Clinical Haematology/Oncology Flashcards

(197 cards)

1
Q

Causes of intravascular haemolysis

A
mismatched blood transfusion
G6PD deficiency*
red cell fragmentation: heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS
paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of extravascular haemolysis

A

haemoglobinopathies: sickle cell, thalassaemia
hereditary spherocytosis
haemolytic disease of newborn
warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Features of AML

A

anaemia: pallor, lethargy, weakness
neutropenia: whilst white cell counts may be very high, functioning neutrophil levels may be low leading to frequent infections etc
thrombocytopenia: bleeding
splenomegaly
bone pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Poor prognostic factors of AML

A

> 60 years
20% blasts after first course of chemo
cytogenetics: deletions of chromosome 5 or 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3

A

associated with t(15;17)
fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes
presents younger than other types of AML (average = 25 years old)
Auer rods (seen with myeloperoxidase stain)
DIC or thrombocytopenia often at presentation
good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

French-American-British classification of AML

A
MO - undifferentiated
M1 - without maturation
M2 - with granulocytic maturation
M3 - acute promyelocytic
M4 - granulocytic and monocytic maturation
M5 - monocytic
M6 - erythroleukaemia
M7 - megakaryoblastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Megaloblastic causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normoblastic causes of macrocytic anaemia

A
alcohol
liver disease
hypothyroidism
pregnancy
reticulocytosis
myelodysplasia
drugs: cytotoxics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Target cells

A

Sickle-cell/thalassaemia
Iron-deficiency anaemia
Hyposplenism
Liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

‘Tear-drop’ poikilocytes

A

Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spherocytes

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning
Thalassaemia
Sideroblastic anaemia
Myelodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

Hyposplenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heinz bodies

A

G6PD deficiency

Alpha-thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Schistocytes (‘helmet cells’)

A

Intravascular haemolysis
Mechanical heart valve
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

‘Pencil’ poikilocytes

A

Iron deficency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Burr cells (echinocytes)

A

Uraemia

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acanthocytes

A

Abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A

CA-125 - Ovarian cancer
CA 19 -9 pancreatic cancer
Ca 15-3 Breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tumour antigens

A

PSA
Alfa-feto protein - hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen - colorectal ca
S-100 - schwannoma, melanoma
Bombesin - small cell lung ca, gastric ca, neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of thrombocytosis

A

reactive: platelets are an acute phase reactant - platelet count can increase in response to stress such as a severe infection, surgery. Iron deficiency anaemia can also cause a reactive thrombocytosis
malignancy
essential thrombocytosis (see below), or as part of another myeloproliferative disorder such as chronic myeloid leukaemia or polycythaemia rubra vera
hyposplenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is essential thrombocytosis

A

myeloproliferative disorders which overlaps with chronic myeloid leukaemia, polycythaemia rubra vera and myelofibrosis. Megakaryocyte proliferation results in an overproduction of platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

features of essential thrombocytosis

A

platelet count > 600 * 109/l
both thrombosis (venous or arterial) and haemorrhage can be seen
a characteristic symptom is a burning sensation in the hands
a JAK2 mutation is found in around 50% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Management of essential thrombocytosis

A

hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) is widely used to reduce the platelet count
interferon-α is also used in younger patients
low-dose aspirin may be used to reduce the thrombotic risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Poor prognostic factors in CLL
``` male sex age > 70 years lymphocyte count > 50 prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes lymphocyte doubling time < 12 months raised LDH CD38 expression positive TP53 mutation ```
26
Chromosomal changes in CLL
deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q) is the most common abnormality, being seen in around 50% of patients. It is associated with a good prognosis deletions of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p) are seen in around 5-10% of patients and are associated with a poor prognosis
27
Chromosomal changes in CML
Phillidelphia chromosome It is due to a translocation between the long arm of chromosome 9 and 22 - t(9:22)(q34; q11). This results in part of the ABL proto-oncogene from chromosome 9 being fused with the BCR gene from chromosome 22. The resulting BCR-ABL gene codes for a fusion protein that has tyrosine kinase activity in excess of normal.
28
Features of CML
anaemia: lethargy weight loss and sweating are common splenomegaly may be marked → abdo discomfort an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation +/- thrombocytosis decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase may undergo blast transformation (AML in 80%, ALL in 20%)
29
Management of CML
imatinib is now considered first-line treatment inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect very high response rate in chronic phase CML hydroxyurea interferon-alpha allogenic bone marrow transplant
30
Microcytic anaemia - causes
``` iron-deficiency anaemia thalassaemia* congenital sideroblastic anaemia anaemia of chronic disease (more commonly a normocytic, normochromic picture) lead poisoning ```
31
What is tranexamic acid
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine. Its primary mode of action is as an antifibrinolytic that reversibly binds to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin. This prevents plasmin from binding to and degrading fibrin.
32
What is G6PD deficiency
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the commonest red blood cell enzyme defect. It is more common in people from the Mediterranean and Africa and is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion. Many drugs can precipitate a crisis as well as infections and broad (fava) beans
33
pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency
G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate→ 6-phosphogluconolactone this reaction also results in nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) → NADPH i.e. glucose-6-phosphate + NADP → 6-phosphogluconolactone + NADPH NADPH is important for converting oxidizied glutathine back to it's reduced form reduced glutathine protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide ↓ G6PD → ↓ reduced NADPH → ↓ reduced glutathione → increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress
34
Features of G6PD deficiency
``` neonatal jaundice is often seen intravascular haemolysis gallstones are common splenomegaly may be present Heinz bodies on blood films. Bite and blister cells may also be seen ```
35
Drugs causing haemolysis in G6PD deficiency
anti-malarials: primaquine ciprofloxacin sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas
36
Safe drugs in G6PD deficiency
``` penicillins cephalosporins macrolides tetracyclines trimethoprim ```
37
Abetalipoproteinemia
rare inherited disorder that impacts fab absorption from the intestines and reduces lipid mobilisation from the liver causes Acanthocytes
38
severe combined immunodeficiency
combined B and T cell deficiency
39
Risk factors for Breast Cancer
BRCA1, BRCA2 genes - 40% lifetime risk of breast/ovarian cancer 1st degree relative premenopausal relative with breast cancer (e.g. mother) nulliparity, 1st pregnancy > 30 yrs (twice risk of women having 1st child < 25 yrs) early menarche, late menopause combined hormone replacement therapy (relative risk increase * 1.023/year of use), combined oral contraceptive use past breast cancer not breastfeeding ionising radiation p53 gene mutations obesity previous surgery for benign disease (?more follow-up, scar hides lump)
40
Mechanism of Action for Cyclophosphamide
Alkylating agent - causes cross-linking in DNA
41
Adverse Effects of cyclophosphamide
Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma
42
Mechanism of action of bleomycin
Degrades preformed DNA
43
Adverse effects of bleomycin
lung fibrosis
44
Mechanism of action for Anthracyclines (e.g doxorubicin)
Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
45
Adverse effects of anthracyclines e.g. doxorubicin
Cardiomyopathy
46
Blood film abnormalities Hyposplenism
``` siderotic granules target cells acanthocytes Howell-Jolly bodies Pappenheimer bodies ```
47
Blood film abnormalities Thalassemia
Heinz bodies basophilic stippling target cells
48
Blood film abnormalities Iron Deficiency Anaemia
target cells | pencil poikilocytes
49
CLL investigations
full blood count: lymphocytosis anaemia blood film: smudge cells (also known as smear cells) immunophenotyping is the key investigation
50
Clinical features of CLL
often none: may be picked up by an incidental finding of lymphocytosis constitutional: anorexia, weight loss bleeding, infections lymphadenopathy more marked than chronic myeloid leukaemia
51
What is CLL
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is caused by a monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes which are almost always B-cells (99%). It is the most common form of leukaemia seen in adults.
52
types of hogkins lymphoma
nodular sclerosing- most common mixed cellularity- reed sternburg cells lymphocyte predominant- best prognosis lymphocyte depleted- worst prognosis
53
aetiology of congenital sideroblastic anaemia
Delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency
54
What is congential sideroblastic anaemia
condition where red cells fail to completely form haem, whose biosynthesis takes place partly in the mitochondrion. This leads to deposits of iron in the mitochondria that form a ring around the nucleus called a ring sideroblast. It may be congenital or acquired.
55
Acquired causes of sideroblastic anaemia
myelodysplasia alcohol lead anti-TB medications
56
investigations of sideroblastic anaemia
``` full blood count hypochromic microcytic anaemia (more so in congenital) iron studies high ferritin high iron high transferrin saturation blood film basophilic stippling of red blood cells bone marrow Prussian blue staining will show ringed sideroblasts Pyroxidine may be useful ```
57
Features of CLL
often none: may be picked up by an incidental finding of lymphocytosis constitutional: anorexia, weight loss bleeding, infections lymphadenopathy more marked than chronic myeloid leukaemia
58
Investigations for CLL
often none: may be picked up by an incidental finding of lymphocytosis constitutional: anorexia, weight loss bleeding, infections lymphadenopathy more marked than chronic myeloid leukaemia
59
cause of CLL
monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes which are almost always B-cells (99%). It is the most common form of leukaemia seen in adults.
60
Blood film abnormalities | Caused by hyposplenism
``` siderotic granules target cells acanthocytes Howell-Jolly bodies Pappenheimer bodies ```
61
blood film abnormalities | caused by intravascular haemolysis
schistocytes ('helmet cells')
62
blood film abnormalities | liver disease
target cells
63
blood film abnormalities | Thalassaemia
Heinz bodies basophilic stippling target cells
64
blood film abnormalities | iron deficiency anaemia
target cells | pencil poikilocytes
65
treatment of essential thrombocytosis
hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) is widely used to reduce the platelet count interferon-α is also used in younger patients low-dose aspirin may be used to reduce the thrombotic risk
66
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: good prognostic features
``` Del(9p) Pre-B phenotype low initial WBC French-American-British (FAB) L1 type common ALL ```
67
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia | poor prognostic factors
``` FAB L3 type T or B cell surface markers Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22) age < 2 years or > 10 years male sex CNS involvement high initial WBC (e.g. > 100 * 109/l) non-Caucasian ```
67
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia | poor prognostic factors
``` FAB L3 type T or B cell surface markers Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22) age < 2 years or > 10 years male sex CNS involvement high initial WBC (e.g. > 100 * 109/l) non-Caucasian ```
68
Causes of massive hepatomegaly
``` myelofibrosis chronic myeloid leukaemia visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) malaria Gaucher's syndrome ```
69
C-MYC
Burkitt Lymphoma
70
BCL-2
Follicular lymphoma
71
Types of Burkitt's Lymphoma
Burkitt's lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms: endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileo-caecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV
72
Burkitt's lymphoma | Microscopy findings
'starry sky' appearance: lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells
73
complications of tumour lysis syndrome
``` hyperkalaemia hyperphosphataemia hypocalcaemia hyperuricaemia acute renal failure ```
74
Treatment of tumour lysis syndrome
Rasburicase (a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme which catalyses the conversion of uric acid to allantoin*)
75
Mechanism of action | Fluorouracil (5-FU)
Pyrimidine analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (works during S phase)
76
Fluorouracil (5-FU) adverse reactions
Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis
77
Anti-metabolites (chemo)
Methotrexate Fluorouracil (5-FU) 6-mercaptopurine Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis Myelosuppression Cytarabine
78
Mechanism of action: Methotrexate
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis
79
Methotrexate Adverse effects
Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis
80
Mechanism of action 6-mercaptopurine
Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis
81
Adverse effects: 6-mercaptopurine
Myelosuppression
82
Mechanism of action Cytarabine
Pyrimidine antagonist. Interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase
83
Adverse effects of Cytarabine
Myelosuppression, ataxia
84
Chemotherapy: acts on microtubules
Vincristine, vinblastine, Docetaxel
85
Mechanism of action | Vinchrinstine, vinblastine
Inhibits formation of microtubules
86
Adverse effects vincristine
Reversible peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus
87
Adverse effects vinblastine
myelosuppression
88
Mechanism of action Docetaxel
Prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, decreasing free tubulin
89
Adverse effects docetaxel
Neutropaenia
90
Cyclophosphamide- alkylating agent chemotherapy
Alkylating agent - causes cross-linking in DNA
91
Cyclophosphamide adverse effects
Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma
92
Cytotoxic antibiotics
Bleomycin, anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin)
93
Mechanismof action Bleomycin
Degrades preformed DNA
94
Adverse effects: Bleomycin
Lung fibrosis
95
Mechanism of action | Anthracyclines (e.g doxorubicin)
Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
96
Adverse reactions Anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin)
Cardiomyopathy
97
Topoisomerase inhibitors mechanism of action
Inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA
98
Examples of topoisomerase inhibitors
Irinotecan
99
Adverse effects of irinotecan
myelosuppression
100
Cisplatin- mechanism of action
Causes cross-linking in DNA
101
Cisplatin - adverse effects
Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia
102
Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) mechanism of action
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis
103
Hydroxyurea adverse effects
myleosuppression
104
Causes of normocytic anaemia
``` anaemia of chronic disease chronic kidney disease aplastic anaemia haemolytic anaemia acute blood loss ```
105
What is mantle cell lymphoma
sub type of B cell lymphoma
106
Genetics of Mantle Cell Lymphoma
``` CD5+, CD19+, CD22+, CD23-, CD10- associated translocation (11;14) causing over-expression of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene ```
107
Features of mantle cell lymphoma
widespread lymphadenopathy | poor prognosis
108
What is paroxysmal nocturnal haematuria
an acquired disorder leading to haemolysis (mainly intravascular) of haematological cells. It is thought to be caused by increased sensitivity of cell membranes to complement (see below) due to a lack of glycoprotein glycosyl-phosphatidylinositol (GPI). Patients are more prone to venous thrombosis
109
Pathology of paroxysmal nocturnal haematuriaFeat
GPI can be thought of as an anchor which attaches surface proteins to the cell membrane complement-regulating surface proteins, e.g. decay-accelerating factor (DAF), are not properly bound to the cell membrane due a lack of GPI thrombosis is thought to be caused by a lack of CD59 on platelet membranes predisposing to platelet aggregation
110
Features of paroxysmal nocturnal haematuria
haemolytic anaemia red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets or stem cells may be affected therefore pancytopaenia may be present haemoglobinuria: classically dark-coloured urine in the morning (although has been shown to occur throughout the day) thrombosis e.g. Budd-Chiari syndrome aplastic anaemia may develop in some patients
111
Diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal haematuria
flow cytometry of blood to detect low levels of CD59 and CD55 has now replaced Ham's test as the gold standard investigation in PNH Ham's test: acid-induced haemolysis (normal red cells would not)
112
Management of paroxysmal nocturnal haematuria
blood product replacement anticoagulation eculizumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against terminal protein C5, is currently being trialled and is showing promise in reducing intravascular haemolysis stem cell transplantation
113
blood film abnormalities - intravascular haemolysis
schistocytes ('helmet cells')
114
Blood film abnormalities - thalassemia
Heinz bodies basophilic stippling target cells
115
Lead poisoning- clinical features
``` abdominal pain peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor) fatigue constipation blue lines on gum margin (only 20% of adult patients, very rare in children ```
116
Lead poisoning
acute intermittent porphyria, lead poisoning should be considered in questions giving a combination of abdominal pain and neurological signs. Lead poisoning results in defective ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase function.
117
Lead poisoning - investigations
blood lead level, blood film- basophilic stippling, clover leaf morphology, full blood count: microcytic anaemia, raised serum and urine levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid, urinary coproporphyrin is also increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased) in children, lead can accumulate in the metaphysis of the bones although x-rays are not part of the standard work-up
118
Management of Lead poisoning
dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) D-penicillamine EDTA dimercaprol
119
What is Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
an uncommon condition seen in older men. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein
120
Features of Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia systemic upset: weight loss, lethargy hyperviscosity syndrome e.g. visual disturbance the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity hepatosplenomegaly lymphadenopathy cryoglobulinaemia e.g. Raynaud's
121
Role of von Willebrand Factor
large glycoprotein which forms massive multimers up to 1,000,000 Da in size promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium carrier molecule for factor VIII
122
What is von Willebrand's disease
Von Willebrand's disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. The majority of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion* and characteristically behaves like a platelet disorder i.e. epistaxis and menorrhagia are common whilst haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare
123
Types of von Willebrand's disease
type 1: partial reduction in vWF (80% of patients) type 2*: abnormal form of vWF type 3**: total lack of vWF (autosomal recessive)
124
Investigations of von Willebrand's
prolonged bleeding time APTT may be prolonged factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced defective platelet aggregation with ristoce
125
tranexamic acid for mild bleeding desmopressin (DDAVP): raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells factor VIII concentrate
tranexamic acid for mild bleeding desmopressin (DDAVP): raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells factor VIII concentrate
126
What is Methaemoglobinaemia
Methaemoglobinaemia describes haemoglobin which has been oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin resulting in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxidation dissociation curve is moved to the left
127
Congenital causes of Methaemoglobinaemia
haemoglobin chain variants: HbM, HbH | NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency
128
Acquired causes of methaemoglobinaemia
drugs: sulphonamides, nitrates (including recreational nitrates e.g. amyl nitrite 'poppers'), dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, primaquine chemicals: aniline dyes
129
Features of methaemoglobinaemia
'chocolate' cyanosis dyspnoea, anxiety, headache severe: acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, coma normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation
130
Management of methaemoglobinaemia
NADH - methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency: ascorbic acid IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) if acquired
131
stereotypical history of hereditary spherocytosis
a 10-year-old child with a history of neonatal jaundice develops pallor and jaundice after an upper respiratory tract infection associated with erythematous cheeks. Splenomegaly is noted on examination
132
Basics of hereditary spherocytosis
most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent autosomal dominant defect of red blood cell cytoskeleton the normal biconcave disc shape is replaced by a sphere-shaped red blood cell red blood cell survival reduced as destroyed by the spleen
133
Presentation of hereditary spherocytosis
``` failure to thrive jaundice, gallstones splenomegaly aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection degree of haemolysis variable MCHC elevated ```
134
Management of hereditary spherocytosis
``` acute haemolytic crisis: treatment is generally supportive transfusion if necessary longer term treatment: folate replacement splenectomy ```
135
Cancer caused by nitrosamines
oesophageal and gastric
136
histology of hodgkin's lymphoma
giant B cells with bilobed nuclei that have prominent eosinophilic inclusions
136
histology of hodgkin's lymphoma
giant B cells with bilobed nuclei that have prominent eosinophilic inclusions
137
Neutrophil disorders: Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Lack of NADPH oxidase reduces ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species Causes recurrent pneumonias and abscesses, particularly due to catalase-positive bacteria (e.g. Staphylococcus aureus and fungi (e.g. Aspergillus) Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test Abnormal dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry test
138
Neutrophil disorders: Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Microtubule polymerization defect which leads to a decrease in phagocytosis Affected children have 'partial albinism' and peripheral neuropathy. Recurrent bacterial infections are seen Giant granules in neutrophils and platelets
139
neutophil disorders: leukocyte adhesion disorders
Defect of LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on neutrophils Recurrent bacterial infections. Delay in umbilical cord sloughing may be seen Absence of neutrophils/pus at sites of infection
140
What is the underlying aetiology of acute intermittent porphyria?
Defect in porphobilinogen deaminase
141
what is the underlying aetiology of porphyria cutanea tarda
Defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
142
Aetiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a metalloprotease enzyme)
143
Aetiology of ITP
Antibodies directed against the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex
144
Hypersegmented neutrophils are associated with
megaloblastic anaemia
145
Poor prognosit factors ALL
``` FAB L3 type T or B cell surface markers Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22) age < 2 years or > 10 years male sex CNS involvement high initial WBC (e.g. > 100 * 109/l) non-Caucasian ```
146
Stereotypical history of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
a 60-year-old woman presents with cold peripheries. Investigations show a normocytic anaemia and a positive direct antiglobulin test
147
Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
occurs at body temperature Extravascular sites e.g. spleen autoimmune disease: e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus* neoplasia: e.g. lymphoma, CLL drugs: e.g. methyldopa Management options include steroids, immunosuppression and splenectomy
148
Cold automimmune haemolytic anaemia
usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4 deg C. Haemolysis is mediated by complement and is more commonly intravascular. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud's and acrocynaosis. Patients respond less well to steroids Causes of cold AIHA neoplasia: e.g. lymphoma infections: e.g. mycoplasma, EBV
149
mechanism of action of irinotecan
Inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA
150
Mechanism of action docetaxel
Prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, decreasing free tubulin
151
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (pathogenesis)
abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand's factor cause platelets to clump within vessels in TTP there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a metalloprotease enzyme) which breakdowns ('cleaves') large multimers of von Willebrand's factor overlaps with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
152
Features of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
``` rare, typically adult females fever fluctuating neuro signs (microemboli) microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia thrombocytopenia renal failure ```
153
Causes of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
post-infection e.g. urinary, gastrointestinal pregnancy drugs: ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, aciclovir tumours SLE HIV
154
Underlying defect in Chronic granulomatous disease
Lack of NADPH oxidase reduces ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species Causes recurrent pneumonias and abscesses
155
Neutrophil disorders | Underlying defect in Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Microtubule polymerization defect which leads to a decrease in phagocytosis Affected children have 'partial albinism' and peripheral neuropathy. Recurrent bacterial infections are seen Giant granules in neutrophils and platelets
156
Neutrophil disorders: | Underlying defect in Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
Defect of LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on neutrophils Recurrent bacterial infections. Delay in umbilical cord sloughing may be seen Absence of neutrophils/pus at sites of infection
157
B Cell disorders: Common variable immunodeficiency
Many varying causes Hypogammaglobulinemia is seen. May predispose to autoimmune disorders and lymphona
158
B Cell disorders: Bruton's (x-linked) congenital agammaglobulinaemia
Defect in Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) gene that leads to a severe block in B cell development X-linked recessive. Recurrent bacterial infections are seen Absence of B-cells with reduced immunoglogulins of all classes
159
B cell disorders: Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency
Maturation defect in B cells Most common primary antibody deficiency. Recurrent sinus and respiratory infections Associated with coeliac disease and may cause false negative coeliac antibody screen Severe reactions to blood transfusions may occur (anti-IgA antibodies → analphylaxis)
160
T cell disorders: DiGeorge syndrome
22q11.2 deletion, failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches Common features include congenital heart disease (e.g. tetralogy of Fallot), learning difficulties, hypocalcaemia, recurrent viral/fun
161
Combined B- and T- cell related disorders: | Severe combined immunodeficiency
Many varying causes. Most common (X-linked) due to defect in the common gamma chain, a protein used in the receptors for IL-2 and other interleukins. Other causes include adenosine deaminase deficiency Recurrent infections due to viruses, bacteria and fungi. Reduced T-cell receptor excision circles Stem cell transplantation may be successful
162
Combined B- and T-cell disorders: Ataxic telangiectasia
Defect in DNA repair enzymes Autosomal recessive. Features include cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasia (spider angiomas), recurrent chest infections and 10% risk of developing malignancy, lymphoma or leukaemia
163
Combined B- and T- cell disorders Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Defect in WASP gene X-linked recessive. Features include recurrent bacterial infections, eczema, thrombocytopaenia. Low IgM levels Increased risk of autoimmune disorders and malignancy
164
Combined B- and T- cell disorders: Hyper IgM Syndromes
Mutations in the CD40 gene | Infection/Pneumocystis pneumonia, hepatitis, diarrhoea
165
Carcinogens: Aflatoxin (produced by Aspergillus)
Associated with Liver- HCC
166
Carcinogens: Aniline dyes
Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)
167
Carcinogens: Asbestos
Mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma
168
Carcinogens: Nitrosamines
Oesophageal and Gastric cancer
169
Carcinogens: Vinyl chloride
Hepatic angiosarcoma
170
What is mesna
2-mercaptoethane sulfonate Na a metabolite of cyclophosphamide called acrolein is toxic to urothelium mesna binds to and inactivates acrolein helping to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis
170
What is mesna
2-mercaptoethane sulfonate Na a metabolite of cyclophosphamide called acrolein is toxic to urothelium mesna binds to and inactivates acrolein helping to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis
171
Mechanism of action: doxorubicin
Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex, inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
172
Leukemoid reaction
active leucocytosis, often secondary to infection or inflammation Raised leuocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score.
173
what is Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
uncommon condition seen in older men. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein
174
Features of Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia systemic upset: weight loss, lethargy hyperviscosity syndrome e.g. visual disturbance the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity hepatosplenomegaly lymphadenopathy cryoglobulinaemia e.g. Raynaud's
175
Methotrexate mechanism of action
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis
176
DIC blood film
schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
177
Hyposplenism blood film
Howell-Joey cells and siderocytes
178
Aprepitant
anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor. It is a substance P antagonists (SPA). It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting. It is also been shown to be effective in treating clinical depression
179
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
Autosomal dominant Consists of germline mutations to p53 tumour suppressor gene High incidence of malignancies particularly sarcomas and leukaemias Diagnosed when: * Individual develops sarcoma under 45 years * First degree relative diagnosed with any cancer below age 45 years and another family member develops malignancy under 45 years or sarcoma at any age
180
Features of methaemoglobinaemia
chocolate' cyanosis dyspnoea, anxiety, headache severe: acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, coma normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation
181
Management of methaemoglobinaemia
NADH - methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency: ascorbic acid IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) if acquired
182
What is methaemoglobinaemia
Methaemoglobinaemia describes haemoglobin which has been oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin resulting in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxidation dissociation curve is moved to the left
183
Presentation of acute intermittent porphyria
abdominal: abdominal pain, vomiting neurological: motor neuropathy psychiatric: e.g. depression hypertension and tachycardia common
184
Diagnosis of acute intermittent porphyria
classically urine turns deep red on standing raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent during acute attacks) assay of red cells for porphobilinogen deaminase raised serum levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
185
Side effects of cisplatin
- platinum based chemo - causes ototoxcitiy, peripheral neuropathy and hypomagneseaemia - also associated with
186
Features of Wap-Aldrich
``` recurrent bacterial infections (e.g. Chest) eczema thrombocytopaenia low IgM levels WASP mutation ```
187
Wasp-Aldrich pathophysiology
primary immunodeficiency due to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction. It is inherited in a X-linked recessive fashion and is thought to be caused by mutation in the WASP gene.
188
Hep C is associated with? ... purpuric rash
Cryoglobulinaemia
189
What type of cryoglobulinaemia is Raynaurd's?
Type 1 - monoclonal - IgG or IgM | associations: multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia
190
Investigations in von Willebrands
prolonged bleeding time APTT may be prolonged factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin
191
Tumour lysis syndrom
High phosphate and potassium | Low calcium
192
Presentation of Haemolytic spherocytosis
``` failure to thrive jaundice, gallstones splenomegaly aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection degree of haemolysis variable MCHC elevated ```
193
Diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis
EMA binding test
194
Management of hereditary spherocytosis
``` acute haemolytic crisis: treatment is generally supportive transfusion if necessary longer term treatment: folate replacement splenectomy steroids are not recommended ```