CLS 790 Serology Quiz #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Immunofixation Electrophoresis

A

Serum run on different rows of gel, anti-antibodies used to see each type of immunoglobulins in each row

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2
Q

Titer results

A

Dilution factor of last dilution that shows positive result

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3
Q

Prozone

A

More antibodies than antigen

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4
Q

Post-zone

A

More antigen than antibody

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5
Q

Zone of equivalence

A

Antigen and antibody concentrations close enough to form immune complexes

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6
Q

Precipitation assays

A

soluble antigen reacts with soluble antibody (turbidity/nephelometry)

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7
Q

Ouchterlony formation patterns

A

Identity: solid bent line between antibody, unkown antigen, and standard antigen
Non-identity: crossed lines, little similarity between standard and unkown antigen
Partial identity: lines close but obviously distinct, standard and unknown antigen have similar epitopes

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8
Q

Radial immunodiffusion

A

Agar has antibody in it, patient sample added to well, allowed to difuse
Ring is formed, diameter of ring is proportional to concentration

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9
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis

A

Antigens run on gel first, trough cut and antibody added which diffuses

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10
Q

Hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Low amounts of Ig’s

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11
Q

A-gammaglobulinemia

A

Absence of Ig’s

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12
Q

Hypergammopathy

A

Too many Ig’s

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13
Q

Direct agglutination

A

Antigen directly combines with antibody

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14
Q

Indirect agglutination

A

Carrier molecule coated with antigen, reacts with antibody in more visible way

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15
Q

Hemmaglutination

A

ABO blood group assay

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16
Q

Flocculation test

A

Precipitate of fine particles, use indirect method

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17
Q

Complement fixation test

A

No hemolysis = complement reacted with Ag/Ab complex (Ab is present in patient)
Hemolysis = complement not fixed onto Ag/Ab complex, no Ab in patient

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18
Q

Western Blot

A

Proteins, using electrophoresis the use anti-protein antibody

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19
Q

Southern Blot

A

DNA, using electrophoresis and radioisotopes

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20
Q

Heterophile antibodies

A

IgM’s produced in infection that are capable of binding to unrelated antigens from other species

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21
Q

Forssman antibody

A

Antibody developed during mono infection also reacts against guinea pig kidney and sheep RBC

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22
Q

Heterophile antibody tests

A

Paul Bunnell, Dadisohn Differential

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23
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Asymptomatic to mono-like symptoms (birth defects cause hydrocephalus)
Domestic cat is host, difficult to culture, use EIA to test

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24
Q

Nontreponemal tests

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

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25
Q

VDRL test

A

Looking for flocculation on slide, can do quantitative to monitor treatment, CSF can only be tested via VDRL

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26
Q

ANA test

A

Screening test for autoantibody reactivity

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27
Q

Homogenous ANA pattern usually indicative of:

A

SLE (systemic lupus erythamatosus)

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28
Q

Centromere (discrete speckled) ANA pattern usually indicative of:

A

Scleroderma (CREST)

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29
Q

Speckled ANA pattern usually indicative of:

A

Sjogren syndrom

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30
Q

Nucleolar ANA pattern usually indicative of:

A

Scleroderma

31
Q

SLE clinical presentation

A

Multi-organ involvement (skin, joints, kidney, lungs, CNS), non-deforming arthritis, Raynaud’s, butterfly rash, anemia, decreased platelets, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

32
Q

Drug-induced SLE

A

Has antibodies to histones but not to ds-DNA, shows positive on ANA but negative on Crithidia lucilae

33
Q

Crithidia lucilae

A

Single cell protozoan, has mitochondrial mass of ds-DNA, SLE antibodies react

34
Q

SLE antibodies

A

Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith

35
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome clinical presentation

A

Affects lacrimal and salivary glands (dry eyes and mouth, pain and swelling in glands)

36
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome antibodies

A

Anti-La, rheumatoid factor (need biobsy of salivary glands for definitive diagnosis)

37
Q

Scleroderma 2 forms

A

Progressive diffuse, systemic CREST

38
Q

CREST meaning

A
Calcinosis (bone formation)
Raynaud
Esophogeal involvment
Sclerodactyly (hard fingers)
Telangiectasia (spider veins)
39
Q

Scleroderma clinical presentation

A

Cyanosis, puffy face, hard skin, GI symptoms, lung and heart arrythmias

40
Q

Scleroderma antibodies

A

Anti-centromere

41
Q

Insulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus antibodies

A

Anti-beta cells, can’t produce insulin

42
Q

MIXED Connective tissue disease clinical presentation

A

Joint pain, stiffness, esophageal disfunction, progressively worsening, leukopenia, arthritis

43
Q

MIXED Connective tissue disease antibodies

A

Anti-ssDNA

44
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis clinical presentation

A

Joint swelling, morning stiffness, weight loss, fatigue, low grade fever

45
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis antibodies

A

Rheumatoid factor (IgG, IgM, IgA)

46
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

A

Anti-liver smooth muscle

47
Q

Goodpasture’s disease antibodies

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane

48
Q

Pernicious anemia antibodies

A

Anti-parietal cell

49
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A

Increased TSH, normal T3/T4, hypothyroidism

50
Q

Grave’s disease

A

Increased T3/T4, decreased TSH, hyperthyroidism

51
Q

Pernicious anemia clinical signs

A

Can’t absorb vitamin B12 due to destruction of parietal cells in GI, inability to secret HCl, and intrinsic factor (IF)

52
Q

Autoimmune liver disease antibodies

A

Anti-liver soluble protein
Anti-liver membrane
Anti-acidoglycoprotein receptor

53
Q

Nephelometry

A

Measuring light scattering off of Ag/Ab complexes, more scattered light means more complexes

54
Q

Liver disease

A

Non-infectious inflammation in the bile ducts, disease manifests initially as a painless jaundice with itching. Progresses to ductal occlusion, results in cirrhosis, end stage liver failure

55
Q

What type of patterns are seen in ANAs of liver disease?

A

mixture of speckled, homogenous, anticentromic, nuclear membrane patterns

56
Q

Who is mainly affected by pernicious anemia?

A

Elderly females

57
Q

What is the treatment for pernicious anemia?

A

injections of B12

58
Q

What are the signs of Grave’s disease?

A

Enlargement of the thyroid, tachycardia, bulging eyes, weight loss

59
Q

What does ANA test react with?

A

nuclear DNA/RNA of substrate cells

60
Q

What cells does ANA test use?

A

HEp-2 cells at different stages of mitosis react that with the patient’s anti-nuclear antibody

61
Q

What is an example of a sandwich test?

A

ANA test

62
Q

What do Hemagglutination

tests use?

A

RBCs (viral test)

63
Q

What is Double Immunodiffusion Assay used for?

A

detecting antibodies associated with autoimmune disorders

64
Q

In Goodpasture’s syndrome, what happens when there’s presence of autoantibody to the glomerular basement membranes?

A

Results in injury to the glomerulus that progresses rapidly to renal failure

65
Q

In SLE, what is the cause of tissue damage?

A

Tissue damage is due to ab/ag complexes in the renal glomeruli, skin, and choroid plexus of the brain.

66
Q

How do you distinguish MIXED connective tissue disease from SLE?

A

MIXED connective tissue disease does NOT have multiple anti-SM and anti-ds-DNA antibodies

67
Q

One of the only autoimmune diseases that affects more males than females

A

Anklyosing spondylitis

68
Q

What cells secrete IgG rhematoid factor?

A

Plasma cells

69
Q

What does RA latex agglutination most detect?

A

IgM rheumatoid factor

70
Q

What is the difference between organ-specific and systemic autoimmune disorders?

A
  • Systemetic = a series of organs affected

- Organ-specific = affects just one organ

71
Q

What are the 4 organ-specific autoimmune diseases?

A
  1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  2. Grave’s disease
  3. GI tract disease
  4. Liver disease
72
Q

What are systemic autoimmune disorders?

A
  • SLE

- Sjogren’s syndrome

73
Q

What is Raynaud’s syndrome?

A

cyanosis on cold temperatures; stress-induced vasoconstriction

Has also been associated with the antinuclear antibody conditions (RNP)