Cloud Concepts, Architecture, and Design Flashcards

1
Q

What service model is an application like DropBox and Office 365?

A

SaaS

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2
Q

What does the customer have access to in SaaS?

A

Enterprise apps, Desktop apps, and Mobile apps

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3
Q

What service model is a platform like Windows Server?

A

PaaS

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4
Q

What does the customer have access to in PaaS?

A

Development/runtime tools/environment

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5
Q

What service model offers processing, storage, or networking resources like a vDC (Virtual Data Center)?

A

IaaS

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6
Q

What does the customer have access to in IaaS?

A

CPU, disk drives, networks, and data centers

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7
Q

What service category supports real-time interaction and collaboration? Examples include voice over IP (VoIP or Internet telephony), IM, collaboration and videoconference applications using fixed and mobile devices.

A

CaaS - Communications as a Service

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8
Q

What service category supports processing resources to run software?

A

CompaaS - Compute as a service

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9
Q

Concepts and objects related to software computation. Refers to processing power, memory, networking, storage, and other resources required for the computational success of any program.

A

Compute

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10
Q

What can version control be used for?

A

Tracking versions worked on by developers and track configuration of systems and apps.

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11
Q

What is it called when you have the ability to reverse original operations and a move?

A

Reversibility

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12
Q

What is it called when you design workloads that don’t leverage vendor specific features?

A

Portability

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13
Q

What is it called when a vendor can easily support solution integrations?

A

Interoperability

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14
Q

What is it called when data science and statistics are used to uncover hidden knowledge in data accumulated each day?

A

Machine learning

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15
Q

Uncover trends, categorize records, and run biz efficiently.

A

What ML analyzes data to do

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16
Q

What are a collection of techniques designed to mimic human thought processes in computers?

A

AI

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17
Q

What is descriptive analytics?

A

Describing data.

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18
Q

Using existing data to predict future events.

A

Predictive analytics

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19
Q

Optimizing our behavior by simulating many scenarios.

A

Prescriptive analytics

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20
Q

Storing records to distribute among many different systems in a manner that prevents anyone from tampering with them in a ledger.

A

Blockchain technology

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21
Q

What is connecting nontraditional devices to the internet for collection, analysis, and control?

A

IoT - Internet of Things

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22
Q

What is a lightweight way to package an app to make it portable to move easily b/w hardware platforms?

A

Containers

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23
Q

Instead of running hypervisors, systems supporting containers run a…

A

Containerization platform

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24
Q

What is the major benefit of containers over virtual machines?

A

They don’t have their own OS kernel - they use the host’s OS kernel.

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25
Q

What technology seeks to replace the binary 1 and 0 bits of digital computing?

A

Quantum computing

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26
Q

What involves putting processing power on remote sensors and allowing them to perform the heavy lifting required to process data before transmitting a small subset of that data back to the cloud?

A

Edge computing

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27
Q

What involves placing gateway devices out in the field to collect info from sensors and perform that correlation centrally at the remote location before returning data to the cloud?

A

Fog computing

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28
Q

What are edge and fog computing for?

A

Increasing our ability to connect IoT devices to the cloud.

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29
Q

Guarantee that no outside process can view or alter the data being handled within the environment.

A

What trusted execution environments (TEEs) do

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30
Q

Enables scalability, reduces error through use of immutable servers, and makes testing easy.

A

3 things Infrastructure as Code does

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31
Q

Broad network access, on-demand self-service, resource pooling, rapid elasticity and scalability, and metered service.

A

Common cloud characteristics

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32
Q

When services are consistently accessible over the network.

A

Broad network access

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33
Q

When customers can scale their compute and/or storage needs w/ little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider.

A

On-demand self-service

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34
Q

Allows CP to meet various demands from customers while remaining financially viable, and apportion resources as needed so resources aren’t underutilized or overtaxed.

A

Resource pooling

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35
Q

What is rapid elasticity and scalability?

A

Allows customer to grow/shrink IT footprint to meet operational needs without excess capacity.

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36
Q

All cloud activity is metered so you only pay for what you use.

A

Measured/metered service

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37
Q

What is scalability?

A

Ability of system to grow as demand increases.

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38
Q

What is elasticity?

A

Ability of system to dynamically grow/shrink based on current demand.

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39
Q

Aspects of device, process, or employee that are not necessary for accomplishing task but desired.

A

Non-functional requirements

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40
Q

Performance aspects of device, process, employee that are necessary for the business task to be accomplished.

A

Functional requirements

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41
Q

Interviewing functional managers, users, senior mgmt., observing employees, surveying customers, collecting network traffic, inventorying assets, collecting financial/insurance records, marketing data and regulatory mandates.

A

Methods of gathering business requirements

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42
Q

An assessment of the priorities given to each asset and process within the org and the effect harm or loss of asset has to org.

A

BIA

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43
Q

What are important things to consider during BIA?

A

Critical paths and single points of failure.

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44
Q

Routers and servers are examples of _____ assets.

A

Tangible

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45
Q

Software code, ideas, and business methodologies are examples of _____ assets.

A

Intangible

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46
Q

To gain an understanding of what benefits the org might derive from cloud migration and associated costs.

A

Purpose of a cost-benefit analysis

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47
Q

When an organization can experience dramatic/rapid/significant demand without being overwhelmed, and allows customer to dictate volume of resource usage.

A

Rapid elasticity

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48
Q

Augmenting internal/private data center capabilities with managed services during times of increased demand.

A

Cloud bursting

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49
Q

To bring all an organization’s cloud activities under more centralized control, ensure services meet technical, functional, and security requirements, and monitor for duplicative services.

A

Purpose of a cloud governance program

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50
Q

What is Shadow IT?

A

When BLs provision cloud services on their own to satisfy unmet technical needs.

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51
Q

What is a personnel benefit of moving to the Cloud?

A

Not having to pay expensive salaries for Internal IT.

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52
Q

The cloud benefit realized when CP offers holistic, targeted regulatory compliance packages.

A

Regulatory

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53
Q

What’s true about PII?

A

You’re responsible for the data regardless of if you’re using a Cloud service and any breaches from negligence of CP.

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54
Q

Cost-benefit calculations are driven by what?

A

Security concerns.

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55
Q

How do you calculate ROI?

A

Net Profit/Net Assets

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56
Q

What is the service category where the provider delivers an entire app – configuring servers – and customer just uses service?

A

SaaS

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57
Q

What are some SaaS examples?

A

Google Apps, Microsoft Office 365, Dropbox

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58
Q

What is the service category where the customer purchases basic computing resources to create customized IT solutions?

A

IaaS

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59
Q

Compute capacity and data storage are things _____ vendors might provide.

A

IaaS

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60
Q

What are the 4 largest IaaS vendors?

A

AWS, Azure, Google Compute Engine, and Alibaba.

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61
Q

What are these: Virtualized server, block storage, object storage, networking capacity, orchestration of automation to administer the cloud infrastructure.

A

Types of infrastructure capability for IaaS

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62
Q

What is the service category where customers can run their own app code w/out worrying about server config?

A

PaaS

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63
Q

What is the common PaaS capability where customer creates specialized functions that run on a schedule or in response to events?

A

FaaS – Function as a Service

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64
Q

What are the cloud deployment models?

A

Private, public, hybrid, multi-cloud, and community cloud.

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65
Q

What is it called when many different customers share use of the same computing resources?

A

Multitenancy

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66
Q

What is it when a CP can sell customers a total capacity that exceeds the physical capacity of their infrastructure b/c customers will never use all capacity simultaneously?

A

Oversubscription

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67
Q

Multitenancy works because of…

A

Resource pooling.

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68
Q

They offer some product or service that interacts with the primary offerings of a CSP.

A

Cloud service partner

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69
Q

CSPs who offer managed IAM services to cloud customers that integrates security requirements across cloud services.

A

CASB

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70
Q

Use cloud services, perform service trials, monitor services, administer service security, provide billing and usage reports, handle problem reports, administer tenancies, perform biz admin, select/purchase service, request audit reports.

A

Customer responsibilities

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71
Q

Prepare systems and provide cloud services, monitor/administer services, manage assets/inventories, provide audit data, manage customer relationships and handle customer requests, perform peering w/ other cloud providers, ensure compliance, provide network connectivity.

A

CSP responsibilities

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72
Q

Who fulfills the following: Design, create, maintain service component, test services, perform audits, set up legal agreements, acquire and assess customers, and assess marketplace.

A

Cloud Service Partners

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73
Q

When many different virtual servers make use of the same underlying hardware.

A

Virtualization

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74
Q

Virtualization involves the use of…

A

A host machine that has physical hardware that then hosts several virtual guest machines.

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75
Q

Manages the guest VMs and tricks them to think they’re running on its own hardware instead of shared hardware of host machine.

A

Hypervisors

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76
Q

Also called a bare metal hypervisor, runs directly on top of the hardware and then hosts guest OS on top of that.

A

Type 1 hypervisor

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77
Q

Physical machine runs an OS of its own and the hypervisor runs as a program on top of that OS.

A

Type 2 hypervisor

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78
Q

When a hacker is able to break out of a virtualized guest operating system.

A

VM escape attack

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79
Q

What is virtualization technology designed to do?

A

Strictly enforce isolation.

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80
Q

What does virtualization make it easy to do?

A

Create new servers in a data center.

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81
Q

What is it called when there are large numbers of unused and abandoned servers on the network?

A

VM sprawl

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82
Q

Why is VM sprawl dangerous?

A

B/c unused and abandoned servers accumulate serious security vulns if they’re not properly patched.

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83
Q

What is it called when you can create computing resources to solve a problem and then get rid of them when they’re no longer needed?

A

Ephemeral computing

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84
Q

What is protecting assets from unauthorized access?

A

Confidentiality

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85
Q

What is protecting assets against unauthorized modification?

A

Integrity

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86
Q

What is ensuring assets are available for authorized use w/out disruption?

A

Availability

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87
Q

Protecting personal info we store, process, and transmit

A

Privacy

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88
Q

Working through existing and planned cloud relationships to ensure they comply with security, legal, business, and other constraints.

A

Governance

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89
Q

When contracts specify customer has the right to audit cloud providers.

A

Auditability

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90
Q

Ability of the cloud infrastructure to withstand disruptive events.

A

Resiliency

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91
Q

Third party that can conduct an independent assessment of cloud services, information system operations, performance, and security of the cloud implementation.

A

Cloud Service Auditor

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92
Q

An entity that manages the use, performance and delivery of cloud services and negotiates relationships between cloud providers (CSPs) and cloud consumers.

A

Cloud broker

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93
Q

Service intermediation - enhances service
Service aggregation - combines and integrates services
Service arbitrage - choose services from multiple agencies

A

functions of cloud broker

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94
Q

Responsible for business agreement, pricing for the cloud customer.

A

cloud service manager

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95
Q

The ability of a system to automatically grow and shrink based on app demand

A

elasticity

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96
Q

Ability to grow as demand increases.

A

scalability

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97
Q

Number of minutes of virtual server compute time
Amount of disk space you consume
Number of function calls you make
Amount of network egress and ingress

A

common metrics for measured service

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98
Q

5 building block technologies of the cloud

A

compute, databases, network, storage, orchestration

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99
Q

CSP provides the server, storage, and networking hardware and its virtualization. Customer installs middleware and applications.

A

compute

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100
Q

All virtualized to allow customers to design and customize to their needs. Enables customers to segment and restrict access however they would like.

A

network

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101
Q

A network architecture approach that enables the network to be intelligently and centrally controlled, or ‘programmed,’ using software

A

storage defined network (sdn)

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102
Q

3 layers of sdn

A

management, control, data

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103
Q

The business applications that manage the underlying control plane are exposed with _____.

A

northbound interfaces

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104
Q

Control of network functionality and programmability is made directly to devices at this layer.

A

control plane

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105
Q

The network switches and routers located at this plane are associated with the underlying network infrastructure.

A

data plane

106
Q

Ensures only trusted, authorized applications access critical network resources.

A

Northbound interface

107
Q

OpenFlow protocol interfaces with devices through _____

A

southbound interfaces

108
Q

_____storage maps a logical unit number (LUN) on a storage area network (SAN) to a VM.

A

raw

109
Q

Offered by some CSPs, this is tailored to the needs of data archiving. This may include features like search, immutability, and data lifecycle management. Typically use either Volume or Object storage infrastructure.

A

long-term storage

110
Q

Volume storage is also called:

A

block

111
Q

Examples of object storage

A

S3 and azure blob

112
Q

Ensures that all copies of the data have been duplicated among all relevant copies before finalizing the transaction to increase availability.

A

strict consistency

113
Q

Consistency of data is relaxed, which reduces the number of replicas that must be accessed during read and write operations before the transaction is finalized.

A

eventual consistency

114
Q

Where content is stored in object storage, then replicated to multiple geographically distributed nodes to improve internet consumption speed

A

content delivery network (cdn)

115
Q

Builds on the foundation of Infrastructure as Code (IaC), reducing manual admin tasks.

A

orchestration

116
Q

— virtual machines (VM)
— virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)
— software defined networks (SDN)
— virtual storage area networks (SAN)

A

virtual assets

117
Q

T/F: Both hypervisors and VMs need to be patched

A

True

118
Q

The cloud service provider (CSP) provides the least amount of maintenance and security in the _____ model.

A

IaaS

119
Q

What hypervisor:
More secure if implemented properly
Commonly used for QA, load testing, and production scenarios
Typically, more expensive

A

Type 1: Bare metal

120
Q

What hypervisor:
Increased attack surface (due to the host operating system)
Commonly used for individual development and lab scenarios
Typically, less expensive

A

Type 2: Hosted

121
Q

Use cloud services
Perform service trials
Monitor services
Administer service security
Provide billing and usage reports
Handle problem reports
Administer tenancies
Perform business administration
Select and purchase service
Request audit reports

A

customer responsibilities

122
Q

Prepare systems and provide cloud services
Monitor and administer services
Manage assets and inventories
Provide audit data
Manage customer relationships
Handle customer requests
Perform peering with other cloud service providers
Ensure compliance
Provide network connectivity

A

csp responsibilities

123
Q

Design, create, and maintain service components
Test services
Perform audits
Set up legal agreements
Acquire and assess customers
Assess the marketplace

A

partner responsibilities

124
Q

Provides guidance in implementing and managing customer usage of a platform

A

partner

125
Q

Application capability types - reduced support costs and licensing fees
Platform capability types - reduces lock in
Infrastructure capability types - high reliability and resilience

A

benefits of public cloud

126
Q

CSP provides building blocks, like networking, storage and compute

A

IaaS

127
Q

Usage is metered
Eases scale (scale up, out, and down)
Reduced energy and cooling costs

A

benefits of IaaS

128
Q

Customer is responsible for deployment and management of apps
CSP manages provisioning, configuration, hardware, and OS

A

PaaS

129
Q

Core infrastructure updated by provider
Global collaboration for app development
Running multiple languages seamlessly

A

key benefits of PaaS

130
Q

Customer just configures features
CSP is responsible for management, operation, and service availability.

A

SaaS

131
Q

Limited administration responsibility
Limited skills required
Service always up to date
Global access

A

key benefits of SaaS

132
Q

Devs have to write code
No server management

A

things PaaS and Serverless have in common

133
Q

Less control over deployment environment
Application scales automatically
Application code only executes when invoked

A

Serverless

134
Q

More control over deployment environment
Application has to be configured to auto scale
Application takes a while to spin up

A

PaaS

135
Q

A cloud computing execution model where the cloud provider dynamically manages the allocation and provisioning of servers. Hosted as a pay as you go model based on use. Resources are stateless, servers ephemeral and often capable of being triggered.

A

serverless architecture

136
Q

Provisioning of multiple business services is combined with different IT services to provide a single business solution.

A

services integration

137
Q

Cloud is cost effective, global, secure, scalable, elastic, and always current

A

benefits of cloud computing

138
Q

Everything runs on your cloud provider’s hardware
Advantages include scalability, agility, PAYG, no maintenance, and low skills

A

public cloud

139
Q

A cloud environment in your own datacenter
A cloud environment dedicated to a single customer
Advantages include legacy support, control, and compliance

A

private cloud

140
Q

Combines public and private clouds, allowing you to run your apps in the right location. Advantages include flexibility in legacy, compliance, and scalability scenarios

A

hybrid cloud

141
Q

Similar to private clouds in that they are not open the general public
But they are shared by several related organizations in a common community

A

community cloud

142
Q

Combines resources from two or more public cloud providers
Allows orgs to take advantage of service and price differences, but at the cost of added complexity

A

multi cloud

143
Q

Access controls help ensure that only authorized subjects can access objects

A

confidentiality

144
Q

Ensures that data or system configurations are not modified without authorization

A

integrity

145
Q

Authorized requests for objects must be granted to subjects within a reasonable amount of time

A

availability

146
Q

Ability of one cloud service to interact with other cloud services by exchanging information according to a prescribed method and obtain predictable results.

A

interoperability

147
Q

Process for cloud service customers to retrieve their data and application artifacts AND for the CSP to delete all cloud service customer data and contractually specified cloud service derived data after an agreed period.

A

reversibility

148
Q

Policy - interoperate while complying w/ gov laws/regs
Behavioral - results of exchanged info matches expected outcome
Transport - commonality of communication b/w cloud consumer, provider, and other providers
Syntactic - two or more system understand other system’s structure of exchanged info thru encoding syntaxes
Semantic Data - ability of systems exchanging info to understand meaning of data model w/in context

A

5 facets of cloud interoperability

149
Q

Syntactic - using formats that can be decoded
Semantic - data model is understood
Policy - laws/regs/mandates followed

A

3 facets of cloud data portability

150
Q

Ability of a cloud services data center and its associated components, including servers, storage, and so on, to continue operating in the event of a disruption.

A

resiliency

151
Q

A discrete market, typically containing two or more regions, that preserves data residency and compliance boundaries

A

geography

152
Q

A set of datacenters deployed within a latency defined perimeter and connected
through a dedicated regional low latency network.

A

regions

153
Q

A relationship between 2 Azure Regions within the same geographic region for disaster recovery purposes.

A

region pairs

154
Q

Unique physical locations within a region with independent power, network, and cooling. Comprised of one or more datacenters Tolerant to datacenter failures via redundancy and isolation

A

availability zones

155
Q

The duty to ensure private information is kept secret to the extent possible. A legal obligation in regulatory scenarios, and a due care obligation in U.S. law

A

confidentiality - focus on data

156
Q

The right of an individual to have some control over how their personal information (PII,PHI) is collected, used, and potentially disclosed.

A

privacy - focus on rights of person

157
Q

Ability of a service to remain responsive to requests to that service with an acceptable level of response latency or processing time.

A

performance

158
Q

Enforcement of security policies and regulatory requirements, often through policy controls and regular audits.

A

governance

159
Q

Ability to provide clear documentation of the actions in a data event.

A

auditability

160
Q

Ability to determine who caused the event. This is known sometimes called “identity attribution”.

A

Accountability

161
Q

Ability to track down all events related to the investigated event.

A

traceability

162
Q

A technical or contractual constraint that prevents a customer from moving from a provider.

A

vendor lock-in

163
Q

The practice of applying data science to prevent, detect, and remediate cybersecurity threats. Data is collected from selected cyber security sources and then analyzed to provide timely, data driven patterns at scale.

A

cybersecurity data science

164
Q

To create a new block on the chain, the computer that wishes to add the block solves a cryptographic puzzle and sends the solution to the other computers participating in that blockchain.

A

proof of work

165
Q

A class of devices connected to the internet in order to provide automation, remote control, or AI processing in a home or business setting

A

internet of things

166
Q

wearables, facility automation, sensors

A

internet of things

167
Q

Examples include Docker and Kubernetes

A

containerization

168
Q

A lightweight, granular, and portable way to package applications for multiple platforms. Reduces overhead of server virtualization by enabling containerized apps to run on a shared OS kernel. Share many concerns of server virtualization: isolation
at host, process, network, and storage levels

A

containerization

169
Q

Replaces the binary one and zero bits of digital computing with multidimensional quantum bits known as qubits.

A

quantum computing

170
Q

The practice of harnessing the principles of quantum mechanics to improve security and to detect whether a third party is eavesdropping on communications. Leverages fundamental laws of physics such as the observer effect, which states that it is impossible to identify the location of a particle without changing that particle.

A

quantum cryptography

171
Q

The most common example of quantum cryptography. By transferring data using photons of light instead of bits, a confidential key transferred between two parties cannot be copied or intercepted secretly.

A

Quantum Key Distribution

172
Q

Cryptographic algorithms (usually public key algorithms) that are thought to be secure against an attack by a quantum computer. Post quantum cryptography focuses on preparing for the era of quantum computing by updating existing mathematical based algorithms and standards.

A

Post quantum cryptography

173
Q

Post quantum algorithms are sometimes called _____ cryptographic algorithms

A

“quantum resistant”

174
Q

Some compute operations require processing activities to occur locally, far from the cloud. All the processing of data storage is closer to the sensors rather than in the cloud data center.

A

edge computing

175
Q

Complements cloud computing by processing data from IoT devices. Often places gateway devices in the field to collect and correlate data centrally at the edge. Generally, brings cloud computing nearer to the sensor to process data closer to the device.

A

fog computing

176
Q

Sensitive data must be encrypted in memory before an app can process it, leaving the data vulnerable is a problem that ____ solves by isolating sensitive data in a protected _____ during processing - also called a _____.

A

confidential computing / CPU enclave / trusted execution environment (TEE)

177
Q

This is the management of cloud infrastructure (networks, VMs, load balancers, and connection topology) described in code. Just as the same source code generates the same binary, code in this model results in the same environment every time it is applied. This is a key DevOps practice and is used in conjunction with CI/CD.

A

IaC

178
Q

A chip that resides on the motherboard of the device. Multi purpose, like storage and management of keys used for full disk encryption (FDE) solutions. Provides the operating system with access to keys, but prevents drive removal and data access

A

trusted platform module

179
Q

A physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys, performs encryption and decryption functions for digital signatures, strong authentication and other cryptographic functions.

A

hardware security module

180
Q

generation - in secure cryptographic module
distribution - encrypt key w/ separate encryption key
storage - keys protected at rest
use
revocation
destruction

A

encryption key lifecycle

181
Q

In PKI, you would revoke the certificate on the issuing

A

Certificate Authority (CA)

182
Q

Encryption keys must be secured _____ as the data they protect.

A

at the same level of control or higher

183
Q

A _____ is anything that you want to control access to, such as API keys, passwords, certificates, tokens, or cryptographic keys.

A

secret

184
Q

Something you know (pin or password)
Something you have (trusted device)
Something you are (biometric)

A

mfa

185
Q

— Phishing
— Spear phishing
— Keyloggers
— Credential stuffing
— Brute force and reverse brute force attacks
— Man in the middle (MITM) attacks

A

all prevented by mfa

186
Q

A _____ is a type of administrator account used to run an application.

A

service account

187
Q

A solution that helps protect the privileged accounts within a tenant, preventing attacks

A

privileged access management

188
Q

erasing, clearing (overwriting), purging

A

less secure data destruction

189
Q

most secure data destruction

A

crypto shredding

190
Q

Data cannot be recovered from any remnants.
High CPU and performance overhead

A

pro and con of crypto shredding

191
Q

degaussing, shredding, pulverizing

A

hard drive media destruction methods - not reusable or recoverable

192
Q

Act as a virtual firewall for virtual networks and resource instances. Carries a list of security rules (IP and port ranges) that allow or deny network traffic to resource instances. Provides a virtual firewall for a collection of cloud resources with the same security posture.

A

network security group

193
Q

Restricting services that are permitted to access or be accessible from other zones using rules to control inbound/outbound traffic. Rules are enforced by the IP address ranges of each subnet. Within a virtual network, this can be used to achieve
isolation .

A

segmentation

194
Q

Port filtering through a network security group

A

example of segmentation

195
Q

What is the modern approach to writing web service APIs.

A

Representational State Transfer (REST)

196
Q

Enables multi language support, can handle multiple types of calls, return different data formats. APIs published by an organizations should include encryption, authentication, rate limiting, throttling, and quotas.

A

API inspection and integration

197
Q

Traffic is often sent direct to resources and promiscuous mode on a VM NIC not possible or effective.
EXAMPLES: Network Watcher (Azure), VPC traffic mirroring (AWS)

A

traffic inspection

198
Q

Uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) or RFID to define geographical boundaries. Once the device is taken past the defined boundaries, the security team will be alerted.

A

geofencing

199
Q

Treats user identity as the control plane. Assumes compromise / breach in verifying every request.

A

zero trust security

200
Q

verify explicitly
use lease privilege access
assume breach

A

zero trust principles

201
Q

Network Security Group (NSG)
Network Firewalls
Inbound and outbound traffic filtering
Inbound and outbound traffic inspection
Centralized security policy management and enforcement

A

zero trust network architecture

202
Q

Orchestration/scheduling controller
Network, storage
Container host
Container images
Container registry

A

Core components in a container platform (Docker, Kubernetes)

203
Q

Container security shares many of the concerns of server virtualization, but must enforce _____ of network, data, storage access at container level.

A

isolation

204
Q

These are cloud-based VMs where containers run

A

container hosts

205
Q

Use API gateways as security buffers (to avoid DDoS attacks)
Configure secure authentication (Oauth, SAML, OpenID Connect, MFA)
Separate dev and prod environments, implement least privilege

A

serverless technology

206
Q

REST uses the _____ protocol for web communications to offer API end points

A

HTTPS

207
Q

Security mechanisms for _____ include API gateway, authentication, IP filtering, throttling, quotas, data validation

A

APIs

208
Q

When attacks are designed to steal or wedge themselves into the middle of a
conversation in order to gain control.

A

traffic hijacking

209
Q

Process/effort to collect and analyze information before making a decision or conducting a transaction.

A

due diligence

210
Q

Doing what a reasonable person would do in a given situation. It is sometimes called the “prudent person rule”.

A

due care

211
Q

do detect is ______ and do correct is _____

A

due diligence / due care

212
Q

Research
Planning
Evaluation

A

due diligence

213
Q

Implementation
Operation (upkeep)
Reasonable measures

A

due care

214
Q

Knowledge and research of:
Laws and Regulations
Industry standards
Best practices

A

due diligence

215
Q

Delivery or execution including:
* Reporting security incidents
* Security awareness training
* Disabling access in a timely way

A

due care

216
Q

Helps reduce outages or weakened security from unauthorized changes to the baseline configuration

A

Change Management

217
Q

Uses a labeling or numbering system to track changes in updated versions of baseline (image, application, system,

A

Versioning

218
Q

Performed to determine whether a particular patch or update applies to a system.

A

applicability assessment

219
Q

To ensure it’s handled properly, it’s important to ensure data is _____ as soon as possible.

A

classified

220
Q

Data should be protected by adequate security controls based on its _____.

A

classification

221
Q

Refers to anytime data is in use or in transit over a network

A

share

222
Q

Commonly protected with TLS or tunneled through VPN

A

data in transit

223
Q

In storage (on disk, in database, etc) and protected through encryption

A

data at rest

224
Q

In memory. Should be flushed from memory when transaction is complete or system is powered down

A

data in use

225
Q

Helps you encrypt Windows and Linux IaaS VMs disks using BitLocker (Windows) and
dm crypt feature of Linux to encrypt OS and data disks.

A

full disk encryption

226
Q

Helps protect SQL Database and data warehouses against threat of malicious activity
with real time encryption and decryption of database, backups, and transaction log
files at rest without requiring app changes.

A

Transparent data encryption (TDE)

227
Q

Ensure the data’s context and meaning are understood, and business
rules governing the data’s usage. Use that knowledge to ensure the data they are responsible for is used as intended.

A

data steward

228
Q

The person or entity that controls processing of the data.

A

data controller

229
Q

A natural or legal person, public authority, agency, or other body, which processes personal data solely on behalf of the data controller.

A

data processor

230
Q

Responsible for day-to-day: safe custody, transport, and storage of data, and implementation of business rules, technical controls. Does not decide what controls are needed, but does implement controls for data owner

A

data custodian

231
Q

focuses on the whole business

A

bcp

232
Q

focuses more on the technical aspects of recovery

A

drp

233
Q

T/F: BCP is an umbrella policy and DRP is part of it

A

True

234
Q

addresses site level failure

A

region pairs

235
Q

These address datacenter failures within a cloud region.

A

Availability zones

236
Q

address rack level failures within a regional datacenter

A

availability sets

237
Q

Contains two important items:
✓ a cost-benefit analysis (CBA) AND
✓ a calculation of the return on investment (ROI)

A

BIA

238
Q

Can be strictly quantitative: adding the financial benefits and subtracting the associated costs to determine whether a decision will be profitable.

A

CBA

239
Q

Define a system or its component and specifies what it must do. Captured in use cases, defined at a component level .

A

Functional security requirements

240
Q

Specify the system’s quality, characteristics, or attributes. Apply to the whole system (system level)

A

Non functional security requirements

241
Q

VM attacks
Virtual network
Hypervisor attacks
VM-based rootkits
Virtual switch attacks
Colocation
DoS attack

A

security considerations for IaaS

242
Q

System and Resource Isolation
User-Level Permissions
Access Management
Protection Against Malware, Backdoors, and Trojans

A

security considerations for PaaS

243
Q

Data Segregation
Data Access and Policies
Web Application Security

A

security considerations for SaaS

244
Q

When unmanaged VMs have been deployed on your network. Because IT doesn’t know it is there, it may not be patched and protected, and thus more vulnerable to attack

A

vm sprawl

245
Q

Enforcement of security policies for adding VMs to the network, as well as periodic scanning to identify new virtualization hosts is how to avoid _____.

A

vm sprawl

246
Q

Ensure patches and hypervisor and VMs are always up to date, guest privileges are low. Server level redundancy and HIPS/HIDS protection also effective.

A

how to protect against vm escape

247
Q

Freely available on the internet and exploit known vulnerabilities in various operating systems enabling attackers to elevate privilege.

A

Rootkit (escalation of privilege) - avoid by keeping security patches up
to date, anti malware software, EDR/XDR

248
Q

Undocumented command sequences that allow individuals with knowledge of the back door to bypass normal access restrictions. Often used in development and debugging.

A

back door - counter with firewalls, anti malware, network monitoring, code review

249
Q

Volume based attacks targeting flaws in network protocols, often using botnets,
using techniques such as UDP, ICMP flooding, or SYN flooding (TCP based).

A

network DDoS

250
Q

Exploit weaknesses in the application layer (Layer 7) by opening connections and
initiating process and transaction requests that consume finite resources like disk
space and available memory.

A

application DDoS

251
Q

Targets the weaknesses of software and hardware devices that control systems in factories, power plants, and other industries, such as IoT devices.

A

operational technology (ot) DDoS

252
Q

These are countermeasures for _____ IDS, IPS, rate limiting, firewall ingress/egress filters

A

DDoS

253
Q

Automated software scanning
Automated vulnerability scanning
Web application firewall
Software dependency management
Access and activity logging
Application performance management
Are all _____ technical controls.

A

DevOPS

254
Q

Developer application security training
Documented policies and procedures
Code review, approval gates

A

DevOPS admin controls

255
Q

Provides guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services. Provides cloud based guidance on several ISO/IEC 27002 controls, along with seven cloud controls that address:
1) Who is responsible for what between the cloud service provider and the cloud
customer
2) The removal/return of assets when a contract is terminated
3) Protection and separation of the customer’s virtual environment
4) Virtual machine configuration
5) Administrative operations and procedures associated with the cloud environment
6) Customer monitoring of activity within the cloud
7) Virtual and cloud network environment alignment

A

ISO 27017

256
Q

> a secure network must be maintained in which transactions can be conducted
cardholder information must be protected wherever it is stored
systems should be protected against the activities of malicious hackers
cardholder data should be protected physically as well as electronically.
networks must be constantly monitored and regularly tested
a formal information security policy must be defined, maintained, and followed

A

PCI DSS objectives

257
Q

Ensures customers that security products they purchase have been thoroughly tested by independent third-party testers and meets customer requirements.

A

ISO 15408

258
Q

– Level 1: Lowest level of security.
– Level 2: Specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules that protect sensitive information.
– Level 3: Requires physical protections to ensure a high degree of confidence that any attempts to tamper are evident and detectable

A

FIPS 140-2 security levels

259
Q

AWS Well Architected Framework
Azure Well Architected Framework
Google Cloud Architecture Framework

A

cloud provider architecture reference

260
Q

Microsoft Cybersecurity Reference Architecture
AWS Security Reference Architecture
Google Cloud Security Foundations Guide

A

cloud provider security reference