CLS 790 Serology Quiz #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Immunofixation Electrophoresis

A

Serum run on different rows of gel, anti-antibodies used to see each type of immunoglobulins in each row

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Titer results

A

Dilution factor of last dilution that shows positive result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prozone

A

More antibodies than antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post-zone

A

More antigen than antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Zone of equivalence

A

Antigen and antibody concentrations close enough to form immune complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Precipitation assays

A

soluble antigen reacts with soluble antibody (turbidity/nephelometry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ouchterlony formation patterns

A

Identity: solid bent line between antibody, unkown antigen, and standard antigen
Non-identity: crossed lines, little similarity between standard and unkown antigen
Partial identity: lines close but obviously distinct, standard and unknown antigen have similar epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Radial immunodiffusion

A

Agar has antibody in it, patient sample added to well, allowed to difuse
Ring is formed, diameter of ring is proportional to concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis

A

Antigens run on gel first, trough cut and antibody added which diffuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Low amounts of Ig’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A-gammaglobulinemia

A

Absence of Ig’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hypergammopathy

A

Too many Ig’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Direct agglutination

A

Antigen directly combines with antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indirect agglutination

A

Carrier molecule coated with antigen, reacts with antibody in more visible way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hemmaglutination

A

ABO blood group assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flocculation test

A

Precipitate of fine particles, use indirect method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complement fixation test

A

No hemolysis = complement reacted with Ag/Ab complex (Ab is present in patient)
Hemolysis = complement not fixed onto Ag/Ab complex, no Ab in patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Western Blot

A

Proteins, using electrophoresis the use anti-protein antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Southern Blot

A

DNA, using electrophoresis and radioisotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Heterophile antibodies

A

IgM’s produced in infection that are capable of binding to unrelated antigens from other species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Forssman antibody

A

Antibody developed during mono infection also reacts against guinea pig kidney and sheep RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Heterophile antibody tests

A

Paul Bunnell, Dadisohn Differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Asymptomatic to mono-like symptoms (birth defects cause hydrocephalus)
Domestic cat is host, difficult to culture, use EIA to test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nontreponemal tests

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
VDRL test
Looking for flocculation on slide, can do quantitative to monitor treatment, CSF can only be tested via VDRL
26
ANA test
Screening test for autoantibody reactivity
27
Homogenous ANA pattern usually indicative of:
SLE (systemic lupus erythamatosus)
28
Centromere (discrete speckled) ANA pattern usually indicative of:
Scleroderma (CREST)
29
Speckled ANA pattern usually indicative of:
Sjogren syndrom
30
Nucleolar ANA pattern usually indicative of:
Scleroderma
31
SLE clinical presentation
Multi-organ involvement (skin, joints, kidney, lungs, CNS), non-deforming arthritis, Raynaud's, butterfly rash, anemia, decreased platelets, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
32
Drug-induced SLE
Has antibodies to histones but not to ds-DNA, shows positive on ANA but negative on Crithidia lucilae
33
Crithidia lucilae
Single cell protozoan, has mitochondrial mass of ds-DNA, SLE antibodies react
34
SLE antibodies
Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith
35
Sjogren's Syndrome clinical presentation
Affects lacrimal and salivary glands (dry eyes and mouth, pain and swelling in glands)
36
Sjogren's Syndrome antibodies
Anti-La, rheumatoid factor (need biobsy of salivary glands for definitive diagnosis)
37
Scleroderma 2 forms
Progressive diffuse, systemic CREST
38
CREST meaning
``` Calcinosis (bone formation) Raynaud Esophogeal involvment Sclerodactyly (hard fingers) Telangiectasia (spider veins) ```
39
Scleroderma clinical presentation
Cyanosis, puffy face, hard skin, GI symptoms, lung and heart arrythmias
40
Scleroderma antibodies
Anti-centromere
41
Insulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus antibodies
Anti-beta cells, can't produce insulin
42
MIXED Connective tissue disease clinical presentation
Joint pain, stiffness, esophageal disfunction, progressively worsening, leukopenia, arthritis
43
MIXED Connective tissue disease antibodies
Anti-ssDNA
44
Rheumatoid arthritis clinical presentation
Joint swelling, morning stiffness, weight loss, fatigue, low grade fever
45
Rheumatoid arthritis antibodies
Rheumatoid factor (IgG, IgM, IgA)
46
Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies
Anti-liver smooth muscle
47
Goodpasture's disease antibodies
Anti-glomerular basement membrane
48
Pernicious anemia antibodies
Anti-parietal cell
49
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
Increased TSH, normal T3/T4, hypothyroidism
50
Grave's disease
Increased T3/T4, decreased TSH, hyperthyroidism
51
Pernicious anemia clinical signs
Can't absorb vitamin B12 due to destruction of parietal cells in GI, inability to secret HCl, and intrinsic factor (IF)
52
Autoimmune liver disease antibodies
Anti-liver soluble protein Anti-liver membrane Anti-acidoglycoprotein receptor
53
Nephelometry
Measuring light scattering off of Ag/Ab complexes, more scattered light means more complexes
54
Liver disease
Non-infectious inflammation in the bile ducts, disease manifests initially as a painless jaundice with itching. Progresses to ductal occlusion, results in cirrhosis, end stage liver failure
55
What type of patterns are seen in ANAs of liver disease?
mixture of speckled, homogenous, anticentromic, nuclear membrane patterns
56
Who is mainly affected by pernicious anemia?
Elderly females
57
What is the treatment for pernicious anemia?
injections of B12
58
What are the signs of Grave's disease?
Enlargement of the thyroid, tachycardia, bulging eyes, weight loss
59
What does ANA test react with?
nuclear DNA/RNA of substrate cells
60
What cells does ANA test use?
HEp-2 cells at different stages of mitosis react that with the patient’s anti-nuclear antibody
61
What is an example of a sandwich test?
ANA test
62
What do Hemagglutination | tests use?
RBCs (viral test)
63
What is Double Immunodiffusion Assay used for?
detecting antibodies associated with autoimmune disorders
64
In Goodpasture's syndrome, what happens when there's presence of autoantibody to the glomerular basement membranes?
Results in injury to the glomerulus that progresses rapidly to renal failure
65
In SLE, what is the cause of tissue damage?
Tissue damage is due to ab/ag complexes in the renal glomeruli, skin, and choroid plexus of the brain.
66
How do you distinguish MIXED connective tissue disease from SLE?
MIXED connective tissue disease does NOT have multiple anti-SM and anti-ds-DNA antibodies
67
One of the only autoimmune diseases that affects more males than females
Anklyosing spondylitis
68
What cells secrete IgG rhematoid factor?
Plasma cells
69
What does RA latex agglutination most detect?
IgM rheumatoid factor
70
What is the difference between organ-specific and systemic autoimmune disorders?
- Systemetic = a series of organs affected | - Organ-specific = affects just one organ
71
What are the 4 organ-specific autoimmune diseases?
1. Hashimoto's thyroiditis 2. Grave's disease 3. GI tract disease 4. Liver disease
72
What are systemic autoimmune disorders?
- SLE | - Sjogren's syndrome
73
What is Raynaud's syndrome?
cyanosis on cold temperatures; stress-induced vasoconstriction Has also been associated with the antinuclear antibody conditions (RNP)