors, neuromuscular and CNS hyperirritability

often associated with: hypoK and hypoCa

Tx:

  1. important to check Mg levels in hospitalized pts
  2. IV therapy with MgSO4
  3. oral Mg oxide can be given as supplement
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62
Q

another name for acute renal failure is?

A

acutre renal injury

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63
Q

another name for chronic renal failure is?

A

chronic kidney disease

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64
Q

another name for end stage renal disease is?

A

end stage kidney disease

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65
Q

explain what falls under the two categories of uncomplicated UTI (2)

and

complicated UTI? (6)

A

uncomplicated UTI

  • acute cysitits
  • acute pyelonephritis

complicated UTI

  1. something that makes the more likely to fail treatment
    - obstruction
    - anatomic abnormality

urologic dysfunction

  • MDR uropathogen
    2. pregnant
    3. elderly
    4. children
    5. males
    6. recurrent
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66
Q

Complicated UTI

Pregnancy

what are 3 things its assocaited with?

do you screen?

if positive what must you do (2)?

what is one really key thing to remember about UTI and pregnant women?

A

associated with preterm birth, low birth weight, prenatal mortality

screen in 1st trimester with UC

admit them since dangerous with baby

always check urine culture if asymptomatic because the bacteria in the urine can cause the things under A, if + treat with abx

if they get 2+ positive tests with greater than 100,000 positive tests they they will be on suppressive abx for the remainder of the pregnancy

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67
Q

Complicated UTI

eldery

what are two groups of peopel that are esp susceptible?

what are three things that contribute to the first?

A

postmenopausal women

  1. bladder/uterine prolapse
  2. loss of lactobacilli in vaginal flor allos for E. coli to take over
  3. diabetes (sugar)

benign prostatic hypertrophy

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68
Q

complicated UTI

children

who is this more common in?

3 symptoms?

what is the DOC?

how long do you treat for, two options?

A

white children more common than black children

fever, hematuria, abdominal pain

DOC: 2nd-3rd line cephalosporin

7-14 days if febrile

5 days if immune competent and afebrile

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69
Q

complicated UTI

males

what are two risk factors?

urethra length?

A

unusual for men 15-50

RF: uncircumcised, anal intercourse

antibacterial material in prostatic fluid

18-20 cm urethra

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70
Q

who are UTIs most common in?

what is the most common route of infection?

what are most from?

what isthe pathogenisis of this and what does it RARELY come from?

A

30:1 ratio women to men because women have a significantly short urethra

route of infection: ascending from the urethra

UTI most commonly from uncomplifcated acute cystitis

pathogenisis:

  1. colonization of vaginal introitus by uropathogens from fecal flora ascend from urethra into bladder CYSTITIS
  2. uropathogens ascend from bladder to kidney via ureters

RARELY CAUSED BY SEEDING OF BACTERIA

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71
Q

what are 5 RF for UTI?

A

female sex

frequent sexual intercourse

diaphragm/spermicide use

delayed post-coital micturition (not urinating after intercourse)

hx of UTI

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72
Q

what are four bacteria that cause UTI and which is by far the most common? what percent?

A

e.coli most common 75-95%

proteus mirabilis

klebsiella pneumoniae

enterococcus

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73
Q

what are the difference in symptoms for

cystitis (6)

vs

pyelonephritis? (5)

A

cystitis:

  1. dysuria or burning while urination
  2. increased frequency/urgency
  3. suprapubic pain/discomfort
  4. hematuria
  5. voiding small amounts
  6. AFEBRILE

pyelonephritis

  1. FEBRILE
  2. chils
  3. flank pain
  4. costovertebral tenderness
  5. CBC with left shift
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74
Q

what 3 lab tests are important to do when diagnosiing a UTI?

what do you find on each?

A

1. UDIP

+ leukocyte esterase (product of baceteria)

+ nitrites (conversion of nitrates to nitrites via bacteria)

+WBC

+WBC casts (INDICATES KIDNEY ORIGIN!***)

2. hematuria

3. culture greater than 100,000

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75
Q

what are the DOC fo acute cystitis (4) vs pyelonephritits (2)?

what do you need to note?

A

acute cystitis

DOC1: TMP-SMX

DOC2: CIPRO

DOC3 if pregnant/allergic: Nitrofurantoin

***add pyridium***

acute pyelonephritis

DOC1: ciprofloxacin

DOC2: TMP-SMX

*****NOTE THE DOC FOR FOR THESE TWO ARE DIFFERENT!!!*****

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76
Q

what is the DOC for an inpatient with UTI/pyelonphritis?

A

CIPROFLOXACIN!!

others:

fluoroquinolone, amp+gentamycin, ceftriaxone

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77
Q

what is the most common nosocomial infection in the US? what is the tx protocol with this?

A

cathertized associated UTI

if asymptomatic don’t need to treat with abx

screen urine 48 hours after removing catheter

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78
Q

recurrent UTIs

what are the two definitions of this?

what should you consider?

what about in women with decrease in lactobacillis?

A

3 or more episodes per year confirmed UC OR 2 UTIs in last 6 months

consider self treatment at first sign (urine cup for UC)

vaginal estrogen in women since they have a decrease in lactobacillus

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79
Q

in asymptomatic bacteremia who do you treat (3) and who do you not treat (3)? *key!*

A

treat:

  1. pregnant
  2. before urologic procedures
  3. after renal transplant

DONT TREAT

  1. diabetics
  2. elderly
  3. patients with spinal cord injury or indwelling urethral catheter
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80
Q

do you tx UTI empirically while waiting for culture?

A

YES! then adjust abx as appropriate! :)

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81
Q

Nephrolithiasis

what are the two things you need for the formation of crystals?

what are four risk factors that allows this to happen?

what are the four types of stones?

A

formation is dependent on supersaturation and an environment that allows the stone to grow!

supersaturation risk:

heredity- cystinuria SLC3A1/SLC7A9

environmental

diet

obesity

four types of stones:

  1. calcium oxalate
  2. struvite
  3. uric acid
  4. cystine
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82
Q

nephrolithiasis

calcium oxalate stones

can you see it on a xray?

what is it usually associated with?

what are 4 associated factors?

3 tx options in general?

A

MOST COMMON TYPE OF STONE

  1. RADIOOPAQUE
  2. usually associated with high calcium levels in the blood and urine
  3. contributing factors: excessive bone reabsorption, bone disease, hyperparathyroidism and renal tubular acidosis predispose for these stones

TX:

treat underlying conditions

increased fluid intake

thiazide diuretics

(70-80%)

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83
Q

nephrolathiasis

struvite stone

what 2 things is this associated with?

4 bacteria?

can you pass them?

when do they get bigger?

3 tx options?

A

“staghorn” stones that always associated with UTI and alkaline urine

  1. produced by UTI with urease producing bacteria
  2. proteus, klebsiella, pseudomonas, enterobacter
  3. made of magnesium ammonium
  4. usually too large to pass and require lithotripsy or surgical removal
  5. they enlarge as the bacterial count increases

Tx:

  1. prevent UTIs
  2. lithrotripsy
  3. surgical removal
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84
Q

nephrolithiasis

uric acid stone

what is this caused by?

can you see on xray?

what are 2 RF?

2 tx options?

A

caused by low Ph (acidic) urine <5.6 for greater than 24 hours

  1. radiolucent cant be seen on xray
  2. caused by high levels of uric acid in the urine or gout
  3. RF: obesity/diabetic or both

Tx:

  1. decrease uring PH below 6 (more alkaline) using potassium citrate
  2. allopurinol with decrease purine diet (fish, shellfish, and meats)
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85
Q

nephrolithiasis

cystine stones

what type of disorder is this and who is it common in?

what is the appearance of the stones?

what are the two treatement options?

A

autosomally recessive inherited abnormalities CYSTINURIA

“childhood caliculi”

1.smooth-edged ground glass appearence

TX:

  1. increase urine volumes to 3 L a day and increase urine pH to greater than 7
  2. occasionally chelating agents
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86
Q

what are 6 RF for nephrolithiasis in general?

A

high humidity

high temp

sedentary

high animal protein and high salt

FH for calcium stones

hyperthyroidism/hypothyroidism

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87
Q

what are the 4 most common symptoms with nephrolithiasis? and less common symtpoms? (4)

A

Most common:

  1. unilateral flank pain
  2. sudden onset
  3. renal colic
  4. hematuria

Less common:

  1. vague abdominal pain
  2. acute abdominal/flank pain
  3. difficulty urinating
  4. penile or testicular pain
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88
Q

what is the most important test when suspecting nephrolithiasis? what do you expect to see for each of the stones? 4 types of labs you should consider ordering?

A
  1. non-contrast CT (gold standard)
    used to identify the size, location and type of stone

  • low density (aka can’t see): uric acid, cystine
  • high density: calcium oxalate, struvite
  • struvite: laminar, rugged apperance, full of casts with “stag horn apperance”

*****do renal US for pregnant people who can’t have the CT****

  1. labs
  2. urinalysis (stone type/blood)
  3. BMP (calcium and creatinine if worried about kidney function)
  4. 24 hour urine for the amount excreted
  5. thyroid function test
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89
Q

chart that puts it all together

A

:)

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90
Q

what is the most common cause of recurrent calcium stones?

A

most common abnormality elevated Ca excretion, decreased serum Ca

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91
Q

stone passage

  1. explain how size and location effect the ability to pass the stone?
  2. what are two meds you can give to help during the passage?
A

size

<5 mm pass spontaneously

5-10 mm less likely to pass on their own

>10 mm won’t pass on their own

location

stones in proximal ureter less likely to pass

ureterovesicular junction more likely to pass

Meds to help pass:

alpha blocker (tramsulosin)

CCB (nifedipine)

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92
Q

if you txing a pt with nephrolithiasis what are 3 things you want to do to help manage the pt?

when do you consider hospitalization (2)?

A
  1. most managed conservatively with pain management Nsaids and Opoids (BETTER USED TOGETHER!!)
  2. hydration
  3. strain urine

consider hospitalization:

uncontrolled pain/fever

can’t tolerate oral intake

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93
Q

what are 6 things that would qualify for urologist referral in a patient with nephrolithiasis?

A

acute renal failure

urosepsis

urinary obstruction

concomitant pyelonephritis

>10 cm

haven’t passed for 4-6 weeks

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94
Q

what are the 5 tx options for nephrolithiasis?

A

1. NSAIDS and opoids!!

1.5. increased fluid intake key!

2. shock wave lithotripsy (small renal caliculi)

3. precutaneous nephrolithotomy

4. rigid and flexible ureterscopy +/- stent placement

(tx of choice for maority of middle and distal urethral stones or those who failed shock wave lithrotripsy)

5. diet changes for Ca oxalate stones (decrease spinach, animal protein, Na intake)

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95
Q

why is it important to educate your patient on recurrence for nephrolithiasis?

A

⅓ will experience stone recurrence within 5 years

½ experience stone reccurence within 10 years

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96
Q

explain the blood flow through the kidneys?

9 steps

A

renal artery

segmental artery

interlobar arteries

arcuate arteries (communicate with each other0

interlobular branches (extend into the cortext)

afferent arteriole to glomerulus to efferent arteriole

interlobar veins

and reverse with the same name as the veins (these go to the inferior vena cava

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97
Q

explain the difference between the two capillary beds found in relationship to the nephron?

A

glomerular capillary bed

  1. brings blood to the glomerulus
  2. high pressure system at 60 mmHg

allows for FILTRATION

peritubular capillaries

  1. surround all portions of the tubules, and are in an arrangement that permits rapid movement of solutes and water between the fluid in the tubular lumen and the blood in the capillaries
  2. low hydrostatic pressure around 13 mmHg

allow for ABSORPTION

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98
Q

what is the rate of blood flow through the glomerulus?

A

1200 ml/min

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99
Q

explain the two different types of nephrons found in the kidney?

where are they?

what is their function?

A

cortical nephrons

85% of them

originate in the superficial part of the cortex, short, thick loops of Henle that penetrate only a short distance into the medulla

juxtamedullary nephrons

less common

originate deeper in the cortex and have longer thinner loops of henle that penetrate the entire length of the medulla

largely concerned with concentrating the urine

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100
Q

what are the two major mechanisms for maintaining renal blood flow and eGFR effecting both the efferent and afferent renal blood flow?

A
  1. myogenic mechanism
  2. tubuloglomerular feedback menchanism
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101
Q

myogenic mechanism

what is this mechanism sensitive to?

what intrinsic mechanism does it rely on?

what happens as the pressure changes in the afferent arteriole to maintain pressure in the glomerulus?

A
  1. pressure sensitive mechanism
  2. relies on intrinsic mechanism of vascular smooth muscle that cause it to contract when stretched
  3. as arterial pressure rises and the

afferent arteriole is stretched=__the smooth muscle contracts

when the afferent pressure falls= it relaxes

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102
Q

tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism via juxtaglomerular apparatus

what is the ulimated end point of this apparatus?

where does it occur?

what are the two main cells that play a role here and where are they located?

what are thet wo things this apparatus is thought to measure?

what are the two things that are linked here?

A
  1. NaCl concentration in the tubular fluid is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the distal tubule
  2. occurs where the distal tubule extends back to the glomerulus and then passes between the afferent and efferent arterioles
  3. includes a group of sensing cells called the macula densa in the distal tubule and a group of secretory cells in the wall of the afferent and efferent arterioles called juxtaglomerular cells or granular cells that secrete renin
  4. the juxtaglomerular apparatus is located right between the afferent and efferent arterioles and is though to play an essential feedback role in linking the arterial BP and renal flow tothe GFR and the composition of distal flow, thought to measure both the stretch of the afferent arteriole and the concentration of NaCl as it passes through in the tubular filtrate through the macula densa in distal tubule=determines how much renin is released
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103
Q

eGFR

marathon runner analogy

what happens in these:

  1. constricting afferent arteriole
  2. constricting efferent arteriole
  3. dilating efferent arteriole
  4. dilating afferent arteriole
A

constricting afferent arteriole= decreases pressure in glomerular capillary pressure decreasing eGRF

constricting efferent arteriole=increases pressure in glomerular capillary pressure increasing eGFR

dilating efferent arteriole= decreases pressure in glomerular capillary pressure decreasing eGFR

dilating afferent arteriole= increases pressure in the glomerular capillary pressure increasing eGFR

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104
Q

what effect do these have on the arteriole system of the glomerulus?

prostaglandin

angiotensin II

A

prostaglandin: dilates the afferent arteriole

angiotensin II: constricts efferent areteriole

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105
Q
  1. explain the blood flow as it moves through the glomerulus and out of the kidney?
  2. where do the two greatest drops in BP occur? what is this area known as? what is it nessacary to maintain?
  3. what medication works in the above area?
A

afferent arteriole, to glomerular capillary, to efferent arteriole, to peritubular capillary to intrarenal vein, to renal vein

greatest drops in pressure are the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole

are the sites of greatest resistance

this is why the pressure is higher in the glomerular capillary than in the peritubular capillary that allows for filtration!

this is where ACE/ARBS works because they have the most effect

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106
Q

what are the 4 main function of the kidneys?

A
  1. filtration
  2. reabsorption
  3. secretion
  4. excretion
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107
Q

kidney filtration

when does this occur?

what is this caused by?

what do you use to measure it?

what is normal amounts?

A
  1. first step in urine formation
  2. bulk movement of fluid from blood into kidney tubule
    - isosmotic filtrate
    - blood cells and larger proteins don’t filter
  3. caused by hydralic pressure
  4. Glomerular filtration rate: amount of filtrate produced in the kidneys each minute

125 mL/min=180L per day

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108
Q

kidney reabsorption

what is this the process of?

what percent of filtrate is reabsorpbed?

what can aid in this process?

what is totally reabsorbed?

A

process of returning filtered material to bloodstream

99% of what is filtered is reabsorbed

may involve transport proteins

normally glucose is totally reabsorbed

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109
Q

kidney secretion

what is this?

what are two things that rely on active transport?

A

material added to the lumen of kidney tubule from blood

active transport (usually) of toxins and foreign substances

  1. saccharine
  2. penicillin
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110
Q

kidney excretion

what is this?

what is the equation for amount of solute excreted?

A

loss of fluid from body in form of urine

excreted means=as urine

amount of solute excreted= (amount filtered +amount secreted) - amount reabsorbed

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111
Q

glomular filtration rate is regulated by what 3 mechanisms?

A

the amount of plasma that is filtered each minute

provides information about the kidneys ability to filter and reabsorb/secrete substances

  1. renal autoregulation
  2. neural regulation
  3. hormonal regulation
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112
Q

GFR:

renal autoregulation

what pressure range does this have a modest effect on?

when does it have a great effect?

what is the goal of this regulation?

what two mechanisms allow you to accomplish this?

what is the end point?

A

between 80-170 mmHG, autoregulation of blood flow and GFR only modestly rise as renal perfusion increases

outsides of this range, the changes are much greater

purpose: maintain a relatively constant GFR and allow for precise regulation of solute and water excretion

accomplished by:

  1. myogenic mechanism (response to pressure changes in the afferent arteriole)
  2. tubuloglomerular feedback

(response to Na concentration in the distal renal tubule)

causes RENIN release

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113
Q

GFR:

neural regulation

the afferent and efferent arterioles are innervated by which types of fibers? when is it stimulated? what are the three effects of this?

A

sympathetic nerve fibers from renal plexsus of autonomic nervous system innervate SM afferent and efferent arterioles at the hilus

sympathetic stimulation causes constriction of the afferent and efferent arterioles and thus decreases renal blood flow

Effects:

  1. reduce the GFP and GFR through contracting the afferent and efferent arterioles through alpha receptors
  2. increase Na resorption in proximal tubules B receptors
  3. increase the release of renin B receptors

normally sympathetic stimulation is low so the arteries are dilated except during exercise and hemorrhage where the blood is decreased here

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114
Q

what are the three neural nerve reflexes that contribute to BP regulation by the kidneys?

what does the last one cause and what is its significance?

A
  1. cardiopulmonary reflex
  2. baroceptor reflex
  3. renorenal reflex
    a. sensory nerves located in the renal pelvic wall are activated by stretch of the renal pelvis wall
    - leads to increase of bradykinin which activates protein kinase C causing pelvic release of PGE2 by activation of COX2 and activates calcium channels in renal pelvic wall
    b. causes afferent renal nerve activity to increase, efferent activity to decrease, which causes increase in flow rate and urinary sodium excretion
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115
Q

GFR:

hormonal regulation

6 things

A

angiotensin II: produced by renin released by JGA cells is a potent vasoconstrictor of the efferent arteriole increases GFR

ANP: released by the atria when stretched increases GFR by increasing capillary surface area available for filation

NO

endothelian

postaglanding E2: dilates the afferent arterioles

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116
Q

glomerular filterability

what are the two characteristics that make things able to get into the glomerular filtrate?

what are 3 things that can filter freely? 3 things that can get some across?

what are the 1 favoring and 2 opposing forces of glomerular filterability?

what does this movement occur in response to?

A

1. molecular weight

2. charge of the molecules

urea, glucose, and insulin can filter freely across the membrane, some myoglobin (75%) can get through

albumin and hemoglobin may be present in small amount (3-1%)

DRIVEN BY:

favoring force: capillary blood pressure (BP)

opposing forces:

  1. blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)
  2. capsulre pressure (CP)

moves out based on glomerular hydrostatic pressure

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117
Q

what are the three tests you use can use to measure GFR?

A
  1. inulin
  2. creatinine
  3. Blood urea nitogen
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118
Q

measurement of GFR:

inulin

5 characteristics that make this work

A
  1. freely filtred at the glomerulus
  2. biologically inert
  3. not synthesized or metabolized by the kidney
  4. does not alter renal function
  5. can be accurately quantitfied
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119
Q

GFR measurement

creatinine

what is this a product of?

why is this effective in measuring GFR?

is it an over or underestimate of the damage?

how do you interpret results?

what do you need to keep in mind as the serum creatinine rises?

A

end product of muscle metabolism

its formation and release is relative constant and proportional to the amount of muscle mass present, since it is freely filtered by the kidneys and is not reabsorbed from the tubules its levels are used to measure the eGFR

small amount secreted from the tubule in a healthy person, so you area actually underestimating the amount of kidney dysfunction

interpretation: if the serum level rises it means that kidneys are unable to filter it and they aren’t working correctly

**keep in mind, the as the serum creatinine gets higher the GFR is less helpful the GFR calculations are**

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120
Q

GFR measurement

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

what is this a product of?

what are 3 things that can cause this to rise?

better or worse than creatinine?

what is an important thing this measurement can be used for? (values)

A

product of protein metabolism and is eliminated entirely by the kidneys

also rises with protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, and hydration status so is less effective than creatinine since effected by more things

BUN-creatine ratio is more helpful than BUN alone

normally 10:1

greater than 12/1 indicates prerenal issues like CHF and blleding

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121
Q

what percent is:

filtered

reabsorbed

excreted

what is the reabsorption of:

glucose

Na

water

creatine

A

20% of bllod is filtered

19% reabsorbed

1% excreted

glucose: all reabsorbed

Na and water: nearly all reabsorbed 99%

creatinine: none reabsorbed

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122
Q

what are the two absorption pathways?

A

transcellular: from lumen through the cell
paracellular: from lumen between the cells

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123
Q

what are the four mechanisms of transport seen in the nephron?

1

2

1

1

A
  1. primary active transport: uses ATP to move solutes against their concentration gradient, used by K, Na, H

Ex: Na/K pump (Na out, K in)

  1. secondary active transport
    a. cotransport/symport: moves solutes in the same direction
    b. counter-transporters (antiporters): move solutes opposit directions

3. pinocytosis: proximal tubule reabsorb lage molecules such as proteins by pinocytosis

4. passive transport: diffusion

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124
Q

proximal convoluted tubule

what 5 main things are absorbed here (5)?

what percent?

what is the main vechicle for Na, Cl, and H20?

what occurs in the first half of PCT?

what occurs in the second half of PCT?

A

65% Na, Water, K, HCo3 and Cl reabsorption from proximal convoluted tubule to thick descending segment of loop of henle

reabsorption of Na, Cl, and water main absoprtion vechicle is sodium-potassium pump

first half of PCT:

  1. Na reabsorbed by co-transport with glucose and amino acids

second half of PCT:

  1. Na and Cl reabsorbed: think about it, in the first half of PCT there was no reabsorption of Cl so now it is highly concentrated which facilitates it reabsorption
125
Q

explain the process of glucose and amino acid reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule?

what is this limited by? what concentration in the blood causes this? what is this caused? what are the values?

A

typically amino acids and glucose are reabsorbed

glucose/amino acids: reabsorbed by secondary transport symport with Na

since removed by secondary active transport, the transport reaches a transport maximum or the maximum amount of substance the transport system can reabsorb per unit time, relates to the number of carriers and is usually sufficient to remove all the glucose from the urine

when this is exceeded, the urine glucose level rises because the amount in the urine exceeds the workload of the pumps putting it back into the blood

renal threshold is the plasma level at which the glucose appears in the urine and indicates the amount filtered exceeds the transport maximum

200 mg/dl arterial glucose

180 mg/dl venous glucose

126
Q

secretion of H+, acids, and bases bicarbonate

where are the three main places this occurs?

explain wha happens in the proximal tubule? (2)

explain what happens inteh late distal tubule? (4)

what is this imporant for?

A

occurs at proximal tubules, loop of henle, and early distal tubule

  1. proximal tubule
    - 90% bicarbonate reabsorbed
    - secretion of H+ through secondary active transport

2. late distal tubule and the rest

  • primary active transport
  • occurs at the luminal membrane of tubular cell
  • H ions are transported directly by a specific protein Hydrogen-transport ATPase (proton pump)
  • decreases the pH of tubular fluids

**important in forming maximally acidic urine

127
Q

loop of henle:

think descending loop

what happens here and why?

A

highly permeable to water

little to not active reabsportion

the interstitial area around this is HYPERTONIC, which means the water wants to move out and get into the interstitial space to balance this out!

128
Q

loop of henle:

thick ascending limb

what percent is absorbed here? what is absorbed (6) what is secreted? why does this happen?

A

reabsorbed 25% of filtered loads of Na, Cl, and K as well as large amounts of calcium, bicarbonate, and Mg

secretes hydrogen ions into the tubule

***the fluid in the lumen is hyposmotic meaning there is a high concentration of particles since all the water has been taken out, the particles therefore want to move out into the interstitial space***

129
Q

k excretion..how much do you loose a day so how much do you need to replace?

A

oose 12% a day so need to take in this much or 92 mEq to replace daily losses

130
Q

Ca regulation

what hormone controls this?

what happens to Ca?

where does this occur (2)?

A

both filtered and reabsorbed in the kidneys but not excreted

only 50% of plasma calcium is ionized with the remainder bound to plasma proteins, excretion is adjusted to meet body’s needs

parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases calcium reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of henle and distal tubules and reduces urinary excretion of Ca

131
Q

urine concentration and dilution

what happens when-

osmolarity of the serum decreases:

osmolarity of serum increases:

what are two KEY features taht must be present to allow the concentration/dilution of urine to occur?

A

osmolarity of the serum/ECF decreases: loose water and get dilute urine

osmolarity of serum/ECF increases: water reabsorbtion and get concentrated urine

***this is sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalmus sensing high ECF osmolarity…tells posterior pituitary to release ADH and alter collecting duct permeability***

Mechanism that allows this to happen:

  1. controlled secretion of ADH from posterior pituitrary glandwhich regulates the permeability of medullary collecting ducts to water in response to osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus sense high ECF osmolarity, causes more water reabsorption and concentrates the urine
  2. a high osmolarity of the renal medullary interstitial fluid, which provides an osmotic gradient necessary for water reabsorption to occur in the presence of high level ADH (if the concentration gradient wasn’t high in solute or non existent, if ADH made the tubule more permeable, the fluid wouldn’t go anywhere)

BOTH ARE KEY! ADH, osmolarity of interstital

132
Q

explain the presence or absence of ADH effect on urine concentration?

A

ADH PRESENT: water absorbed leaving concentrated urine

ADH ABSENT: no water absorbed leaving dilute urine

133
Q

how is hyperosmotic renal medullary interstitium maintained by the:

  1. thin descending limb
  2. thick ascending limb
  3. collecting ducts

what this this produced by?

A

countercurrent mechanism produces hyperosmotic renal medullary

1. thin descending limb

permeable to water, not solutes

water reabsorption occurs because of the Na leaving the thick ascending limb

2. thick ascending limb

permeable to solutes, not water

active transport of NaCl into interstitium

3. collecting ducts

only papillary duct is permeable to urea to this concentrates the urea in the medulla and accounts for ⅓ the solutes in the deepest portions of the medula

134
Q

what are three ways that water is reabsorbed/excreted?

A
  1. obligatory water reabsorption
  2. facultative (selective) water reabsorption
  3. solute/osmotic diuresis
135
Q

water movement:

obligatory water reabsorption

what is this largely dependent on?

what are the two ways this occurs by?

A

using water and other solutes

water follows solute to the interstitial fluid (transcellular and paracellular methods)

largely influenced by Na reabsorption “if more sodium is reabsorbed then so will water because water follows sodium”

136
Q

water movement:

facultative (selective) water reabsorption

what is this regulated by?

what are the 4 steps?

where does this most often occur?

A

occurs mostly in the collecting ducts through portes or water channels

regulated by ADH:

1. ADH binds to membrane receptor

2. receptor activates cAMP second messanger

3. cell inserts aquaporin 2 water pores into the apical membrane or the side next to the lumen

4. water is absorbed by osmosis into blood

137
Q

water movement:

solute/osmotic dieuresis

what is this caused by?

what happens?

what type of kidney?

A

large amounts of poorly absorbed solute like glucose, mannitol, or urea…this would be in the filtrate if the kidney wasn’t working properally

highly osmolarity filtrate, so water rushes in and causes a hypotonic saline

138
Q

aldosterone

what type of componet is this?

what cause it cause and where?

what are two things it does and where does it take place?

A

steroid hormone synthesized in the adrenal cortex

causes: reabsorption of Na/H2O in distal convoluted tubule** **and collecting ducts (also K excretion)

acts primarily on the principal cells of the corticla colllecting ducts and

1.stimulates the Na/K ATPase pump on the baslolateral side of the cortical collecting tubule

2. increase Na permeability of the luminal side of the membrane

**in the pic note that Na is being reabsorbed and K is excreted**

139
Q

atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

when is this released?

what does it inhibit? (3)

what does it promote (2)

A

released by atrium in response to atrial stretching due to increased blood volume

inhibits Na and water reabsorption, and ADH secretion

promotes increased sodium excretion (natriuresis) and water excretion (diuresis) in urine

140
Q

what do these cause:

Angiotensin II, ADH, and endothelians

and what about these:

Dopamine, NO, PGE2, PGI2

A

Angiotensin II, ADH, and endothelians: VASOCONSTRICTION to maintain pressure

**think about it, angiotensin II and ADH are released when decreased profusion so if less fluid the afferent and efferent arterioles must constrict to maintain the pressure in the glomerular capillaries**

Dopamine, NO, PGE2, PGI2

VASODILATION to maintain pressure

**think about it….ASA and NSAIDS inhibit prostaglandins so thats why you get constriction and increase BP**

141
Q

micturition

what is this?

what are the 3 steps that occur?

A

once urine enters the renal pelvis, it flows through the ureters and enters the bladder where urine is stored micturition is the process of emptying the urinary bladder

processes:

  1. fills progressively until the tension in the wall rises above threshold level then
  2. a nervous reflex called micturition reflex that empties that bladder
  3. automatic spinal cord reflex, however, it can be inhibited or facilitated by centers in the brainstem and cerebral cortex
142
Q

micturation

where does this originate?

what are the two main motor functions that are coordinated here?

-what do they each cause? via which nerve?

2

1

A

originates in sacral S1-S4

combination of Motor function:

  1. Stimulation of parasympathetic neurons=contraction of detrusor muscle and internal urterthral spincter (involuntary) via pelvic nerve
  2. inhibition of somatic neurons=relaxation of external spincter (voluntary) via pudenal nerve
143
Q

explain the process of an AP that causese micturitiion?

what are the four main steps?

what if its an ok time to urinate?

what if not ok time to urinate?

A
  1. APs generated by stretch receptors
  2. reflex arc generates AP that stimulate smooth muscle lining bladder
  3. relax internal urethral sphincter
  4. stretch receptors also send AP to pons

if appropriate time to urinate:

APs from pons excite smooth muscle of bladder and relax Internal urethral sphincter

relax external urethral sphincter

if not appropriate time to urinate:

APs from pons keep external urethral sphincter contracted

144
Q

Elderly

what happens to number of functional nephrons?

what happens to GFR?

what happens to sensitivity to ADH?

what about micturition?

A
  1. decline in the number of functional nephrons
  2. reduction of GFR based on number of function nephrons
  3. reduced sensitivity to ADH of those that are left, so elderly have more dilute urine
  4. problems with micturition reflex
145
Q

tubular disorders:

autosomal dominant polycystic dieases

what age group do you find this in?

what is this characterized by?

what are the 5 most common symptoms and which one is most reported by pts?

what genes are responsible?

Test of choice?

Tx? 2 things to consider?

A

most common of all inherited kidney diseases

uncommon before 40 years old, 40% dx before 45

3rd-4th decade

multiple expanding expanding cysts of both kidneys that destroy the surround kidney structures and cause kidney failure

kidneys are englarged/enormous with “straw colored” fluid

Symptoms:

  1. flank pain from ruptured cyst
  2. gross episodes of hematuria from bleeding into cysts
  3. infected cysts from ascending UTIS (most common thing reported by pt)
  4. HTN
  5. stones 15-20%

CALCIUM OXALATE, URIC ACID

Genes:

PKD1: 85% of cases

PKD2: 15% of cases

DX: ULTRASOUND TEST OF CHOICE

Tx:

SUPPORTIVE

controll HTN and prevent/ TX UTIs AGGRESIVELY!!

146
Q

what is improtant to do if you have a patient with confirmed polycystic kidney disease?

A

SCREEN IN ASYMPTOMATIC FAMILY MEMBERS!!!

147
Q

what are 3 assoiated findings that are important to look for in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

***all of these were in porth and dr, reiserts lecture!**

A
  1. cysts in the liver
  2. mitral valve prolapse 20-25%
  3. cerebral aneurysm from weakness in the cerebral arteries 20%
148
Q

autosomal recessive polycystic disease

who does this present in?

what becomes abnormal?

what gene is responsible?

what are 5 symptoms?

what is the tx?

A

CHILDHOOD polycystic kidney disease

cystic dilation of the cortical and medullary collective tubules

perinatal and infantile types most common

PKHD1 gene: produces fibrocystin that is involved in cell proliferation and adhesion

Sxs:

present at birth

renal failure

billateral flank masses

portal HTN

imparied lung development

Tx:

supportive

ventilatory support

149
Q

tubular disease:

renal tubular acidosis (RTA)

TYPE 1

what does this alter?

pH?

what type of metabolic acidosis is it characterized by?

tx?

A

alteration of H+ transport

urine pH high greater than 5.5

hypercalcemia

hypokalemic, hyperchloremic non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

Tx:

alkalinize urine-NaHCO3

150
Q

tubular disease:

renal tubular acidosis

TYPE 2

what is this a defect in?

pH?

what is it characterized by?

A

proximal

defective bicarbonate reabsorbtion

urine pH less than 5.5

hypokalemic, hyperchloremic non anion gap metabolic acidosis

151
Q

tubular disease

renal tubular acidosis

TYPE 4

what is this caused by?

what are 3 causes?

what are 3 tx options?

A

hyperchloremic distal RTA

acidic urine

hypercholoremic hyperkalemic acidosis

abnormal tubular secretion of K and H, abnormal aldosterone production or aldosterone resistance

causes:

  1. NSAIDS
  2. ACE-I
  3. renal disease like DM nephropathy

Tx:

  1. low K diet
  2. stop offending meds (K sparing diuretics like spirolactone, amiloride, and tiameterence
  3. minteralcorticoids
152
Q

acute nephritic syndrome

what is this?

what are the 4 things it is characterized by?

what are the two main causes?

A

acute inflammation that occludes the glomerular capillary lumen and damages the capillary wall

characterized by:

  1. inflammation
  2. suddent onset hematuria (RBC casts) active urinary sediment
  3. HTN
  4. diminished GFR
  5. oliguria (decreased urine)
  6. signs of impaired renal function

two main causes:

  1. acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
  2. rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
153
Q

nephritic syndrome:

Immune complex nephropathies:

acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis

who is this common in?

when does it occur?

what is the most common organism to cause this?

two ways this can occur?

what is the damage caused by? (3)

A

This is an immunecomplex nephropathy

Post streptococcal glomular nephritis is the most common immune complex nephropathies

most common in children but can be in anyone, most commonly follows a strep infection by 10 days

most commonly Group A strep pharngitis but can be impetigo skin infection as well after 2 weeks

characterized:

  1. acute
  2. oliguric
  3. decreased GFR
  4. focal or diffuse in kidney

other causes: staph, viral chickenpox, measles, mumps

Caused by deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys, rare in industerialized areas

deposition causes swelling of endothelial cells

and swelling, proliferation, and leukocyte infiltratation obliterates the glomerular capillary lumens

154
Q

nephritic syndrome:

immune complex nephropathies:

acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis

what are the 6 symptoms associated with this?

tx option? how do you dX:what sometimes occurs?

A
  1. oliguria from decrease GFR, one of the first symptoms
  2. proteinuria and hematuria follow from increased glomerular capillary wall permeability from damage
  3. cola colored urine
  4. edema of hands and face

5. HTN

  1. elevated anti strep antibodies

DX:

circulating levels of antrstreptolysin antibodies

TX:

  1. abx and supportive
  2. many have spontaneous remission in 6-8 weeks

prognosis is good!

155
Q

nephritic syndrome:

anti-glomerular basement membrane disease:

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

what is the characterized by?

what are 2 causes of this?

how do you dx this?

how do you tx this?

A

subacute

used interchangeably with “crescentric glomular nephritis”-moon shaped lesions in bowmans space

antibodies against type IV collagen called anti GBM antibodies

glomerular ijury without a specific cause, occurs within a matter of months

proliferation of glomerular cells and recruitment of monocytes and macrophages destroy bowmans space

Causes: SLE, Goodpastures syndrome

DX:

renal bx to show IgG along GBM

Tx:

immunosupressants

156
Q

nephritic syndrome:

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis:

Goodpasture syndrome

what is this caused by?

what else can it cause in a unrelated system?

what is the hallmark?

do we know the cause? associated with (2)?

2 tx options?

A

uncommon and aggressive form of glomerulonephritis

antibodies to glomerular basement membrane

antibodies cross react with the lungs so cause renal failure associated with pulmonary hemorrhages

HALLMARK: diffuse linear staining of glomerular basement membrane for IgG

DON’T KNOW CAUSE: ASSOCIATION WITH INFLUENZA AND PAINT

TX:

  1. plasmapharesis to remove IgG
  2. immunosuppresive therapy (corticosteroids/cyclophosphamide)
157
Q

what are the three types of Pauci immune glomerular nephritis?

what is it characterized by?

A

characterized by:

glomerulonephritis without IG

Idiopathic renal limited crescentic GN

Microscopic polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

158
Q

nephritic syndrome:

idiopathic crescentic glomerular nephritis

A

middle aged men

crescent involvement of the kidneys

Tx:

steroids

159
Q

what are the serum tests you want to do to help dx nephritis/RPGN?

A

bx often required!

immunoflorescence

serum testing:

  1. C3
  2. anti GBM
  3. antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)
160
Q

nephrotic syndrome

what is the patho of this?

what are the 7 main symptoms of this and which is the hallmark?

is this a disease on its own?

what are the 3 main causes?

A

**not a specific disease by a characterization of symptoms**

the glomular membrane acts as a filter, this increased permability allos proteins to ecape into the urine leading to excessive loss of albumin

as the solutes move out of the ECF, it becomes hyposmotic and so it moves into the tissues and cells where there is a higher concentration of solutes and causes the generalized edema

characterized by:

  1. massive proteinuria more than 3.5 a day

2. lipiduria with fatty casts

3. hypoalbuminemia

4. generalized edema HALLMARK starts in dependent parts like extremeities but spreads to become generalized

5. hyperlipidemia LDL and Tri

  1. high cholesterol!!
  2. HYPERCOAGUBILITIES….so at increase risk for clots/DVT

three main causes:

  1. minimal change disease
  2. membraneous glomerulonephritis
  3. focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
161
Q

what is the general tx for proteinuria ?

A
  1. dietary protein restriction
  2. ACE-inhibitor
  3. NSAIDS
162
Q

nephrotic syndrome:

minimal change disease

what happens in this?

who is it most comon in?

what do they have a hx of?

what 4 things are they predisposed for?

tx?

A

diffuse loss of podocytes or foot processes of the visceral epithelial cells of the glomeruli

most common in children 2-6 but can occur in adults

child has hx of URI

predisposition to infection with gram + organisms, thrombotic events, hyperlipidemia, and protein malnutrition

TX:

short dose of glucocorticoids

163
Q

nephrotic syndrome:

membraneous glomerulonephritis

what is the patho?

what is this caused by? (5)

what are the 3 main symptoms?

tx?

A

most common cause of primary nephrosis in adults

“think THICK BGM without infllammation”

diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane from deposition of immune complexes that create “spikes”

causes: SLE, chronic Hep B, DM, thyroiditis, gold compounds

SXS:

  1. peripheral edema
  2. hypoalbuminemia
  3. hyperlipidemia

Tx:

controversial since often times the pt has spontaneous remission and it is relatively benign

164
Q

nephrotic syndrome:

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

what occurs in this?

who is this the most common in?

what are 4 secondary causes of this?

tx?

A

sclerosis and increase in collagen deposition in some but not all of the glomeruli

GENETIC

leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in African Americans

causes: idiopathic or secondary including: reduced o2 in the blood from sickle cell, CHF, HIV, IV drug use

Tx:

corticosteroids

165
Q

hematuria disease #1:

IgA nephropathy

what is the nickname for tihs?

who is it most common in?

what is the patho of this?

what are the 2 ways to diagnose this?

tx?

A

“Berger disease”

“THIN GBM DISEASE”

BENIGN HEMATURIA

MC GLOMERURPATHY WORLDWIDE

most common in asians, 3-4th decade of life

primary glomerulonphritis characterized by presence of glomerular IgA immune complex deposits which causes inflammation

DX:

discovered during routine testing, find elevated IgA levels

  1. gross hematuria preceded by URI

50% have single episode

  1. diagnostic findings: mesangial staining for IgA tat is more intense than staining for IgG or IgM

TX:

NO TREATMENT

166
Q

hereditary nephritis

“alport syndrome”

what happens in this?

what is the inheritance?

how do you dx it and how is it normally found?

what are 2 random things associated with it?

A

hereditary child defect of the glomerular basement membrane that results in hematuria and may progress to chronic renal failure as adults

X linked autosomal dominant trait

  1. heavy microscopic hematuria that progresses to proteinuria
  2. usually picked up from checking urine of family with known dx
  3. sensorineural deafness, billateral

4. eye disorders lense dislocation, post cataracts, corneal dystrophy

167
Q

inherited glomerulopathies

Fabry’s disease

what is this a disorder of?

what accumulates?

what type of inhertiance?

what are 6 abnormal findings you would see?

A

Lysosomal storage disease

accumulation of globotraoslyveramide (Gb3)

X-linked

Abnormalities:

  1. 50% in ESRD
  2. neurological (stroke, TIA)
  3. telegenctasis
  4. skin deposits
  5. corneal lesions
  6. cardiac (LVH, CAD, valvular disease)
168
Q

chronic glomerulopathies:

systemic immune disease:

polyarteritis nodosa

what is this?

4 features?

2 tx options?

A

systemic disorder

features:

  1. HTN
  2. urine sediment
  3. renal insufficiency
  4. negative ANCA

Tx:

glucocorticoids

chemo agents

169
Q

chronic glomerulopathies:

systemic lupus erythematous glomerulonephritis

what is this caused by?

what should all SLE pts do?

what are the 2 tx options?

A

“lupus nephritis”

most common complication from SLE

caused by deposition of immune complexes with the glomerular wall

all patients with SLE should undergo routine urine analysis to monitor for hematuria and proteinuria

DX:

+ ANA

low complement

Tx:

1. glucocorticoids

2. chemo

170
Q

Chronic Glomerular disease:

diabetic nephropathy

what is this?

what does it occur with?

pathophys of it?

why does sugar play a role?

DX (2)?

5 tx options?

A

most common cause of kidney failure treated by renal replacement therapy in the US

occurs with: T1DM (30%), T2DM (20%)

Mechanisms: HYPERGLYCEMIA, INTRAGLOMERULAR HTN, AND GLOMERULAR HYPERTROPHY

widespread thickening of glomerular basement membrane with diffuse increase in mesangial matrix and proliferation of these cells=impinge capillary lunem, reducing the SA available for filtration

REISERT: INJURED FILTRATION BARRIER WITH THICKENED GLOMERULAR BASEMENT MEMBRANE

  • pores bigger
  • electrical barrier favors passage of protein

screen DM every year for this if TYPE II and after 5 years of type 1!!

inappropriate incorporation of glucose into these noncellular components of the glomerular structures

DX:

increased GFR with microalbuminuria

TX:

  1. control BS

2. ACE/ARB to decrease glomerular pressure

  1. control BP Goal less than 130/80
  2. smoking cessation
  3. weight loss
171
Q

what are 3 deposition diseases that cause glomerulopathy?

A

1. amyloidosis

a. abnormal protein in the glomerulus
b. biopsy shows green apple befringence under polarized light using congo red stain
c. tx unsuccesfful

2. light chain disease

3. wldenstroms macroglobinemia

-due to IGM secreting plasma cell clone

172
Q

name four drugs that can induce nephropathies?

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Gold
  3. penicillamine
  4. IV heroin
173
Q

stress urinary incontinence

who is this common in?

why does it occur?

explain the pressure differences?

what actions might bring this on?

what are 3 things that could cause this in a person?

A

common problem in women of all ages and results from weakness or disruption in the pelvic floor muscles leading to poor support of the vesicourethral sphincters

usually: the i_ntraurethral pressure is greater than the intravesicular pressure_ which is called the urethral closure pressure

if i_ntra-abdominal pressure increases_ from things like coughing, laughing, or sneezing and the pressure isn’t equally distributed to the urethra then incontinence occurs

causes of decreased muscle tone: aging, child birth, surgical procedures

174
Q

urge urinary incontinence

what does the pt feel?

what is this associated with?

what is the definition of this?

what are 2 contributing factors?

3 symptoms?

A

overactive, nocturia, urinary frequency, detrusor overactivity

loss of urine associated with strong desire to void URGENCY, often associated with overactive bladder

definition: urgency, frequency with or without incontinence in the absence of UTI or obvious pathology

Two contributing factors to overactive bladder:

  1. CNS and neural control of bladder sensation and emptying, ex: stroke, Parkinsons, MS
  2. smooth muscle of the bladder itself (myogenic)
175
Q

incomplete emptying “overflow” urinary incontinence

what are 7 signs of this?

what are two causes?

what are 2 causes in women?

what are 2 causes in men?

A

intravesical pressure exceeds the maximal urethral pressure because of bladder distension

dribbling, weak urinary stream, frequency, and nocturia, hesitancy, frequency, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting), detrusor underactivity or bladder outlet obstruction

women causes: uterine prolapse, previous incontinence surgery

men: most common is enlarged prostate gland

176
Q

what are the 3 PE tests you want to do with someone with urinary incontinence?

what are the 4 workup tests you would do?

A

PE:

  1. pelvic exam
  2. digital rectal exam (masses, prostate)
  3. neuro exam if sudden loss (think cauda equina)

Workup:

  1. urinalysis
  2. prostate specific antigen
  3. post void bladder scan
  4. urology consult
177
Q

although urinary incontince tx is dependent on the type, what are 5 tx options you could consider?

A
  1. fluid management
  2. timed voiding
  3. bladder retraining
  4. keagle/pelvic floor exercises
  5. surgical intervention
178
Q

obstruction in UT

what are some causes of this?

what are the two big things this causes?

concerns with each?

2

1

A

many things can cause obstruction: caliculi, cancer, pregnancy, stones, defects etc.

Key points of things that it causes:

  1. stasis of urine:

predisposes to infection and stone function

infection: urea splitting bacteria like proteus and staph, these increase the ammonia levels and cause urine to become more alkaline

alkaline urine: calcium salts are able to precipitate in alkaline urine better so obstruction predisposes to stone formation

  1. dilation

progressive dilation of the renal collecting ducts and renal tubular structures from backflow which causes atrophy of the renal tissue

179
Q

hydronephrosis

what is this and what does it cause?

characteristics?

who should this be susepcted in?

if caught early?

if caught late?

A

urine filled dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces associated with progressive atrophy of kidney due to the obstruction of urine flow, usually unilateral but can be bilateral with hyperplasia

acute or chronic

partial or complete

unilateral or billateral

**the stasis of urine/obstruction encourages microorganism growth and should be suspected in people with recurrent UTI**

if recognized early: can be reversible

if recognized late: can lead to UTI, urosepsis, and end stage renal disease

180
Q

hydronephritis

what determines presentation?

what are the 5 symptoms?

how do you DX and what do you see?

A

presentation depends on site of obstruction, degree, and speed at which obstruction occurs

SYMPTOMS

  1. pain
  2. change in urine output
  3. HTN
  4. Hematuria
  5. increased serum creatine

DX:

TEST OF CHOICE: RENAL ULTRASOUND

**dilation of renal collecting system in one or both kidneys**

181
Q

renal artery stenosis

what is this caused by?

what does this cause (3)?

who should you suspect this in (4 key attributes)?

what is the gold standard?

but what do you use?

A

persistent and progressive decreased GFR from reduction of blood flow from atherosclerotic ishchemia

results in CKD (increased serum creatinine and BUN)

consider in pts with severe or resistant HTN, less than 30 years old, and with no family history of HTN or obesity, acute rise in serum creatinine after starting ACE or ARBS

DX:

  1. renal angiography is gold standard
  2. less invasive test is TEST OF CHOICE: doppler US, STA, MRA
182
Q

urethrovesicular reflux

when does it occur?

what happens?

why is this a bad thing?

A

urine from the urethra moves into the bladder

occurs during activites like coughing or squatting where the i_ntraabdominal pressure increases_ and causes the urine to be squeezed into the urethra and the flow backwards into the bladder as the pressure decreases

the urethra is contaminated with bacteria so this increases the likelyhood for infection in the bladder

183
Q

vesicoureteral reflux

where does this occur?

what does this cause?

A

occurs are the level of the bladder and the ureter and allows urine and bacteria to ascend from the bladder to the kidney and can cause pyelonephritis

184
Q

what is the most common cause of renal cancer?

A

renal cell carcinoma

185
Q

renal cell carcinoma

who is this most common in?

where does it grow specifically?

how does it grow and what does it look like?

where can it grow into?

fast? slow?

what are 5 types?

A

northern european descent

MOST COMMON KIDNEY CANCER

grows spherically and is well circumscribed mass in the CORTEX of the kidney

arises in the epithelial lining of the proximal tube**, and **grows into the renal vein, inferior vena cava, occlude right side of heart

slow growing and doesn’t present until advances

Many types:

  1. clear cell
  2. papillary
  3. chromophobe
  4. collecting
  5. unclassified
186
Q

what are the 5 metastasis place for renal cell carcinoma?

A

lung, lymph nodes, bone, liver, brain

187
Q

what are the 6 RF for renal cell carcinoma?

A
  1. SMOKING!!
  2. 50-70 year olds
  3. Von Hipple-lindau: family hx, can transfer into malignant pathology of CNS brain spinal cord and kidneys most common

4. tuberous sclerosis: can become large, benign

  1. long term dialysis
  2. obesity
188
Q

renal cell carcinoma

what are the 3 most classic symptoms?

what are 4 other symptoms?

A

CLASSIC TRIAD:

1. flank pain

2. PAINLESS hematuria

3. palpable flank abdominal renal mass: firm, homogenous, and nontender

(few have all of these)

also

intermittent fever

night sweats

anorexia

weight loss fatigue

189
Q

renal cell carcinoma

3 tests to work up?

1 tx option and 2 subgroups?

what is NOT effective!!!

A

WORKUP:

often find incidently for routine work up for something else

1. urinalysis: microscopic hematuria retest if suspcicious

2. CT or US

3. MRI if concerned with mets, PET to confirm

TX:

first line: surgical eradication only cure!!!

1. resection

2. ablation with cryotherapy or embolization

CHEMO/RADIATION NOT EFFECTIVE!!!

190
Q

how does the staging of renal cell carcinoma effect tx options?

what are the two staging methods?

A

stage I-III: resection

Stage IV: pallative

TNM and Robson staging

191
Q

what are the two most common types of renal cell carcinoma?

what do they look like?

A
  1. clear cell renal celll carcinoma 7/10: clear or pale under microscope MOST COMMON

  1. papillary renal cell carcinoma: 10%, finger like projections on the tumor
192
Q

what are the 5 differnt types of rencal cell carcinoma?

A

1. clear cell renal cell carcinoma: clear/pale

2. papillary renal cell carcinoma: finger like projections

3. chronophobe renal cell carcinoma: large

4. collecting duct renal cell carcinoma: irregular tubes

5. unclassified

193
Q

what type of renal cancer effect the blood vessels or connective tissue?

A

renal sarcomas

194
Q

wilms tumor

what is another name for this?

what age group?

what type of cells are cancerous?

what are three random associated findings?

what are the four most common sxs?

which is most important?

A

MOST COMMON RENAL CANCER IN CHILDREN

“nephroblastoma”

dx 3-5 years old most common

primitive cells of renal cortex

associations:

  1. absense of iris
  2. enlargement of the side of face
  3. genituiatry complications

SX:

  1. abdominal mass/swelling w/o other symptoms (parents find while dressing)
  2. hematuria 20-25%
  3. HTN IN CHILD!! HUGE KEY
  4. fever, abdominal pain less common
195
Q

wilms tumor

what do you find on PE?

test of choice? two others?

3 tx options?

A

PE:

firm, nontender, smooth mass that is eccentrically located and rarely crosses the midline

tests:

  1. CT scan test of choice, US, MRI
    tx: surgery, chemo, radiation

IT IS RESPONSIVE TO CHEMO/RAD

196
Q

what do you want to make sure you NEVER do to a patient with suspected wilms tumor?

prognosis?

A

you NEVER biopsy because it runs risk of RUPTURE which allows it to spread!

STAGING OCCURS AFTER RESECTION!!!

prognosis good before METS!

197
Q

transitional cell cancer or urothelia carcinoma

what population do you see this in (2)?

what is this a cancer of?

where else can you find it (3)?

one additional type? danger?

A

55+, 50% cases SMOKERS!!!!!!

cancer of the mucosal lining of the bladder, papillary growth

also in renal pelvis, ureters, urethra where these transitional cells are found

urothelial carcinoma in situ (CIS) does not invade the submucosa irregular red sports on cytoscopy but CAN PROGRESS TO INVASIVE CARCINOMA

198
Q

what are the 3 RF for urothelial carcinoma/transitional cell cancer?

A
  1. smoking 50% of pts
  2. aniline dyes
  3. leather woodwork
199
Q

Transitional cell cancer/urothelial carcinoma

what are the 3 symptoms of this? hallmark?

what are the two test you run if suspecting this?

how do you dx (2)?

A
  1. painless hematuria typical

  1. may have back pain
  2. may have dysuria

tests:

1. KUB: kindey ureter bladder: xray of choice, do pregnancy test first

2. intravenous pyelogram: dye injected into kidney to highlight mass *do post micturition view

DX:

  1. CYSTOSCOPY

2. biopsy

200
Q

how do you tx transitional cell cancer/urothelial carcinoma?

(4)

what must you do?

A
  1. carcinoma in situ-BCG vaccine/TB vaccine injected into site
  2. resect part of the involved bladder for recurrent carcinoma in situ or invasive urothelial carcinoma
  3. create new bladder from intestine, store in ostomy bag
  4. resection and chemo, monitor for annual regrowth via cytology!!
201
Q

what do you need to educate your patient about if they have transitional/urothelia carcinoma?

A

80% will have reoccurance

202
Q

expain the 4 stages of transitional cell cancer/urothelial carcinoma?

A

Stage 0: inner lining of bladder

Stage I: spreads to bladder wall

stage II: penetrated inner wall and is present in the muscle of the bladder wall

Stage III: gets into fat surrounding bladder

Stage Iv: spreads to pelvis wall or abdomen, lymph nodes, lungs, liver bones etc

203
Q

what is antoher name for wilms tumor?

A

nephroblastoma

204
Q

what is the typical prognosis for a child dx with wilms tumor?

A

5 years 90% survival so pretty good

205
Q

what is the most common neoplasm arising in the kidney?

A

renal cell carcinoma 9/10 cases

206
Q

what are the two major groups of malignant tumors under renal cell carcinoma?

A

clear cell and papillary

207
Q

what type of pattern would you descibe a renal cell cancer that has proliferation alon fibrovascular core?

A

papillary

208
Q

what is the gold standard first line tx for renal cell carcinoma?

A

RESECTION

radiation and Chemo aren’t effective for renal cell carcinoma!!!!!!!!!!!!!

209
Q

transitional cancer has a high rate of recurrence?

true or false?

A

true!!! 80%

210
Q

what are the two staging methods used for renal cell carcinoma?

A
  1. robson
  2. TNM
211
Q

what is the #1 risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

SMOKING

212
Q

bicarbonate buffer system

what are the two levels we really care about?

what is the equation?

what produces them?

acid/bases?

normal ranges?

A

HCO3: weak base, regulated by the kidneys, 22-28 normal comes from dissociated NaHCO3 which is a salt, so Na pops off

CO2: acid, regulated by the lungs, 35-45 mmHg

pH 7.35-7.45

213
Q

how do you measure total venous CO2 on arterial blood gas?

A

the venous CO2 is approximately equal to the HCO3 on the blood gass because most CO2 is carried as HCO3

214
Q

on bicarb buffer system, which component is regulated by lungs and kidneys?

what do primary disturbances cause? can it fix it?

A

Primary respiratory disorders affect PCO2

primary metabolic disorders affect HCO3

primary disturbances cause: compensatory changes

Compensatory can’t fully compensate for primary disorder but can help!

215
Q

what is the most common acid/base disturbance of all?

A

metabolic acidosis

216
Q

snapshot:

respiratory acidosis

pH? PCO2? HCO3? think of?

A

pH decreases, _PCO2 increase_s (acid), HCO3 increased (comp), acute and chronic forms *think not breathing enough*

217
Q

snapshot:

respiratory alkalosis

pH? PCO2? HCO3? think of?

A

pH increases, PCO2 decreases, HCO3 decreases (comp), acute and chronic forms *think breathing too much*

218
Q

snapshot:

metabolic acidosis

pH? PCO2? HCO3? think of?

A

pH decreases, HCO3 decreases, PCO2 decrease (comp) *think increase resp to blow off more CO2 to decrease the levels since it becomes more acidic with loss of HCO3*

219
Q

snapshot:

metabolic alkalosis

pH? what happems? comp?

A

pH increases, HCO3 increases, PCO2 increases (comp)

220
Q

respiratory acidosis

ph? 1st thing? comp?

where does equation shift?

important buffering system involved?

what is the primary cause?

4 condition causes?

4 symtpoms

3 tx?

A

pH decreases, CO2 increases, HCO3 increases (comp)

equation shifts to the right: H is buffered by the intracellular phosphate and protein buffers NOT NaHCO3…this system is essential because it uses the H and combines it with phosphate so don’t get a massive decrease in pH that could cause organ/system failure

primary defect: decreased alveolar ventilation

acute and chronic forms

Conditions that cause this:

1. COPD

2. ASTHMA who tires

3. DRUG OD with supressive of ventilatory drive

4. neuromuscular disease

SXS:

  1. somulence
  2. coma
  3. confusion
  4. respiratory arrest

Tx:

  • *1. VENTILLATORY SUPPORT
    2. Naloxone/Narcan**

3. benzodiazepen antagonists: flumazenil

221
Q

how long does it take HCO3 to compensate for a respiratory acid/base disturbance?

A

about 3 days

222
Q

how much does the pH decrease for every 10mmHG in CO2?

A

.08 units

this is consistent and you can count on this!

223
Q

acid base case:

Billy got into some of his dads pain meds. He has suffered a significant mental status depression and his respiration rate is 4. You see him in the ED and a blood gas is obtained: pH 7.16, PCO2: 70mmHG, HCO3-24 meq/L. what does he have?

A

uncompensated respiratory acidosis

PH is acidic

PCO2 is elevated (showing respiratory fault, decreased breathing, PCO2 build up causing the acidosis)

HCO3 is normal (compensation hasn’t occurred yet)

224
Q

if a patient has respiratory acidosis from drug OD, what do you need to keep in mind if you give them Naxolone/narcan?

A

very hsort halflife

they could wake up start breathing, and then go back into their respiratory acidosis and might need to keep giving this every half hour until it is completely out of the system

225
Q

if patient has respiratory acidosis from drug OD and you give them benzodiezepine antagonist flumazenil, what do you need to be cautious of?

A

if rapidly removed can cause seizures so don’t use too big of a dose

226
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis

ph? CO2? comp? equation shift?

what is the primary defect?

what are 7 causes of this?

what are 3 sxs?

what are the two tx?

A

pH increases, PCO2 decreases, HCO3 decreases (comp)

equation shifts to the left (wants to make more acidic)

acute and chronic forms

primary defect: decreased PCO2 from increased alveolar ventilation rate

Causes:

1. hyperventilation

2. anxiety

3. panic attacks

4. sepsis

5. cirrhosis

6. progesterone

7. mechanical overventilation

SXS:

  1. lightheadedness

2. parenthesia

  1. tetany

TX:

1. TREAT UNDERLYING CAUSES

2. breath into brown paper bag for short term only

227
Q

why are most cases of respiratory alkalosis self sustained?

A

because of muscle fatigue, the person gets too tired so they are unable to keep breathing off the CO2 so they don’t reach syncope

228
Q

what happens to the pH as the PCO2 DECREASES by 10 mmHg?

A

pH increases .08 units

229
Q

in respiratory sources of acid/base rxns, how do you predict the pH?

what happens as this increases or decreases?

A

by measuring the changes in PCO2

increase in PCO2: decrease in pH of .08 units

decrease in PCO2: increase in pH of .08 units

230
Q

metabolic acidosis

ph? HCO3? PCO2? shift?

explain the patho of this?

what must you sure or consider?

what are the two main subcategories?

2

1

A

pH decreases, HCO3 decreases, PCO2 decreases (comp)

shifts to the left

MOST COMMON OF ACID/BASE DISORDERS

here there is a increase in the H (acid) in the body, which is buffered by the HCO3, since this is coupled with the HCO3 to make the intermediate H2CO3, with causes the decrease HCO3

H IS BUFFERED IN THIS CASE BY THE BICARB BUFFER SYSTEM

EXCESS FIXED ACIDS OF ENDOGENOUS (INSIDE THE BODY CAUSES) IS THE MOST COMMON ACID-BASE DISORDER

**must measure anion gap**

categories:

1. increased anion gap metabolic acidosis

  • lactic acidosis
  • DKA

2. normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

231
Q

what acid/base condition is it important to consider anion gap?

explain? what is this?

A

metabolic acidosis

fictious number that is only helpful in classifying the type and metabolic acidosis

theory states:

anion gap=Na-(Cl+HCO3)

in the body there are an equal amount of cations and anions.

cations: Na

Anions: Cl, HCO3

we don’t really measure the others. if we had the CL and the HCO3, and subract from Na, the range hsould be 4-10

in metabolic acidosis: usually the anion gap increases since the HCO3 decreases, so the difference between the cations and the anions increases or gets larger

232
Q

metabolic acidosis:

Increased anion gap acidosis

ph? HCO3? comp? Cl? effects on anion gap?

shift?

what is increasing?

what are the four causes? explain what each one causes?

3 tx?

A

pH decrease, HCO3 decreased, Cl normal

ANION GAP: greater than 10

pH: lower than 7.25

cause increase in H, which then combines with HCO3 and decreases the levels

4 causes:

1. lactic acidosis: cardiogenic shock or arrest, lactatic acid unmeasured anion produced due to inadequate tissue profusion or hypoxia

2. dibetic ketone acidosis (DKA): hyperglycemia with lack of insulin causing increased production of B-hydroxybutric acid and acetoacetic acid KETO acids, if no insulin the fats break down abonromal and produce more acid or H

3. toxins: ethylene glycol, salicyclates, methanol

4. uremia: severe renal failure leads to endoenous acids

TX:

  1. insulin
  2. electrolyte replacement
  3. volume expansion
233
Q

explain what things you lose if you have a lot of vomiting and diarrhea?

A

gastric acid: has a lot of Na and a high Cl levels, if a lot of vomiting loose Na, Cl, and a lot of H

diarrhea: has a lot of Na, Cl, and a lot of HCO3

234
Q

metabolic acidosis:

normal anion gap acidosis

what is the hallmark findings for this?

what increases that causes the normal anion gap?

what are the two main cases of this?

explain the first.

A

hallmark:

decreased pH, decreased HCO3, HYPERCHLOREMIA

***the increase in Cl compensates for the loss of HCO3 so the anion gap appeares normal***

causes:

  1. massive secretory diarrhea: massive loss HCO3 (NaCl and K loss as well)
    a. causes Na and Cl retention at the kidney since significant VOLUME DEPLETION
    b. as HCO3 secretion in the small/large bowel causes _Cl absorption VIA COUNTERTRANSPORT!!! **this is why you see increase in the Cl which makes the anion gap appeare nromal_***
    think: bicarb levels go down (acidosis), Cl levels go up=normal anion gap
  2. renal tubular acidosis
235
Q

metabolic acidosis:

normal anion gap acidosis

Renal tubular acidosis

explain the three types!

A

decreased pH, decreased HCO3, increased Cl in the ABSENCE OF DIAHREAHH

1.distal renal tubular acidosis:deficiency in H secretion by distal nephron, can’t acidify the urine and so the H stays in the blood; enhanced K secretion

2. proximal renal tubular acidosis: can’t adequately reabsorb filtered HCO3

3. hyporeninemic hypoaldosterone renal tubular acidosis: impaired Na reabsorption, impaired K and H secretion hypercholeremic acidosis with hyperkalemia

if any of these suspected get nephrology consult

236
Q

case:

JR has intermittent vomiting and severe diarrhea for 4 days. He has been unable to keep fluids down and has not urinated in 8 hours. He has cardiomyopathy and compensated HF. Appears lethargic and cool to the touch. pH 7.3, PCO2=28 mmHG, HCO3=14, Na=136, K=3, Cl 110

A

pH=acidosis

HCO3= decreased, metabolic

PCO2=decreased, compensatory

elevated chloride

Na, K=normal

DX: compensatory metabolic acidosis, slightly increased anion gap add Na-(HCO3+Cl) should be between 4-10, his is 12

237
Q

metabolic alkalosis

what are the hallmarks of this?

ph? hco3? pco2? shift?

what is the one thing that causes this?

what are 2 things you loose?

explain the two perpetuation factors?

Tx?

A

hypokalemia

hypochloremia metabolic alkalosis

pH increases, HCO3 increases, PCO2 increases (comp)

causes: SEVERE VOMITING causes HCl and Nacl loss from stomache initiates alkalosis and volume contraction
1. Cl loss sustains the alkalosis because increase in renal Na absorption to maintain volume is accompanied by HCO3 REABSORPTION
2. actiation of RAA systems to maintain volume causes hypokalemia (increase in Na cause decrease in K and H losses)….so as more Na is absorbed, so is HCO3

TX:

1. 0.9% saline (isotonic) with SUPPLEMENTAL KCL

238
Q

why must you ALWAYS treat metabolic alkalosis?

A

***MUST TREAT BECAUSE THE PROBLEM SELF PERPETUATES UNTIL NA/K/CL AND H20 ARE REPLENISHED***

think about how the increase Cl loss causes HCO3 reabsorption that maintains alkalosis, volume depletion causes Na reabsorption and K loss, the more it is activated the more K you loose

239
Q

case: a 27 year old is brought to the ED by his gf after found obtunded at home. RR 6, BP 100/60, PH 7.26 PCO2: 65 mmHG, PO2: 68 mmHg, HCO3 31

what is this?

tx?

how long has it been going on?

A

acidosis

HCO3 elevated

PCO2: elevated

compensated respiratory acidosis

been going on for a few days

tx: support ventilation

240
Q

case: following a alcoholic binge, a 54 year old make presents to the ED with severe nausea and vomiting for 3 days. He has only had water in the last 36 hours. PH 7.5 PCO2: 48 mmHg HCO3 36, Na 129, K2.7, CL84.

what is this?

how do you tx?

A

alkalosis

compensated metabolic alkalosis

low Na

low Cl

low K

compensated metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia, hypokalemia (from activation of the RAA activation)

tx: saline 0.9% and KCL

241
Q

case: 16 yo with DM is brought to ED after collapsing at home. he is dehyrdated, disoriented and hypotensive and his breath has a sweet odor. Urine has high specific gravity and positive for glucose and ketones. pH 7.24. PCO2 25 mmHg. HCO3 10. Glucose 700 mg/dl. Na 124. K 5.2. Cl 98. Creatine 1.0. BUN 24 mg/dl.

A

acidosis

compensated metabolic acidosis

low Na

elevated K

normal Cl

glucose elevated

increased anion gap acidosis

HCO3-down to buffer H

PCO2- down showing compensation

242
Q

case: 24 year old med student becomes extremely anxious prior to his board exams. He is brought to the ED with light-headedness and muscle cramps.pH 7.52. PCO2 25. HCO3: 24

A

respiratory alkalosis

PCO2 decreased

HCO3 normal

tx: breath into paper bag, deal with the anxiety

243
Q

case 7 part 1:

case: a hospitalized man is discovered by nursing staff unconscious with no pulse or respirations. a code is called. they start IV and start CPR. pH 7.01. PCO2 65. HCO3 12. PO2 43HC.

A

PH: acidosis (should be 7.2… but it is 7.01… so what else is contributing to respiratory acidosis… also metabolic acidosis is contributing because HCO3 is low and Lactic acid building up!

PCO2: rise

HCO3: low

initially both respiratory acidosis (since not breathing CO2 build up and metabolic acidosis (lactic acid build up)

244
Q

case 7 part 2:

he is intubated and given 100%O2. CPR is condinued and ABG is done 3 minutes later.

PH 7.21. PCO2 41 mmHG HCO3 13, PO2 280.

A

PCO2: breeathing for patient! So Co2 is better! Blown off the high Pco2 and correctd the respiratory acidosis but his bicarb is still low so he still has a METABOLIC ACIDOSIS GOING ON!

HCO3: low

O2: high

245
Q

case 7 part 3:

following defib he stabilizes. He is placed on ventilator.

PH 7.5 PCO2 26 HCO3 22 PO2 160

A

respiratory alkalosis

over ventilating him

decrease the rate of the ventilator

**blowing off too much CO2**

246
Q

what are the time frames for acute or chronic?

A

acute: days to weeks
chronic: months to years

247
Q

what is oliguria characterized by?

A

less thatn 400 cc in 24 hours

248
Q

uremia

what is this?

A

decreased renal function, axotemia, symptoms

249
Q

creatinine clearance

what is this?

what equation is us?

when is this used?

A

involves 24 hour urine test mated with serum creatinine

fairly accurate and easy

can be measured by inulin (usually in research)

cockcroft-gault equation, tells the creatinine clearance replaced by eGFR

used in hospital with IV antibiotic dosing

250
Q

renal failure

azotemia

what is this?

due to?

symptomatic?

A

excess of urea and nitrogenous compounds in the blood

due to breakdown of proteins

metabolism of carbohydrates and fats yields water and CO2

if symptoms are present use the term uremia

251
Q

renal failure

3 test you should consider ordering for renal failure

4

2

1

A
  1. US

you can see obstructions and size very well!! so this is good!

non invasive

no risky dye contrast dye

readily avaliable

  1. plain Xray

pyelogram

retrograd pyelogram

  1. CT

probally better but risk of dye and raising creatinine

252
Q

pyelogram

A

inject dye cleared through the kidney

viewed with plain view

253
Q

retrograde pyelogram

A

inject dye inside urinary collection system using a cytoscope

viewed with plain xray

254
Q

should you avoid contrast dye in ARF or CRF if not on diaylsis?

A

yes

255
Q

what might be needed to dx intrinsic renal failure?

A

biopsy

256
Q

what is the benefit of doing an US?

A

no radiation or dye

easy and helpful

257
Q

what are 6 complications of acute renal faillure?

A

1. volume overload

decreased sodium and water excretion

resultant weight gain, heart failure, and edema

2. hyponatremia

3. hypocalcemia

paresthesias, cramps, seizures, confusion

4. hyperkalemia (increases), phosphatemia (increases), magnesemia

  1. metabolic acidosis
  2. HTN
258
Q

what are the 5 tx of acute renal failure?

A

1. prevention!!!

(avoid nephrotoxins, diabetes control etc)

2. reverse poisons

(ETOH, bicarbonate in acidosis)

3. restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance

(saline/crystalloids, colloids, blood)

4. dialysis when needed

(acute if responsive or dialyzable toxin or CRF)

5. relieve obstruction

(easiest way to fix ARF)

259
Q

how long does it take acute renal failure to come on?

are there symptoms?

A

hours to days

typically little symptoms found randomly on lab tests

260
Q

what are the 3 classifications of acute renal failure?

what one is most common?

A

1. prerenal renal failure (renal hypoprofusion) 55%

2. renal/parenchyma/intrinsic 45%

3. post renal (obstructive) 5%

pre renal azotemia (failure) most common

261
Q

acute renal failure

prerenal azotemia

what are the two things that cause this the most often?

permanent/reversible?

damage to kidney?

3 things that cause the first?

4 things that cause the second

A

due to renal hypoprofusion and Hypovolemia

usually reversible if restoring renal blood flow (RBF)

parenchyma usually not damaged

in severe cases, ischemia/injury

1. hypovolemia

a. fluid loss

b. decreased cardiac output

c. decreased systemic vasculature

causing:

  • epi relase and vasoconstriction
  • RAA activation
  • arginine vasopressin rlease
    2. renal hypoprofusion

a. vasoconstriction from epi

b. cycloxygenase inhibitors

c. hyperviscosity syndrome

d. hepatorenal syndome

262
Q

acute kidney failure

prerenal azoturia:

hepatorenal syndrome causing hypoprofusion of kidneys

what is this?

what does it do?

A

cirrhosis leads to intrarenal vasoconstriction

sodium retention

precipitated by:

bleeding

paracentesis

diuretics

vasodilation

cycloocygenase inhibitors

263
Q

acute renal failure

prerenal azouremia

2 signs

4 symptoms

2 tests and 1 result

A

symptoms

thirst

dizzy

signs

low BP

tachycardia

orthostasis

low urine output

lab evaluation

urine volume

urine microscopy

hyaline/bland casts due to concentrated urine

264
Q

acute renal failure:

intrinsic renal failure

what are the two main categories of this?

2 in fist

6 im second

WHAT ONE IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF intrinsic renal disease?

A
  1. renovascular cause

a. obstructed renal artery (atherosclerosis/thrombus)
b. renal vein obstruction
2. glomerular/microvascular disease
a. glomerulonephritis
b. vasculitis
c. acute tubular necrosis *MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INTRINSIC RENAL FAILURE*
d. ischemia/neprotoxin
e. intersitial nephritis

265
Q

what are 6 nephrotoxins that can cause acute intrinsic renal failure?

A
  1. radioconstrast dye
  2. aminoglycosides
  3. cyclosporine
  4. chemo
  5. solvents (ETOH)
  6. endogenous nephrotoxin (things in the body taht can be toxic if too much is present, rhabdomylosis, hemolysis, UA etc.
266
Q

Acute intrinsic renal failure

nephrotoxins:

radiocontrast dye

what does this cause?

how long after exposure?

what are the 4 features?

how can you prevent this?

tx?

A

intrarenal vasoconstriction resulting in acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

24-48 hours after contrast exposure

FEATURES:

  1. decrease eGFR
  2. sediment
  3. reversible
  4. elevation of BUN

HOW TO AVOID:

use NON IONIC contrast, more expensive

resolves 1-2 weeks

267
Q

what are 7 RF for having a negative rxn to contrast dye and having it cause acute intrinsic renal failure?

A

age over 80

CKD

diabetes

CHF

hypovolemia

multiple myeloma

chemotherapy, antibiotics

268
Q

acutre intrinsic renal failure

  1. are there symptoms?
  2. signs?
  3. what might you see on labs (5)
  4. tx?
A

often no sxs

signs:

azotemia on lab tests

labs:

  1. muddy brown casts (ischemia/nephroxic)
  2. red cell cats (nephritis/acute glomerular)
  3. eosinophilic cats (allergic nephritis)
  4. white cell casts (interstitial nephritis)
  5. proteinuria
269
Q

what are the 4 signs of nephritic syndrome?

A
  1. olioguria
  2. edema
  3. HTN
  4. urine sediment
270
Q

acute postrenal kidney failure

what is this?

what are 6 things that can cause it?

A

urinary outflow obstruction

single kidney or urethral obstruction leading to anuria

causes:

  1. prostate disease
  2. neurogenic bladder (spinal cord injuries)
  3. anticholinergics
  4. blood clots
  5. stones
  6. tumor or other extrarenal obstruction
271
Q

acute postrenal failure

what are 4 signs of this?

what are the 2 tx options?

A

SIGNS:

  1. bladder distension

2. abdominal pain-colic

3. renal distension (check with US)

4. hx of RF (prostate disease, stones etc)

TREATMENT:

fix the plumbing!

  1. urologist

2. nephrostomy tube or suprapubic catherer

272
Q

what might dopamine promote?

A

water and sodium excretion

273
Q

what are 5 conditions that might warrent dialysis?

A
  1. uremia
  2. hypervolemia
  3. hyperkalemia
  4. acidosis
  5. toxins (multiple, digoxin)
274
Q

end stage chronic renal failure

characterized by what 3 things?

A
  1. proteinuria
  2. hematuria
  3. 3 month of disease and eGFR less than 60/ml
275
Q

what are the stages and values for eGFR of CKD?

A
276
Q

currently what are the two most common causes of end stage CKD/uremia?

A
  1. diabetes
  2. HTN
277
Q

uremia

what is this?

A

azotemia

+

syndrome of anemia, malnuitrition, and metabolic problem

278
Q

what are 5 sxs of end stage CKD?

A

anorexia (weight loss/loss of appetite)

nausea/vomiting

malaise

headache

itching

279
Q

what is important to keep in mind with creatinine/bun?

explain this in relationship to eGFR/

A

they follow disease not symptoms

greater 50: normal

35-50 usually BUN and creatinine normal

20-30 usually symptoms or signs or uremia with decreased stress threshold

280
Q

what are 3 metabolic effects you see with chronic kidney disease?

A
  1. hypothermia: decreased Na transport; source of energy/head
  2. impaired carbohydrate metabolism: “pseudodiabetes”, slower handling of glucose load to insulin resistance
  3. increased triglycerides
281
Q

when does decreased K excretion occur? what does this leave the chronic kidney disease patient at risk for?

A

typically occurs if GFR less than 10 cc/min

at risk for hyperkalemia

282
Q

why does CKD cause calcium disorders?

what is the nickname for this? what two things contribute to fracture risk? explain the process?

A

“renal osteodystrophies”

osteomalacia and osteitis fibrosa cystica due to hyperthyroidism increase fracture risk

Reasoning:

  1. decreased conversion of vitamin D to 1,25 dihydroxy (activated) vitamin D
  2. decreased calcium in serum since less active vitamin D to absorb it
  3. increase in PTH in response to low Ca
  4. results in weakness of bones because it sucks the the Ca out
283
Q

phosphorus disorders

seen in CKD

why is this increased?

what is the domino effect of increase phosphorus?

what are 3 tx options?

A

decreased phosphorus excretion in CKD so it accumulates in the blood

Domino effect of bad things:

  1. causes low calcium
  2. increase in PTH
  3. bone reabsorption
  4. weak bones/fractures

TX:

  1. decrease serum phosphate
    - diet restriction of proteins, dairy, colas

-calcium carbonate

-selevemer

284
Q

what is the goal level of calcium phophorus (calcium * phosphours) levels in the body?

A

below 70 else solid organs/arteries/joints calcification (calciphylaxis)

285
Q

what is the most common complication of end stage renal disease?

A

hypertension

286
Q

what are 7 random other things you can see with CKDs?

A
  1. pericarditis (toxin induced)
  2. anemia
  3. metabolic acidosis
  4. thrombocytopenia
  5. bruising/bleeding
  6. platelet dysfunction
  7. infection
287
Q

anemia in CKD

what are 5 causes of this?

what helped to sove this problem?

decreased need for?

A

Causes:

  1. bone marrow toxins
  2. decreased eryhtropoetin
  3. hemolysis
  4. hemodilution
  5. decreased RBC

**this used to be aa HUGE problem in CKD patients, but now with ERYTHROPOETIN we can fight it!! REVOLUTION!** and helps to limit the need for transfusion

288
Q

explain what sxs you would see in CKD for:

neuromuscular

gastro

*don’t memorize just read it*

A

neuromuscular

decreased concentration

drowsiness

insomnia

hiccups

cramps/twitches

periphreal neuropathy/restless leg syndrome

more severe

stupor

seizure

coma

gastrointestinal

anorexia

N/V

hiccups

uremic fetor/ bad breath

mucosal irritation

289
Q

when is transplant or dialysis appropriate?

where can you get it from?

A

creatinine greater than 8

creatinine clearance less than 10

donor

cadaver

290
Q

hemodialysis

what are the three ways you can accomplish this?

what alows you to accomplish this?

what are the 2 requirements?

what are 2 things you must monitor?

A
  1. requires a shunt that connects artery and vein, “must ripen”, allow for diffusion across semipermeable membrane

  1. artificial options
  2. IV cathertic into IJ

REQUIREMENTS:

300-450 ml/min blood flow

9-12 hour commitment a week

MONITOR:

KT/V

urea pre and post dialysis

291
Q

what are complications of hemodialysis?

what must they have?

A

required to take heparin cause the blood can clot outside of the body in machine

complications:

anemia

poor flow rates

plugged grafts

infection

aneurysm

disequilibrium

arrhythmia

hypotension

infection

292
Q

peritoneal dialysis

what is this process?

what are 3 advantges?

A

catheter- can use immediately, goes in the stomach, put catheter in the belly dump fluid in there with certain osmolarity and you keep doing it over and over again and it comes out, makes you less likely to be able to receive a kidney

push fluid for 4-6 hours

intermittent tx

can do at night, cyclic

Advantages:

  1. no heparin
  2. independence
  3. no vascular acess
293
Q

what are 3 disadvantes of periotoneal dialysis?

A
  1. DONT USE IN LUNG DISEASE

2. PERITONITIS major risk( may be so risky that they can be disqualified from recieving a kidney transplant)

  1. need to be trained
294
Q

which is better hemodyalysis or peritoneal dialysis?

A

hemodyalysis does better

295
Q

what is the most effective way to tx CKD?

what must they be?

time frame?

success/

A

transplant!

must be HLA compatible on chromosome 6

24-48 hour timeframe for transplant

family donor higher success rate!

296
Q

can you get live vaccines in transplant? what do you need to be careful of?

A

no live vaccines

hew zoster vaccine is LIVE!!

297
Q

explain the chronic and acute rejection symptoms?

what are two things you need to check for to determine if this is occuring?

A

Acute rejection:

fever

swelling

pain

Chronic rejection:

nephrosclerosis

renal ischemia, HTN, fibrosis

**need to check creatinine and get a biopsy to confirm after ruling out ostruction via arteriogram/US**

298
Q

what is the most common cause of death in CKD patient?

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS

299
Q

PROTEINURIA

microablumemia

albumin levels

explain!!

A

some urine excretion of protein is normal but not a lot!

Urine tests for protinuria are used to detect abnormal filtering ofalbumin in the glomerulus or abnormal absorption in the proximal tubule

  1. a rapid dipstick can be used to detect small amounts of urine in the blood just tells PRSENCE
  2. once protein is present then run 24 hour urine to quantify the amount

ALBUMIN IS THE SMALLEST PROTEIN so it filters before others when there is the begining stages of damage.

1. MICROALBUMEMIA tends to occur long before clinical proteinura, so we can screen for this using a microalbumemia dipstick only tells us PRESENCE not how much

  1. 24 hr albumin to quantify

greater than 30 is abnormal

300
Q

what albumin level is conistent with tubular damage? glomerular damage?

A

tubular: 1000 mg 24 hr
glomerular: 1000-3000 24 hr

301
Q

the source of most proteinurias is…..

A

glomerular proteins, like albumin!

302
Q

what are two other things that contribute to the total urine protein other than albumin?

A

IgA

Tamm-horsfall proteins

303
Q

what are three conditions that can lead to proteinuria?

A

1. acute tubular necrosis

2. multiple myeloma

-light chain protein in the urine bence jones

3. nephrotic syndrome

  • greater than 3500
  • hypoalbumemia (refers to loss of it from blood into urine)
  • edema
  • hyperlipidemia
  • hypercoagulabiliy
304
Q

what are the 4 tests used to asses for proteinuria?

A

1. standard dipstick (tests for protein total of all types)

2. microalbumin dipstick for albumin between 30-300 (should be less than 30)

3. albumin total 24 hour urine amount!

4. albumin to creatinine ration takes into account the amount of urine that was produced

305
Q

hematuria

what is this classificed by?

options for presentation?

3 test to order?

A

2-5 RBC per high power field

can either be:

  1. gross (visible)
  2. microscopic

tests:

UA

cytology

US

306
Q

if a patient has hematuria without specific cause what MUST YOU DO EVERY SINGLE TIME!?!?!

A

RULE OUT MALIGNANCY!!!!! YOU MUST DO THIS.

307
Q

what is the most common glomerulonopathy?

A

IgA nephropathy

308
Q

if thinking nephrotic syndrome….think….

A

HIGH PROTEIN!!!