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CBR Clinical Skill > Clinical Skill/Critical Care in NC_3 > Flashcards

Clinical Skill/Critical Care in NC_3 Flashcards

1
Q 
often occurs with hypokalemia
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

C. metabolic alkalosis

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2
Q 
Addison's disease
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis

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3
Q 
salicylate overdose (early stage)
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

E. respiratory alkalosis

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4
Q 
myasthenia gravis
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

D. respiratory acidosis

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5
Q 
ethylene glycol overdose
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis

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6
Q 
Cushing's disease
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

C. metabolic alkalosis

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7
Q 
primary aldosteronism
A. increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory acidosis
E. respiratory alkalosis
A

C. metabolic alkalosis

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8
Q 
The formula for mean arterial pressure is (DBP = diastolic blood pressure; SBP = systolic blood pressure)
A. (DBP + SBP)/2
B. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/2
C. DBP/2 + SBP/3
D. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/3
E. DBP/2 + (SBP - DBP)/3
A

D. DBP + (SBP - DBP)/3

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9
Q 
parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

C. both

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10
Q

pancreatic islet cell hyperplasia, adenoma, or carcinoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)
C. both
D. neither

A

A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)

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11
Q 
pituitary hyperplasia or adenoma
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner’s syndrome)

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12
Q 
Pheochromocytomas are common.
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)

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13
Q 
Medullary thyroid carcinomas are common.
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

B. MEN type IIA (Sipple’s syndrome)

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14
Q 
mucosal and gastrointestinal tumors
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

D. neither

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15
Q 
marfanoid features
A. multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (Werner's syndrome)
B. MEN type IIA (Sipple's syndrome)
C. both
D. neither
A

D. neither

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16
Q 
Characteristics of hyperaldosteronism include each of the following except
A. edema
B. hypokalemia
C. increased diastolic blood pressure
D. metabolic alkalosis
E. polyuria
A

A. edema

17
Q 
Adequacy of pulmonary ventilation is assessed by
A. Fi02
B. oxygen saturation
C. Pa C02
D. partial pressure of O2 in blood
E. tidal volume
A

C. Pa C02

18
Q 
hypocalcemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

D. prolonged QT interval

19
Q 
hypokalemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

E. U wave

20
Q 
hyperkalemia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

C. peaked T wave

21
Q 
hypothermia
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

B. J-point elevation

22
Q 
hyperthyroidism
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

A. atrial fibrillation

23
Q 
quinidine toxicity
A. atrial fibrillation
B. J-point elevation
C. peaked T wave
D. prolonged QT interval
E. U wave
A

D. prolonged QT interval

24
Q

Which of the following is false of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Calcium is released from the muscle cell’s sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. end-tidal pC02 increases
C. It is precipitated by the use of inhalational anesthetics.
D. Treatment is with dantrolene
E. Use of succinylcholine can help prevent it.

A

E. Use of succinylcholine can help prevent it.

25
Q 
Of the following, the best choice for Clostridium difficile enterocolitis is
A. clindamycin orally
B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally
C. penicillin G orally
D. penicillin VK intravenously
E. vancomycin intravenously
A

B. metronidazole (Flagyl) orally

26
Q 
pulsus paradoxus
A. cardiac tamponade
B. tension pneumothorax
C. both
D. neither
A

A. cardiac tamponade

27
Q 
Increased venous pressure
A. cardiac tamponade
B. tension pneumothorax
C. both
D. neither
A

C. both

28
Q 
increased pulse pressure
A. cardiac tamponade
B. tension pneumothorax
C. both
D. neither
A

D. neither

29
Q 
Meningitis occurring within 72 hours after a basilar skull fracture is most commonly secondary to
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

30
Q 
Postoperative shunt infections are most commonly caused by
A. coagulase-negative staphylococci
B. H. influenzae
C. Pseudoqonas species
D. S. aureus
E. S. pneumoniae
A

A. coagulase-negative staphylococci

CBR Clinical Skill (5 decks)

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