Clinical Pharmacology/ Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

what is ciclosporin

A

immunosuppressant which decreases clonal proliferation of T cells by reducing IL-2 release. It acts by binding to cyclophilin forming a complex which inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adverse effect of ciclosporin

A
note how everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose)
nephrotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
fluid retention
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hypertrichosis
gingival hyperplasia
tremor
impaired glucose tolerance
hyperlipidaemia
increased susceptibility to severe infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indications for ciclosporin

A
following organ transplantation
rheumatoid arthritis
psoriasis (has a direct effect on keratinocytes as well as modulating T cell function)
ulcerative colitis
pure red cell aplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

effects of organophosphate insecticide poisoning

A

inhibition of acetylcholinesterase leading to upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Features of organophosphate insecticide poisoning

A
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation/diarrhoea
cardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardia
also: small pupils, muscle fasciculation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management of organophophate insecticide poisoning

A

atropine

the role of pralidoxime is still unclear - meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

P450 inhibitors

A
antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
isoniazid
cimetidine,omeprazole
amiodarone
allopurinol
imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
ritonavir
sodium valproate
acute alcohol intake
quinupristin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

p450 inducers

A

antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine
barbiturates: phenobarbitone
rifampicin
St John’s Wort
chronic alcohol intake
griseofulvin
smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose

A

activated charcoal if ingested < 1 hour ago
N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
liver transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of salicylate overdose

A

urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate

haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of benzodiazepines overdose

A

Flumazenil
The majority of overdoses are managed with supportive care only due to the risk of seizures with flumazenil. It is generally only used with severe or iatrogenic overdoses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of TCA overdose

A

IV bicarbonate may reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias in severe toxicity
arrhythmias: class 1a (e.g. Quinidine) and class Ic antiarrhythmics (e.g. Flecainide) are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs such as amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Response to lignocaine is variable and it should be emphasized that correction of acidosis is the first line in management of tricyclic induced arrhythmias
dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of lithium overdose

A

mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of warfarin overdose

A

vitamin K , prothrombin complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of heparin overdose

A

protamine complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of Beta Blocker overdose

A

if bradycardic then atropine

in resistant cases glucagon may be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of ethylene glycol overdose

A

ethanol has been used for many years
works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. Glycoaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the haemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning
fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol
haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of methanol overdose

A

fomepizole or ethanol

haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of digoxin overdose

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management of iron overdose

A

Desferrioxamine, a chelating agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Management of lead overdose

A

Dimercaprol, calcium edetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of Carbon Monoxide overdose

A

100% oxygen

hyperbaric oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Management of cyanide overdose

A

Hydroxocobalamin; also combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Indications for verapamil

A

Angina, hypertension, arrhythmias

Highly negatively inotropic

Should not be given with beta-blockers as may cause heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Side effects of verapamil

A

Heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Side effects of diltazem

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, ankle swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

indications for diltazem

A

Angina, hypertension

Less negatively inotropic than verapamil but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Indications for nifedipine/amlodipine/felodipine (dihydropyridines)

A

Hypertension, angina, Raynaud’s

Affects the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium and therefore do not result in worsening of heart failure but may therefore cause ankle swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Side effects of dihydropyridines

A

Flushing, headache, ankle swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Digoxin - mechanism of action

A

decreases conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter
increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve
digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Monitoring of digoxin levels

A

digoxin level is not monitored routinely, except in suspected toxicity
if toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Features of digoxin toxicity

A

generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
gynaecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Precipitating features of digoxin toxicity

A

classically: hypokalaemia
digoxin normally binds to the ATPase pump on the same site as potassium. Hypokalaemia → digoxin more easily bind to the ATPase pump → increased inhibitory effects
increasing age
renal failure
myocardial ischaemia
hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, acidosis
hypoalbuminaemia
hypothermia
hypothyroidism
drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of Digoxin toxicity

A

Digibind
correct arrhythmias
monitor potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rifampicin - MOA and SE

A

mechanism of action: inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase preventing transcription of DNA into mRNA
potent liver enzyme inducer
hepatitis, orange secretions
flu-like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Isoniazid - MOA and SE

A

mechanism of action: inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
hepatitis, agranulocytosis
liver enzyme inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pyrazinamide - MOA and SE

A

mechanism of action: converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I
hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ethambutamol - MOA and SE

A

mechanism of action: inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan
optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drugs that impair glucose tolerance

A
thiazides, furosemide (less common)
steroids
tacrolimus, ciclosporin
interferon-alpha
nicotinic acid
antipsychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors

A

Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction. They are also used in the management of pulmonary hypertension. PDE5 inhibitors cause vasodilation through an increase in cGMP leading to smooth muscle relaxation in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum.

Examples
sildenafil (Viagra) - this was the first phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor
tadalafil (Cialis)
vardenafil (Levitra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Contraindications of phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors

A

patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
hypotension
recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Side effects of phophodiesterase type V inhibitors

A
visual disturbances e.g. blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

cytochrome p450 inducers

A

reduce the concentration of drugs metabolised by P450
CRAPS out drugs

  • Carbomazepine
  • Rifampicin
  • bArbituates
  • Phenytoin
  • St Johns’ Wort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cytochrome p450 inhibitors

A

increase the concentration of drugs metabolised by P450
Some Certain Silly Compounds Annoyingly Inhibit Enzymes, Grrrrrr

Sodium Valproate
Ciprofloxacin 
Sulphonamides
Cimetidine/omeprazole 
Antifungals/amiodarone
Isoniazid
Erythromycin/clarithromycin 
Grapefruit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Features of CO poisoning

A
headache: 90% of cases
nausea and vomiting: 50%
vertigo: 50%
confusion: 30%
subjective weakness: 20%
severe toxicity: 'pink' skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Investigations CO poisoning

A

pulse oximetry may be falsely high due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin
therefore a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken
typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels
< 3% non-smokers
< 10% smokers
10 - 30% symptomatic: headache, vomiting
> 30% severe toxicity
an ECG is a useful supplementary investgation to look for cardiac ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Management of CO poisoning

A

100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
from a physiological perspective, this decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb)
should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours
target oxygen saturations are 100%
treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved, rather than monitoring CO levels
hyperbaric oxygen
due to the small number of cases the evidence base is limited, but there is some evidence that long-term outcomes may be better than standard oxygen therapy for more severe cases
therefore, discussion with a specialist should be considered for more severe cases (e.g. levels > 25%)
in 2008, the Department of Health publication ‘Recognising Carbon Monoxide Poisoning’ also listed loss of consciousness at any point, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia and pregnancy as indications for hyperbaric oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mechanism of action for cocaine

A

cocaine blocks the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Adverse effects of cocaine

A

coronary artery spasm → myocardial ischaemia/infarction
both tachycardia and bradycardia may occur
hypertension
QRS widening and QT prolongation
aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Neurological effects of cocaine

A

seizures
mydriasis
hypertonia
hyperreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Psychiatric effects of cocaine

A

agitation
psychosis
hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

other effects of cocaine

A

ischaemic colitis is recognised in patients following cocaine ingestion. This should be considered if patients complain of abdominal pain or rectal bleeding
hyperthermia
metabolic acidosis
rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Management of cocaine toxicity

A

in general, benzodiazepines are generally first-line for most cocaine-related problems
chest pain: benzodiazepines + glyceryl trinitrate. If myocardial infarction develops then primary percutaneous coronary intervention
hypertension: benzodiazepines + sodium nitroprusside
the use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is a controversial issue. The American Heart Association issued a statement in 2008 warning against the use of beta-blockers (due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm) but many cardiologists since have questioned whether this is valid. If a reasonable alternative is given in an exam it is probably wise to choose it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Phase 1 reactions: oxydation, reduction, hydrolysis

A

Mainly performed by the P450 enzymes but some drugs are metabolised by specific enzymes, for example alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. Products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Phase 2 reactions: conjugation

A

Products are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. Glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate and other groups are typically involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

First pass metabolism

A
This is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. As a consequence much larger doses are need orally than if given by other routes. This effect is seen in many drugs, including:
aspirin
isosorbide dinitrate
glyceryl trinitrate
lignocaine
propranolol
verapamil
isoprenaline
testosterone
hydrocortisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Zero order kinetics

A

Zero-order kinetics describes metabolism which is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. This explains why people may fail a breathalyser test in the morning if they have been drinking the night before

Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics
phenytoin
salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
heparin
ethanol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Acetylator status

A

50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase

Drugs affected by acetylator status
isoniazid
procainamide
hydralazine
dapsone
sulfasalazine
60
Q

Abx - inhibit cell wall formation

A

peptidoglycan cross-linking: penicillins, cephalosporins, carbopenems
peptidoglycan synthesis: glycopeptides (e.g. vancomycin)

61
Q

peptidoglycan cross linking - inhibits cell wall formation

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, carbopenems

62
Q

Peptidoglycan synthesis - inhibit cell wall formation

A

glycopeptides e.g. vancomycin

63
Q

ABx MOA Inhibits protein synthesis (by acting on the ribosome)
50S subunit:

A

macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins

64
Q

ABx MOA Inhibits protein synthesis (by acting on the ribosome) 30S subunit:

A

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines

65
Q

Abx MOA Inhibits DNA synthesis

A

quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin

66
Q

Abx MOA Damages DNA

A

metronidazole

67
Q

Abx MOA inhibit folic acid formation

A

sulphonamides

trimethoprim

68
Q

Abx MOA inhibits RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

69
Q

drug induced hypotension

A
diltiazem
levodopa
isosorbide mononitrate
bromocriptine
verapamil
70
Q

Drug induced ankle swelling

A

diltiazem

amlodipine

71
Q

Drug induced bronchospasm

A

adenosine

beta-blockers

72
Q

Management of hyperlipidaemia

Statins

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

Adverse effects: Myositis, deranged LFTs

73
Q

Management of hyperlipidaemia

Ezetimibe

A

Decreases cholesterol absorption in the small intestine

Adverse effects: Headache

74
Q

Management of hyperlipidaemia

Nicotinic acid

A

Decreases hepatic VLDL secretion

Adverse effects: Flushing, myositis

75
Q

Management of hyperlipidaemia

Fibrates

A

Agonist of PPAR-alpha therefore increases lipoprotein lipase expression
Adverse effects: Myositis, pruritus, cholestasis

76
Q

Management of hyperlipidaemia

Cholestyramine

A

Decreases bile acid reabsorption in the small intestine, upregulating the amount of cholesterol that is converted to bile acid

Adverse effects: GI side effects

77
Q

What is octreotide

A

long-acting analogue of somatostatin

somatostatin is released from D cells of pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon and insulin

78
Q

Uses of octreotide

A
acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
acromegaly
carcinoid syndrome
prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
VIPomas
refractory diarrhoea

Adverse effects: galls stones secondary to biliary stasis

79
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation

A

glycopeptides
cephalosporins
carbopenems
penicillins

80
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of ribosomes

A

tetracyclines

aminoglycosides

81
Q

infliximab

A

(anti-TNF): used in rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s

82
Q

rituximab

A

(anti-CD20): used in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis

83
Q

cetuximab

A

(epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist): used in metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer

84
Q

trastuzumab

A

(HER2/neu receptor antagonist): used in metastatic breast cancer

85
Q

alemtuzumab

A

(anti-CD52): used in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

86
Q

abciximab

A

(glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist): prevention of ischaemic events in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary interventions

87
Q

OKT3

A

(anti-CD3): used to prevent organ rejection

88
Q

Zero order kinetics

Drugs

A

phenytoin
salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
heparin
ethanol

89
Q

Acetylator status

50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase

A
isoniazid
procainamide
hydralazine
dapsone
sulfasalazine
90
Q

First pass metabolism

A
aspirin
isosorbide dinitrate
glyceryl trinitrate
lignocaine
propranolol
verapamil
isoprenaline
testosterone
hydrocortisone
91
Q

Drugs causing lung fibrosis

A

amiodarone
cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
nitrofurantoin
ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)

92
Q

Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors

side effects

A
visual disturbances e.g. blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
93
Q

Drug contra-indications

recent MI

A

hydralazine
metformin
sildenafil

94
Q

Mechanism of action

Metformin

A

acts by activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
increases insulin sensitivity
decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
may also reduce gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates

95
Q

Adverse effects of metformin

A

gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20%
reduced vitamin B12 absorption - rarely a clinical problem
lactic acidosis with severe liver disease or renal failure

96
Q

Contra-indications for metformin

A

chronic kidney disease:
tissue hypoxia e.g. recent MI, sepsis, AKI, severe dehydration
iodine-containing x-ray contrast media
intravenous pyelography (IVP)

97
Q

Abx that inhibit folic acid formation

A

sulphonamides

trimethoprim

98
Q

Methanol poisoning - effects

A

causes both the effects associated with alcohol (intoxication, nausea etc) and also specific visual problems, including blindness. These effects are thought to be secondary to the accumulation of formic acid - optic neuropathy

99
Q

Management of methanol poisoning

A

fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase) or ethanol
haemodialysis
cofactor therapy with folinic acid to reduce ophthalmological complications

100
Q

Quinolones - examples

A

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

101
Q

Quinolones- Mechanism of action

A

work by inhibiting DNA synthesis and are bactericidal in nature
inhibit topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

102
Q

Quinolones- mechanisms of resistance

A

mutations to DNA gyrase, efflux pumps which reduce intracellular quinolone concentration

103
Q

Quinolones- adverse effects

A
lower seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy
tendon damage (including rupture) - the risk is increased in patients also taking steroids
cartilage damage has been demonstrated in animal models and for this reason quinolones are generally avoided (but not necessarily contraindicated) in children
lengthens QT interval
104
Q

Quinolones- contra-indications

A

Quinolones should generally be avoided in women who are pregnant or breastfeeding
avoid in G6PD

105
Q

types of potassium sparing diuretics

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics may be divided into the epithelial sodium channel blockers (amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone and eplerenone).

They should be used with caution in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they precipitate hyperkalaemia.

106
Q

Amiloride

A

blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule
weak diuretic, usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)

107
Q

Aldosterone agonists

A
e.g. spironolactone 
acts in the cortical collecting duct
indications: ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used
heart failure
nephrotic syndrome
Conn's syndrome
108
Q

Adverse effects of heparin

A

bleeding
thrombocytopenia - see below
osteoporosis and an increased risk of fractures
hyperkalaemia - this is thought to be caused by inhibition of aldosterone secretion

109
Q

Standard heparin - mechanism of action

A

Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa

110
Q

Standard heparin - mechanism of action

A

Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa

111
Q

LMWH- mechanism of action

A

Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits factor Xa

112
Q

Heparin- induced thrombocytopenia

Pathophysiology

A

immune mediated - antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin
bind to the PF4-heparin complexes on the platelet surface and induce platelet activation by cross-linking FcγIIA receptors
usually does not develop until after 5-10 days of treatment

113
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Features

A

greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis and skin allergy
address need for ongoing anticoagulation:
direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban
danaparoid

Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulphate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

114
Q

Drugs affected by acelyator status

A
isoniazid
procainamide
hydralazine
dapsone
sulfasalazine
115
Q

Zero order metabolism drugs

A

phenytoin
salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
heparin
ethanol

116
Q

First pass metabolism drugs

A
aspirin
isosorbide dinitrate
glyceryl trinitrate
lignocaine
propranolol
verapamil
isoprenaline
testosterone
hydrocortisone
117
Q

mechanism of action of rifampicin

A

Inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase preventing transcription of DNA into mRNA

118
Q

Ethambutol mechanism of action

A

Inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan

119
Q

mechanism of action: Aspirin

A

Inhibits the formation of thromboxane A2

120
Q

Ethanol and ADH

A

Inhibits ADH production, so increases thirst and urination
reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal

121
Q

Interferon alpha and glucose tolerance

A

Impairs glucose tolerance

122
Q

Paracetamol overdose: worsening factors

A

Concurrent carbamazepine

Concurrent alcohol may be protective

123
Q

Lithium toxicity

A
Acute - coarse tremor 
Chronic - fine tremor
hyperreflexia
acute confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma
124
Q

Quinolones and GP6D

A

Avoid quinolones - ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

125
Q

Cyanide poisoning- features

A

Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds

acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

126
Q

Management of cyanide poisoning

A

supportive measures: 100% oxygen
definitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously)

127
Q

Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis - mnemonic: BLAST

A
Barbiturate
Lithium
Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
Salicylates
Theophyllines (charcoal haemoperfusion is preferable)
128
Q

Drugs that can’t be cleared with haemofiltration

A
tricyclics
benzodiazepines
dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
digoxin
beta-blockers
129
Q

Mechanism of action: levothyroxine

A

Acts on nuclear receptors to lead to an effect on gene transcription

130
Q

Ciprofloxacin and G6PD

A

Contra-indicated, causes increased haemolysis

Young, mediterranean/middle eastern, recent infection, jaundice

131
Q

cefalexin and IgE mediated penicillin allergy

A

Avoid, small proportion of patients have cross-reactivity

132
Q

Thiazides reactions

A

Photosensitivity - rash on sun exposed skin

133
Q

Organophosphates

A

Found in pesticides
Treat with atropine
Headache, disorientation, weakness (due to over-stimulation at the neuromuscular junction), vomiting, and muscarinic effects such as miosis, bradycardia and increased urination

134
Q

Verapamil can cause constipation

A

also heart failure, hypotension,

135
Q

Aspirin skin side effects

A

Can cause urticarial rashes

136
Q

Features of methanol poisoning

A

same as alcohol - nausea, intoxication
Visual problems, including blindness
Secondary to increased production of formic acid

137
Q

Management of ethanol poisoning

A

Fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase) or ethanol
haemodialysis
cofactor therapy with folinic acid to reduce ophthalmological complications

138
Q

Management of serotonin syndrome

A

Supportive including IV fluids
benzodiazepines
more severe cases are managed using serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine

139
Q

Adverse effects of Herceptin (trastuzumab)

A

Cardiomyopathy - pre-treatment ECHO
Flu like symptoms
Diarrhoea

140
Q

Rituximab - target receptor

A

CD20

141
Q

Mechanism of action: Nivolumab - used in lung cancer and melanoma

A

D-1 (programmed cell death) inhibitor. PD-1 receptors are found on the surface of T cells. When a T cell is alerted to a cancer cell the cancer cell can express the PD-L1 protein. This is a ligand which binds to the T cell receptor and deactivates it. It is therefore a mechanism cancer cells use to evade the immune system and disable T cells. The PD-1 inhibitors are antibodies which block this receptor, leaving the T cells to remain active and alert other immune cells for example macrophages to the cancer cells

142
Q

DRESS syndrome

A

morbilliform skin rash in 80% cases which often leads to an exfoliative dermatitis, high fever, and inflammation of one or more organs. Vesicles and bullae may be seen
Haematological abnormalities

143
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis Type 1

A

Excess iodine induced thyroid hormone synthesis
Goitre present
Managed with carbemazepine or potassium perchlorate

144
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis Type 2

A

Amiodarone related destructive thyroiditis
No goitre
managed with corticosteroids

145
Q

Ciclosporin and tacrolimus mechanism of action

A

Inhibit calcineurin –> reduction in IL2–> inhibits T cell proliferation