CLIPP Flashcards

1
Q

at what age is infant expected to regain brithweight

define failure to thrive

sings of generally adequate nourishment in first few weeks of life

A

regain brithweight by 2 weeks

-failure to regain birthweight by 3 weeks
-continuous weight loss after 10 days
= failure to thrive

-6 feedings per day
-at least 6 wet diapers per day
= signs of generally adequate nourishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

preferred feeding source for all infants

a rare exceptoin

A

human milk for all

HIV-infected mother is a rare exception, among others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

average newborn weight loss in first few days of life, 2 SDs

A

6% birth weight lost in first few days on average

11-12% is two standard deviations (10% is typically used as red flag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

encourage this frequency of breastfeeds for newborn

e.g. offering the breast whenever the newborn…

A

encourage 8-12 feeds per 24 hrs

e. g. offering the breast whenever the newborn shows early signs of hunger
- increased alertness
- increased physical activity
- mouthing
- rooting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how to get an idea of adequacy of breast feeds for newborn

A

gaining weight

urine and stool output
6-12 wet diapers (half voids, half stools) in first week of life

feeding q2-3 hours for 10-15 minutes is average (concern if 4+ hours between feeds, shorter duration)

formal evaluation of breast feeding performance by trained observers 24-48hrs and 3-5 days after discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vit D supplementation for newborns

breast fed
vs
formula fed

A

start 400IU vit D po within first few days for breast fed infants

(exclusively formula fed ingesting 1L or one quart of formula will get enough vit D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal anterior fontanelle size

A

2cm avg diameter

.5-3.5 = 2 sd’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Newborn hypotonia, large fontanels, an umbilical hernia, and jaundice

Think..

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TF

Umbilical hernias and jaundice are more common in newborns with congenital hypothyroidism

A

T

common anyway, but more common w hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inborn error of metabolism
Pres
Prog

A

appear well for at least the first 1-2 days of life but then become symptomatic due to the protein load in breast milk or formula.
Initial signs include somnolence and poor feeding, usually followed by vomiting and lethargy.
Without treatment, patients develop a progressive encephalopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Presentstion of hypoglycemia in a newborn

A
Asymptomatic
Vs
Hypothermic
Irritable
Jittery
Tremors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

S and s of intracranial bleed in shaken baby syndrome

A

AMS
hypotonia
Poor feeding
Large fontanelles

Bruising and retinal bleeding are possible comirbid signs of abuse (not specifically intracranial bleeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, 21-OH deficiency, causes decreased production of ____ and ____

Expect this in the first labs you order

A

Aldosterone
Cortisol

Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
(Salt-wasting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Iodine deficiency (world wide)

Aplasia hypoplasia ectopia

Mom’s autoimmune abs transplacenta transiently

Mom w graves antithyroid meds transplacenta transiently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pres of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Usually a few months after birth because protected by mom’s thyroid home

Feeding problems
Decreased activity
Constipation
Prolonged jaundice
Skin mottling
Umbilical hernia

With time, if untreated, large tongue, hoarse cry and puffy myxedematous facies.

intellectual disability. The longer treatment is delayed, the greater the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treat congenital hypothyroidism in newborn

A

Levothyroxine

  • maintain TSH 1 μIU/mL (1mIU/L) and T4 in the upper half of the normal range for age
  • aim for normalized TSH by 1-2 mos old for good neurologic outcome
  • frequent follow-up

peds endocrinology consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PKU
presentation
advice for pregnant women with PKU

A

normal at birth
then fail to attain early developmental milestones
develop microcephaly
progressive cognitive impairment
seizures
albinism
musty odor of sweat and urine (due to phenylacetate).

pregnant women with PKU, maintain low phenylanine levels to protect the developing fetus. Though the developing fetus may only be a carrier of the PKU gene, high intrauterine levels of phenylalanine can result in growth retardation, microcephaly, intellectual disability and congenital heart disease for the child.

So get newborn screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is early detection of sickle cell disease important

A

early institution of penicillin prophylaxis can prevent sepsis secondary to infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A two-month-old female presents to clinic for a well-baby checkup. Mom has been happy because the “baby rarely cries and sleeps all the time.” On exam, the baby has yellowing of the skin, decreased activity, appears to have decreased tone, and a large anterior fontanel. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

body temperature change, changes in respiration, increased or decreased heart rate, reduced movement, reduced feeding, low blood sugar, seizures, and jaundice

think..

A

sepsis (blood infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
abnormal genitalia (females), poor feeding, vomiting, dehydration, and electrolyte changes
think...
A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 6-week-old infant girl whose family recently immigrated from Mexico is brought to clinic for “excessive sleepiness.” The mother states the infant is not easily aroused for feedings and is not as active as she was previously. She is also concerned about her daughter’s large “outtie” belly button. On exam, the patient is afebrile and jaundiced, with a puffy myxedematous face. The fontanels are large but flat. There is a large umbilical hernia. When asked about the results of a newborn screening exam, mom states that the screening was never performed. What would be an expected abnormal lab value(s) associated with her condition?

A

High TSH, low T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 45-day-old infant is brought in by his mother due to lethargy, constipation, and yellow skin color noted since birth. The mother and the baby moved to the U.S. from a foreign country that does not screen its newborns. The baby has been fed only formula since birth. Physical exam of the neonate reveals additional findings of large fontanelles, umbilical hernia, a large tongue, and abdominal distension. What is the next best step in diagnosis?

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

first year of life with hypotonia, lethargy, constipation, weak cry, eventually lead to respiratory failure. absent DTRs.
think…

A

botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
presentation
diagnosis

A

3-day-old has become lethargic and doesn’t want to feed. She has vomited twice and is showing no interest in feeding. On physical exam you note a lethargic infant with an enlarged liver

Hyperammonemia and elevated urine orotic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

wheezing in infant think…

give bronchodilators and steroids?

A

viral respiratory infection
eg RSV - can cause airway inflammation and wheezing in infants

maybe asthma if strong family history and clear response to bronchodilators

but IN GENERAL bonchodilators and steroids are NOT helpful in wheezing infants with VIRAL respiratory illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 hallmarks of asthma

A

Airway inflammation
Mucus hypersecretion, and
Reversible airflow obstruction due to bronchoconstriction.

? Remodeling - some evidence suggests that smooth muscle hyperplasia and hypertrophy develop in the setting of longstanding asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1 sentence summary of clinical manifestation of asthma in majority of children

A

recurrent coughing and/or wheezing that is responsive to bronchodilators (such as beta-agonists) and to anti-inflammatory medications (such as steroids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

triggers for peds asthma (bronchoconstriction)

A

URTI most often

also
allergies
cold air
exercise
smoke exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

diagnose asthma in peds

A

child with symptoms of asthma who responds to therapy for asthma and has no other identifiable cause for wheezing has asthma by definition, regardless of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

asthma vs RAD reactive airway disease

A

Many children with wheezing early in life do not continue to wheeze beyond 2 to 3 years. Many physicians are therefore reluctant to make a diagnosis of asthma in very young children, fearing that a child would be persistently labeled as having asthma when in fact their symptoms of this condition have resolved.

Some physicians prefer to use the term “reactive airways disease” (RAD) when children appear to have signs and symptoms of underlying airway hyperresponsiveness that is characteristic of asthma, but in whom a diagnosis of asthma is not yet definite.

The use of this term has been somewhat controversial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is O2 sat

A

percent hemoglobin saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

normal O2 sat in healthy person, by age

A

^94% regardless of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how can O2 sat be misleading in asthma

and what to get

A

compensated asthma, hyperventilation will lead to a decrease in PCO2 of the blood. As a child begins to tire and can no longer maintain adequate ventilation, the PCO2 may normalize and even become elevated despite continued normal oxygenation.

Thus, blood gas analysis can be helpful in distinguishing compensated from uncompensated asthma, and in predicting impending respiratory failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the WORST sign of respiratory distress in peds

and others

A

Paradoxical breathing
-diaphragm contracts hard but chest wall muscles not expanding so chest sucks in and belly flares out

tachypnea
retractions
nasal flaring
head bobbing (neck strap accessory breathing muscles)
grunting (forced expiration against closed glottis… to keep airways open with positive pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tachypnea vs
hyperpnea vs
hypopnea

A
rapid rate
deep breathing (inc tidal volume)
shallow breathing (dec tidal volume)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when should oxygen be withheld for severe hypoxemia

A

NEVER
Although some patients with chronic hypercarbia (sometimes referred to as “CO2 retainers”) depend on their hypoxemia for their respiratory drive, oxygen should never be withheld in cases of severe hypoxemia. Rather, these patients should be MONITORED CLOSELY and given ONLY AS MUCH OXYGEN AS THEY NEED to MAINTAIN A REASONABLE SATIRATION. Endotracheal intubation should be reserved for patients in whom respiratory failure is imminent or loss of the airway is anticipated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

4 common
3 less common
causes of wheezing in infants and toddlers

A

viral bronchiolitis
asthma
foreign body aspiration
GER

  • tracheomalacia
  • extrinsic compression (vascular ring or sling, or other anatomic airway lesion)
  • cystic fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

5 questions to ask wheezing infant or toddler

A

timing of wheeze

assoc with food

change with position or activity

other exacerbating factors

has it happened in past, if so, did it respond to bronchodilators or steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

5 common causes of cough in toddlers and infants

A

Viral upper respiratory tract illnesses

Pneumonia

Post-nasal drip due to allergies and/or sinusitis

Foreign body aspiration

GE reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

dry cough vs wet/junky cough in infant / toddler

A

dry cough is typical of CHRONIC ASTHMA

whereas a wet cough suggests the presence of SECRETIONS in the airway, whether due to a viral infection, post-nasal drip, gastroesophageal reflux or bronchiectatic disease such as cystic fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TF
wheeze is always expiratory
and
stridor is always inspiratory

A

f

generally yes, but not always… both can be heard anytime in respiratory cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

triphasic course of pertussis

A

initial catarrhal stage lasts 1-2 weeks and is characterized by upper respiratory tract infection symptoms.

paroxysmal stage that follows lasts 4-6 weeks and is characterized by repetitive, forceful coughing episodes followed by massive inspiratory effort, which results in the characteristic “whoop.” Infants generally do not develop a “whoop” due to relative weakness of their inspiratory effort.

The paroxysms of cough gradually decrease in frequency and severity as the convalescent stage is entered. Episodic cough may persist for months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

acellular pertussis vaccine efficacy and longevity

A

even with full immunization, vaccine efficacy is only 70-90%. Additionally, protection from the vaccine wanes with time such that many adolescents are unprotected from pertussis unless reimmunized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

rare causes of epiglottitis now that Hib vaccine is a thing

A

staphylococcal or streptococcal organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TF

absence of fever lowers the likelihood of community-acquired pneumonia but does not eliminate it entirely.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

stridor is due to…

and occurs in which phase of respiratory cycle…

A

Due to airway narrowing above the thoracic inlet.

Usually heard with inspiration, but can be biphasic if obstruction is severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

wheezing is due to…
and occurs in which phase of respiratory cycle…
diffuse or focal…
polyphonic vs monophonic…

A

Typically due to airway narrowing below the thoracic inlet.

With mild airway obstruction, wheezing is usually heard only in expiration.
With increasing obstruction, wheezing may become biphasic and may even disappear altogether when obstruction is severe

Although typically diffuse, focal wheeze may be heard in some settings such as mucus plugging.

Polyphonic wheeze is characterized by multiple pitches and is typical of asthma; monophonic wheeze is characterized by only a single pitch and is typical of focal airway obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ronchi
what do they sound like
what phase of respiratory cycle
what are they due to

A

Coarse, low-pitched rattling sounds
heard best in expiration.

Thought to be due to secretions and narrowing of airways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

crackles
cause
coarse vs fine

A

Finer breath sounds heard on inspiration.

Associated with either fluid in the alveoli or with opening and closing of stiff alveoli (as in interstitial disease).

Sometimes described as either coarse or fine. (COARSE crackles are usually thought to be associated with PURULENTsecretions in the alveoli as with pneumonia; FINE crackles are often associated with pulmonary EDEMA or ILD interstitial lung disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

bronchial breath sounds
describe
cause

A

Lower in pitch and more hollow-sounding than normal breath sounds.

Caused by air moving through areas of consolidated lung.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

most suggestive physical exam finding for airway foreign body

A

Significant asymmetry of breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TF

cough, tachypnea, retractions, and absence of fever all support a diagnosis of an asthma exacerbation

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

TF

Cough, tachypnea, and mild retractions are typical features of bronchiolitis

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

TF

asymmetric breath sounds essentially rules out viral URI (I) as the sole process.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

imaging to get if suspect airway foreign body in kid

A

pa lat chest

biilateral decubitus
(each lung deflates when on down-side unless hyperinflated by obstruction)
or
inspiratory/expiratory chest films
(asymmetric deflation with expiration.. but more subtle than bilateral decubitus)

chest fluoroscopy - no need to hold breath, can get dynamic evalutaiton

bronchoscopy down the line here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

rigid
vs
flexible
bronchoscopy

A

rigid bronchoscope is a straight metal tube that can only be inserted through the mouth. It allows one to examine the upper and large airways. Because they can accommodate forceps, rigid bronchoscopes are often used for performing transbronchial biopsies and for removing foreign bodies.

Flexible bronchoscopes can be inserted through either the nose or the mouth, and can be used to visualize more distal airways than can be seen with rigid scopes. Because they are smaller than rigid bronchoscopes, flexible scopes used in young children often cannot accommodate forceps.

All but the very smallest scopes include a suction port and can be used to collect lavage specimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Asthma pathophys basics

A

infiltration of inflammatory cells into the airway mucosa

mucus hypersecretion

mucosal edema - accompanied by bronchoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Acute asthma predentation

And if severe…

A
Cough
Dyspnea
Tachypnea
Wheezing
Decreased breath sounds

Quiet/stopped wheezing because poor airflow
Cyanosis
Pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chronic asthma is characterized by …. gimme 2

A

recurrent dyspnea and cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Is wheezing in asthma focal or diffuse

A

Typically diffuse

May get focal wheeze with mucus plugging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3 findings on cxr for asthma

A

Air trapping
Increased interstitial markings
Patchy atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

coughing with liquids suggests…

vs dysphagia with solids

A

coughing with liquids suggests aspiration

dysphagia with solids suggests narrowing of posterior oropharynx or esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

recurrence of fever several days into a respiratory illness makes you think…

A

bacterial superinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

most common cause of wheezing in infants

A

bronchiolitis

66
Q

pathophys of bronchiolitis

A

viral (RSV > influenza and parainfluenza) disease of the lower respiratory tract of infants
characterized by bronchiolar obstruction due to edema, mucus, and cellular debris

67
Q

signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis

A

Wide spectrum of disease. Most children initially have mild Upper respiratory tract symptoms and often a fever of 38.5-39 C. Respiratory symptoms can progress to cough, wheezing, dyspnea and irritability…

68
Q

most common causes of PNA in peds

A
viral
    Adenovirus
    RSV
    Parainfluenza
    Influenza

bacterial less common but more severe

  • GBS EColi Klebsiella transmitted from birth canal to neonate
  • chlamydia w staccato cough between 4-12wks old
  • strep pneumo most common infant - 6yo
  • mycoplasma, then strep pneumo in school-age and older children
69
Q

viral vs bacterial pna presentation in peds

A

viral
prodrome of URTI including cough and rhinorrhea. The cough frequently progresses, and accompanied by fever, tachypnea, crackles

bacterial
present abruptly or preceded by a viral prodrome. Presentation varies, depending on the age and etiology, but typically fever, cough, and signs of respiratory distress (dyspnea, tachypnea, retractions, etc.), crackles or decreased breath sounds

70
Q

radiographic findings

viral vs bacterial pna

A

viral
variable but most characteristic diffuse or patchy interstitial infiltrates, hyperinflation, small pleural effusions

bacterial
most typicallly lobar or segmental consolidation and air bronchograms

71
Q

labs viral vs bacterial pna

A

viral

  • serum WBC tends to be normal or only slightly elevated
  • viral antigen testing of respiratory secretions maybe helpful but usually not necessary

bacterial
-serum WBC elevated, neutrophil predominance

72
Q

treatment of viral vs bacterial pna

A

viral
supportive

bacterial
abx

73
Q

imaging for foreign body aspiration

A

PA Lat cxr
-coin sign - line on PA if in trachea, flat on PA if in esophagus… opposite on lat

inspiratory and expiratory cxr
-unilateral air trapping hyperinflation (seen best on Expiration) on side of obstruction in mainstem bronchus

PA and R and L lateral decubitus films

  • PA hyperinflation on affected side as above
  • lateral decubitus mediastinal structures will not fall to decubitus side when lying on hyperinflated obstructed side

All vs atelectasis and volume loss on cxr if complete obstruction, not partial

74
Q

physical exam

foreign body aspiration

A

inspiratory stridor - extrathoracic
expiratory stridor - intrathoracic

assymetric wheezing… more like expiratory stridor… but large airway sounds may be transmitted… and assymmetric wheezing may result from mucus plugging from asthma or bronchiolitis…

75
Q

what to worry about with foreign body aspiration specifically of plastic or metal

A

erosion through bronchial wall

76
Q

TF

pertussis can present in a 12 year old

A

T

77
Q

how long do catarrhal and paroxysmal stages of pertussis last

A

1-2 wks catarrhal (indistinguishable from URI)

4-6 wks paroxysmal (forceful coughing fits with post-tussive emesis and inspiratory whoop afterward

78
Q

treat pertussis

A

azithromycin
clarythromycin
erythromycin

  • given in catarrhal phase may shorten clinical course
  • given in paroxysmal phase will reduce communicability but not alter course
79
Q

appearance of peds patient with epiglottitis

A

appear toxic (fever, stridor, drooling, respiratory distress) in “Sniffing Position” - sitting, leaning forward, neck hyperextended, chin protruding

80
Q

Croup or laryngotracheobronchitis
is due to
most often occurs in this season
in patients of this age range

A

parainfluenza
winter
age 2-5yo

81
Q

unilateral wheezing with decreased breath sounds think…

A

foreign body aspiration

82
Q

6 risk factors for neonatal respiratory distress

A

maternal diabetes - surfactant deficiency and delayed lung maturation

prematurity (lung immaturity and lack surfactant)

maternal GBS infection - neonatal sepsis - respiratory distress

C-section delivery - transient tachypnea of the newborn

prolonged premature rupture of membranes (^18 hrs) - neonatal sepsis

meconium in amnionic fluid - meconium aspiration syndrome

83
Q

TF

most infants born at 36 wks gestational age have RDS

A

F

not mostly, but Can occur as late as 37 wks gestation

84
Q

how many weeks gestation Can RDS occur?

A

as late as 37 weeks, but not typically that late

85
Q

transient tachypnea of the newborn
pathogenesis
risks
disorder of prematurity?

A

from delayed clearance of fluid from the lungs following birth

much more common with diabetic mom or c-section delivery

generally a disorder of TERM infants… Can occur in premature infants… just not at higher rates… so not a disorder of prematurity

86
Q

neonate risks for pneumothorax

A

mechanical ventilation
meconium aspiration
severe infant respiratory distress syndrome (e.g. w prematurity)

87
Q

typical pathogenesis and presentation of hypoglycemia in neonate

A

infant of diabetic mother (chronic fetal hyperinsulinemia during gestation… persists after birth and drives glucose down)… can be more pronounced in premie

tachypneia (non-specific response)

88
Q

tf

CHF can be a cause of newborn tachypnea

A

T

usually from congenital heart defect

89
Q

neonatal sepsis often due to either or both of these risk factors

A

GBS infeciton of mom
transmitted from mom during labor

prolongued rupture of membranes (^18hrs)

90
Q

neonates at greatest risk of hypothermia

A

premies

small body size

91
Q

when might you see a pulmonary venous embolism in a neonate

A

central venous cath placement

92
Q

Components of Apgar score

A

heart rate 0 v100 ^100

resp effort 0 weak crying

muscle tone flaccid, some flexion, active movements

reflex irritability not responsive, grimace/weak cry, good cry active withdrawal

color blue/pale throughout, centrally pink, pink throughout

at 1 and 5 minutes

93
Q
tf
apgar scores are
diagnostic for asphyxia
predictive of neurological outcome
need for intubation
A

F
F
F
standardized assessment with know hard actionable relevance, but subjective relevance…

94
Q

define Large for gestational age (LGA)
etiology
clinical significance

A

^90th weight percentile

constitutional vs maternal DM

-may require c-section, foreceps, vacuum
(more freq birth injuries - clavicle fx, bpbp, facial nerve palsy)
-hypoglycemia a high risk if LGA and mom DM

95
Q

define appropriate for gestational age (AGA)

A

10th-90th weight percentile

96
Q

define small for gestational age (SGA)
etiology
clinical significance

A

v10th weight percentile

premie
constitutional

hypothermia
hypoglycemia (inadequate glycogen stores)
polycythemia and hyperviscocity

97
Q

blood is transported from the placenta to the fetus via the

A

umbilical vein

98
Q

fetal circulation

A

umbilical vein
some to portal vein to liver
most bypasses liver to IVC

1/3 caval blood to PFO to LA to coronary, cerebral, upper body
2/3 combo w venous blood from upper body in RA to RV out PA… 10% of this to lungs, 90% thru PDA to descending aorta to iliac arteries to hypogastric arteries to umbilical arteries to placenta

99
Q

successful transition to extrauterine life at birth involves

A

cut umbilical cord - remove low-resistance placental circulation

initiate air breathing - reduce pulmonary arterial resistance

close PFO and PDA

100
Q

How is pulmonary fluid eliminated from lungs at birth

What happens if it is not removed

Aka

A

Uterine contractions force out
Pulmonary lymphatics absorb

Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Aka
Persistent postnatal pulmonary edema

Aka
160-180 hr and 60-80 rr of first hour
Fail to normalize to
120-160 and 40-60 in second hour
(Rated measured at rest not crying)
101
Q

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

What causes it

What is it

A

Persistence of the fetal circulation

PPHN can result from several conditions, including meconium aspiration syndrome, diaphragmatic hernia, hypoplastic lungs, and in utero asphyxia. The following findings may indicate that an infant has PPHN:

Tachypnea
Tachycardia
Respiratory distress, with findings such as expiratory grunting and nasal flaring
Generalized cyanosis
Low oxygen levels, even while receiving 100% oxygen

102
Q

Common

Uncommon

Respirstory causes of cyanosis in a newborn

A

Common
TTN transient tachypnea of the newb
RDS

Uncommon
Pneumothorax
Diaphragmatic hernia
Choanal atresia
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
103
Q

Common

Uncommon

Cardiac causes of cyanosis in a newborn

A

Common
Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA): Defect in which the aorta and pulmonary arteries are transposed, resulting in respiratory distress and severe cyanosis as the ductus arteriosus closes shortly after birth . One risk factor for TGA is being born to a diabetic mother. TGA is often associated with other congenital heart defects, such as a ventricular septal defect, so a murmur may be heard on physical examination.

Uncommon
Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Pulmonary atresia
104
Q

CNS causes of cyanosis in a newborn

A

Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Sepsis/meningitis

105
Q

Id

Causes of cyanosis in newb

A

Septic shock

Meningitis

106
Q

Oxygen challenge test in cyanotic infant

A

Differentiates between respiratory and cardiac cause of cyanosis

Hyperoxic gas delivery improves PaO2 if resp cause
No effect if cardiac cause

107
Q

IInfants born to adolescent mothers are at greater risk for:

A
  • lower birth weight
  • vertically acquired STIs (due to the higher incidence of STIs in the adolescent population)
  • poorer developmental outcomes
  • increased risk of fetal death
  • increased risk of premature death
108
Q

how many babies born to women aged 15 to 19 years in the U.S. in 2013

A

about 250,000 teen births per year

109
Q

how many births in women v18yo are unintended

A

2/3 unintended

110
Q

US taxpayer spending on teen pregnancy per year

A

$9 billion per year for teen pregnancy
health care, foster care, incarceration rates up in children of teen parents, lost tax revenue from lower educational attainment and income among teen mothers

111
Q

high school graduation rates of teen mothers versus non-pregnant non-child rearing peers

A

50% teen moms
vs 90% non-moms

graduate high school

112
Q

purpose of HEEADSSS interview

A

screen for risks for 3 leading causes of death in US adolescents

  • accidents
  • homicide
  • suicide
113
Q

HEEADSSS

A

standard social history interview mnemonic for adolescents (screen for risks for accidents, homicide, suicide)

Home
Education/Employment
Eating disorder
Activities/Affiliations/Aspirations
Drugs
Sexuality
Suicidal behavior
Safety
114
Q

tf

mom drinking one six-pack of beer per week puts infant at risk for fetal alcohol syndrome

A

T

there is no “safe” amount of alcohol to drink during pregnancy

115
Q

how does maternal tobacco use affect baby

A

low birth weight risk

116
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome is a distinct pattern of…

A

facial abnormalities, growth deficiency, and evidence of central nervous system dysfunction (cognitive disability, poor motor skills and hand-eye coordination, learning problems – i.e., difficulties with memory, attention, and judgment)

117
Q

tf

maternal marijuana use causes distinct brith abnormalities

A

f

none identified to date

118
Q

maternal cocaine / stimulant use effect on baby

A

vasoconstriction causing placental insufficiency and low birth weight

later cognitive deficits too…

119
Q

TORCH infections

A

toxoplasma
rubella
cytomegaolovirus
HSV 2

(O can be for “Other”… HIV HepB Syphilis Parvovirus)

120
Q

tf

gestetional diabetes limits fetal growth

A

f
causes macrosomia
LGA large for gestational age

121
Q

how to know if mom may have suffered from pregnancy-induced hypertension or preeclampsia

A

if she had hypertension

proteinuria or swelling

122
Q

standard prenatal lab screening

A

HIV rubella hep B serology
ABO and Rh blood type
urine drug screen

123
Q

membrane rupture of how long prior to delivery without antiretroviral therapy increases risk of vertical transmission of HIV

A

4 hours

124
Q

which increases risk of vertical transmission of HIV more, vaginal or c-section delivery

A

vaginal

125
Q

tf

breastfeeding can vertically transmit HIV from mom to baby

A

T

126
Q

tf

gestational age can affect risk of vertical transmission of HIV

A

T

v37 wks GA ^risk of vertical HIV transmission

127
Q

how to prevent vertical transmisison of HIV from mom to child

A

antiretroviral therapy

128
Q

how many people in US living with AIDS

A

1.2 million

2012

129
Q

who gets intrapartum antimocrobial ppx against GBS

A

those high risk according to guidlines listing a bunch of factors…

130
Q

maternal rapid HIV antibody test is positive, what steps should be considered to decrease the risk of HIV transmission to the fetus?

A

treat mom w combo antiretroviral therapy (if viral load > 1000 copies/mL)

cesarean delivery prior to the onset of labor (at 38 weeks’ gestation) and the rupture of membranes

don’t breast feed, vs breast feed on combo antiretrovirals if no clean water or formula available

131
Q

resuscitate a newborn

how many require some assistance vs extensive rescuscitation to initiate breathing

A

ABC’s
Warm and dry
Stimulate a cry
Suction nose and mouth

Further blow-by O2, PPV, chest compresisons, medicaitons etc as needed

10% some assistance
1% extensive rescusitation

132
Q

how to stablize newborn’s temperature

when to get apgars

A

skin-skin with mom
radiant warmer
incubator

1 and 5 minute apgars

133
Q

tf

capillary refill is part of apgar

A
F
APGAR
appearance (skin color)
pulse (heart rate)
grimace (reflex irritability)
activity (muscle tone)
Respiration
134
Q

calculate an apgar

A
APGAR
appearance (skin color)
pulse (heart rate)
grimace (reflex irritability)
activity (muscle tone)
Respiration

0-2 points for each, final score 0-10

135
Q

define born at term

A

^37 wks gestational age

136
Q

Asymmetric IUGR refers to

A

a greater decrease in the size of the length and/or weight without affecting head circumference (“head-sparing phenomenon”)

vs Symmetric IUGR refers to a growth pattern in which head, length, and weight are decreased proportionately

137
Q

3 things too look out for in SGA newborn

A

hypoglycemia (vglycogen stores, ^heat loss, possible hypoxia) - commonly asymptomatic, maybe poor feeding and listlessness

hypothermia (^SA/V ratio, v subq insulation, hypoxia, hypoglycemia) - commonly asymptomatic, maybe poor feeding and listlessness

polycythemia (chronic hypoxia, maternal-fetal transfusion) ruddy red skin color, respiratory distress (sluggish flow, poor perfusion), poor feeding, hypoglycemia

138
Q

6 primitive newborn reflexes

A

Rooting - turns head toward your finger when touch cheek.

Sucking - on your finger when you touch roof of mouth.

Startle (Moro) - Support head with one hand and buttocks with other. Drop head to 10 cm below. Newborn will flex thighs and knees, fan and then clench fingers, arms first thrown outward then brought together as though embracing

Palmar and Plantar Grasps - grasps your finger when you stroke it against the palm or plantar surface

Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Response - Turning the head to one side causes gradual extension of arm toward direction of infant’s gaze with contralateral arm flexion–like a fencer.

Stepping Response - legs make stepping motion when hold him vertically above the table and stroke the dorsum of feet against table edge

139
Q

elicit red reflex in neonate

normal variant

5 causes of absent red reflex

A

lights off
stand a foot or more away with ophthalmoscope
look for both red reflexes simultaneously

darker skin may have light golden or silver-tinged “red reflex”

cataract, opacified cornea, anterior chamber inflammation, developmental eye anomaly, retinoblastoma - may result in absent red reflex

140
Q

tf

palpable spleen is abnormal on newborn exam

A

f

palpable spleen 1-2cm below costal margin is common in healthy infants (30% newborns, 10% one-year-olds, 1% 12-year-olds

141
Q

how to test newborn for TORCH infection risk

A

infant toxoplasma titer
maternal and fetal rubella titers
infant urine cx for CMV

maternal HBV HBsAg…

142
Q

congenital CMV on brain imaging

A
  • Intracranial calcifications (bright areas on CT)
  • Diminished number of gyri and abnormally thick cortex (aka lissencephaly or agyria-pachygyria)
  • Enlarged ventricles
143
Q

dx congenital cmv

A

positive urine cx v3wks of life

cmv sloughs off in saliva and urine in newborn…

144
Q

sequelae of congenital cmv

A

progressive hearing loss

microcephaly and intracranial calcifications

hepatosplenomegaly (resolves spontaneously in weeks)

rash (resolves spontaneously in weeks)

145
Q

treat symptomatic congenital cmv

why

A

6 mos antiviral asap

improves audiologic and neurodevelopmental outcomes

146
Q

absolute contraindications to breast feeding

A

Maternal HIV infection (in the industrialized world)

Active herpes simplex lesions on the breast

Active untreated tuberculosis

Active maternal use of some (not all) non-prescription drugs of abuse

Infants with galactosemia

147
Q

routine newborn screening for metabolic disorders

A

PKU and hypothyroidism

Some states also screen for galactosemia, biotinidase deficiency, hemoglobinopathy, maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), homocystinuria, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, G6PD deficiency, and toxoplasmosis
Many states now screen for more than 30 diseases using tandem mass spectrometry.

148
Q

leading cause of congenital infection in US

how often asymptomatic at birth

how often deadly when symptomatic

A

CMV most common

90% no symptoms at birth

10-15% mortality if symptomatic

149
Q

symptoms of congenital CMV

A

various of

microcephaly, purpuric rash, and hepatosplenomegaly
jaundice, hearling loss, chorioretinitis, intracranial calcificaitons

150
Q

Taking anticonvulsants during pregnancy may lead to

A
cardiac defects
dysmorphic craniofacial features
hypoplastic nails
distal phalanges
IUGR
microcephaly
mental retardation
methemoglobinuria (rare)
151
Q

Opiate use during pregnancy may result in

A

CNS findings (irritability, hyperactivity, hypertonicity, incessant high-pitched cry, tremors, seizures)

GI symptoms (vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, poor feeding, incessant hunger, excessive salivation)

Respiratory findings (nasal stuffiness, sneezing, and yawning).

152
Q
PKU
path
pres
dx
key to tx
A

AR phenylalanine hydrozylase deficiency

newborn screening vs vomiting, hypotonia, musty odor, developmental delay, decreased hair and eye pigmentation

start phenylalanine restricted diet

153
Q

when are infants able to start eating small chunks of food… how to advise parents…

A

when they have teeth
~9mos ish can start small chunks

introduce new foods 1 at a time to assess for allergies

discuss choking hazards at 9 month visit - no popcorn, grapes, hard candies, or hot dogs!

supplement with breast milk or formula for 100kcal/kg/day

154
Q

what age to look for neat pincer grasp

A

12 month

155
Q

when should baby wave bye bye

A

9 month

156
Q

how to assess pallor in dark-skinned pt

A

conjunctiva, nail beds, mucous membranes.

157
Q

most frequently diagnosed neoplasm in infants

pres

A
neuroblastoma
50% present v2yo
painless mass in neck, chest, or abdomen
asymptomatic vs chronically ill with fever, pallor, weight loss, bone pain from mets...
likely dx if above and NO JAUNDICE
158
Q

tf

infant can present with teratoma

A

t

but rare

159
Q

aka and presentation of wilm’s tumor

A

nephroblastoma
asymptomatic UQ abdominal mass
mean age 3yo
… no lymphadenopathy or juandice, normal development
smooth and not crossing midline generally
50% w assoc syx like abdominal pain, vomiting, hypertension

160
Q

VMA and HVA are metabolites of…

assessed via… in eval of this possible dx for UQ mass

A

catecholamines

via urine for eval of neuroblastoma (highly specific, 95%)

161
Q

small cell rosettes on bone marrow pathology is highly suggestive of…

A

neuroblastoma

162
Q

prognosis of stage 4S neuroblastoma in an infant

A

actually good… likely to spontaneously regress due to nature of tumor derived from embryonal cell line