CLP WK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What legislation primarily governs the role of a solicitor at a police station?

A

Police and Criminal Evidence Act (PACE) 1984

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2
Q

According to PACE, what is the solicitor’s primary responsibility at a police station?

A

To protect and advance the legal rights of their client

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3
Q

What is meant by “active defence” in the context of a solicitor’s role?

A

Actively defending and promoting a client’s interests during police procedures, not just passively observing.

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4
Q

Name three components of “active defence” a solicitor might undertake.

A

Gathering information from the police, providing advice on legal rights and procedures (e.g., samples, detention extensions, searches), and attending and advising during interviews.

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5
Q

Why is it essential for a solicitor to take comprehensive notes at the police station?

A

Notes can serve as crucial evidence in court regarding police conduct or the advice given, and enhance credibility when giving evidence.

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6
Q

Which Annex of the PACE Codes of Practice defines vulnerability?

A

Annex E

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7
Q

Provide two criteria that might indicate a suspect is vulnerable.

A

Difficulty understanding their rights or the implications of their situation, and being prone to confusion or easily accepting suggestions without comprehension.

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8
Q

Who is responsible for assessing a suspect’s vulnerability upon detention?

A

The Custody Officer

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9
Q

What steps should a Custody Officer take if a suspect is deemed vulnerable?

A

Arrange for an appropriate adult to be present and inform them about the grounds for detention.

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10
Q

Name three individuals who can act as an appropriate adult.

A

Parents, guardians, relatives, or individuals experienced in dealing with vulnerable persons (over 18 years old).

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11
Q

Identify three individuals who CANNOT act as an appropriate adult.

A

The suspect’s solicitor, minors, police officers, or anyone with a conflict of interest in the case.

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12
Q

Is an appropriate adult generally required for interviewing a vulnerable person?

A

Yes, unless there are urgent interview exceptions.

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13
Q

Who can authorize an urgent interview of a vulnerable person without an appropriate adult?

A

A superintendent or higher-ranking officer.

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14
Q

What two conditions must be met for an urgent interview without an appropriate adult to be authorised?

A

The interview must not significantly harm the suspect’s mental/physical state, and a delay must pose risks to evidence or safety.

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15
Q

Name three responsibilities a solicitor has during an interview with a vulnerable client.

A

Ensuring an appropriate adult is present, requesting medical assessments if needed, and allowing adequate time for the client to provide their account and receive clear advice.

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16
Q

What two things should a solicitor clarify to a vulnerable client before an interview?

A

The solicitor’s role and the implications of a ‘no comment’ interview.

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17
Q

During a police interview, what two actions should a solicitor take to protect a vulnerable client’s interests?

A

Request breaks as needed and monitor the language/tone of police questioning.

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18
Q

Should a solicitor take instructions from third parties about their client?

A

No, unless the client authorises it.

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19
Q

Can a solicitor represent two clients in the same case if there is a conflict of interest?

A

No, especially if one client might blame the other.

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20
Q

What six key responsibilities does a solicitor have when advising a client at a police station?

A

Providing support, assessing fitness for interview, advising on legal position, explaining options, outlining consequences of each option, and offering guidance regarding samples.

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21
Q

What two questions should a solicitor ask a client to understand their involvement in the alleged incident?

A

Do they accept any involvement, and do they have any legal defences?

22
Q

What are the three primary options a client has during a police interview?

A

Answer questions, remain silent (‘go no comment’), or provide a written statement and ‘go no comment’.

23
Q

What is an adverse inference?

A

A conclusion drawn from a person’s actions or silence that negatively impacts their interests during legal proceedings.

24
Q

Give an example of a situation where an adverse inference might be drawn.

A

If a suspect is found with a weapon near a victim’s body, an inference might be drawn that they were involved in the crime.

25
Q

What is the purpose of handing in a prepared written statement at the start of an interview?

A

To mitigate potential adverse inferences by outlining the defence’s case.

26
Q

What is a potential drawback of relying solely on a prepared written statement?

A

It lacks flexibility, and the client will still need to answer ‘no comment’ to any questions posed.

27
Q

Why is it generally not advisable to recommend a “mixed interview” approach?

A

Answering some questions while remaining silent on others can appear evasive to a jury, and it can confuse the client.

28
Q

What seven key factors should a solicitor consider when advising a client on whether to answer questions during an interview?

A

Amount of disclosure, evidence admissibility and strength, client instructions, client’s state, significant statements, and potential adverse inferences.

29
Q

What paragraph of the PACE Codes of Practice outlines the solicitor’s right to receive adequate information from the police?

A

COP C, paragraph 11.1A

30
Q

What might justify advising a client to remain silent during an interview?

A

Insufficient disclosure by the police.

31
Q

What four aspects of evidence should a solicitor consider when assessing its admissibility?

A

Availability of witness statements, compellability of witnesses, legality of evidence collection, and potential need for applications under s.78 PACE to exclude evidence.

32
Q

When might remaining silent during an interview be a beneficial strategy?

A

If the evidence against the client is weak.

33
Q

What is the potential risk of remaining silent even if the evidence seems weak?

A

Additional evidence might emerge later.

34
Q

What should a client consider if they have a valid defence?

A

The risks of not presenting it during the interview, as silence could lead to adverse inferences or damage credibility.

35
Q

What factors might affect a client’s fitness to participate in an interview?

A

Mental health issues, intoxication, or confusion.

36
Q

What legal precedent supports the idea that adverse inferences should not be drawn from a client’s silence due to their mental state?

A

R v Argent

37
Q

What is a significant statement in the context of a police interview?

A

A statement that can be used as evidence against the suspect.

38
Q

What will the officer typically ask the suspect regarding significant statements at the start of the interview?

A

To confirm or deny any significant statements made previously.

39
Q

Which Act outlines the potential for adverse inferences from a suspect’s silence?

A

Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1984

40
Q

Under what three sections of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1984 can adverse inferences be drawn from a suspect’s silence?

A

Sections 34, 36, and 37

41
Q

Briefly explain the adverse inference that can be drawn under Section 34.

A

Failing to mention a fact during questioning that is later relied upon at trial.

42
Q

Briefly explain the adverse inference that can be drawn under Section 36.

A

Not accounting for a mark, object, or substance found on them.

43
Q

Briefly explain the adverse inference that can be drawn under Section 37.

A

Not explaining their presence at a crime scene.

44
Q

What does Section 38 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1984 safeguard against?

A

Convicting a defendant solely based on adverse inferences.

45
Q

What is the legal consequence outlined in Section 35 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1984?

A

Addresses the consequences of silence at trial (covered separately)

46
Q

What caution must be given to a suspect to inform them about the potential for adverse inferences under Section 34?

A

They do not have to say anything, but failing to mention something they later rely on in court may harm their defence.

47
Q

What is the key consideration when assessing the reasonableness of drawing an adverse inference under Section 34?

A

Whether it was reasonable for the suspect to have mentioned the fact during questioning.

48
Q

List four factors that can influence the reasonableness of expecting a suspect to mention a fact.

A

Disclosure by police, the information the suspect knew, the suspect’s condition, and legal advice received.

49
Q

Name three negative implications that drawing an adverse inference can have on a defendant’s case.

A

Implies a fabricated explanation, suggests withheld information, and highlights a lack of reasonable explanation.

50
Q

What specific warning is required for potential adverse inferences under Sections 36 and 37?

A

The officer must inform the suspect about the offence, the facts they must account for, and the consequences of failing to do so.